A -year-old man presents to the clinic with acute, severe pain and swelling in his right knee that began hours ago. He reports the pain is so intense that he cannot tolerate the weight of his clothing over the joint. His medical history is significant for a deceased-donor renal transplant years ago for end-stage renal disease secondary to hypertensive nephrosclerosis. His current medications include cyclosporine, mycophenolate mofetil, prednisone ( daily), and amlodipine. Temperature is (), blood pressure is , and pulse is . Physical examination shows an erythematous, warm, and swollen right knee with exquisitely limited range of motion. Joint aspiration yields cloudy yellow fluid with a leukocyte count of ( neutrophils). Polarized light microscopy reveals negatively birefringent, needle-shaped crystals. Gram stain of the synovial fluid shows no organisms. Serum creatinine is , which is at his baseline. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial pharmacologic intervention for this patient's acute joint condition?
- Intra-articular triamcinolone injectionCevap
- BOral colchicine
- COral indomethacin
- DOral probenecid
- EIntravenous ceftriaxone