A 55-year-old man develops abrupt right-sided chest pain and dyspnea while recovering on the surgical ward. He underwent a partial colectomy for perforated diverticulitis days ago. His postoperative recovery was complicated by severe sepsis and ischemic acute tubular necrosis, for which he currently requires hemodialysis every other day. Since the day of surgery, he has been receiving twice-daily subcutaneous injections of unfractionated heparin for deep vein thrombosis prophylaxis.
Current vital signs include a temperature of (), blood pressure of , heart rate of , and respiratory rate of . Pulse oximetry shows on supplemental oxygen via nasal cannula.
A CT pulmonary angiogram confirms an acute segmental pulmonary embolism in the right lower lobe.
Today's laboratory results show:
Hemoglobin:
Platelet count: (down from on admission)
Blood urea nitrogen:
Serum creatinine:
The surgical team suspects heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT). In addition to immediately discontinuing all heparin products, which of the following is the most appropriate pharmacologic intervention?
- AInitiate subcutaneous enoxaparin
- Initiate intravenous argatrobanCevap
- CInitiate subcutaneous fondaparinux
- DInitiate oral warfarin
- EAdminister a platelet transfusion