A 78-year-old female patient is evaluated during a routine ambulatory appointment at a geriatrics clinic. Her daughter, who provides collateral history, expresses concern regarding the patient's escalating confusion and recent onset of urinary dribbling over the past month. The patient's medical history includes major depressive disorder, essential hypertension, type 2 diabetes mellitus, and painful diabetic peripheral neuropathy. Her daily medication regimen consists of metformin, amlodipine, sertraline, amitriptyline (initiated four weeks ago for neuropathy), and over-the-counter diphenhydramine (taken nightly for insomnia).
Vital signs show a heart rate of 92/min. Blood pressure is 138/82 mm Hg while supine and 112/68 mm Hg upon standing. Physical examination is notable for dry oral mucous membranes, delayed capillary refill, and a mildly distended, palpable mass in the suprapubic region. A bedside ultrasound of the bladder demonstrates a postvoid residual volume of 550 mL.
Which of the following is the most appropriate initial pharmacologic intervention?
- AInitiate oral oxybutynin therapy
- BInitiate oral donepezil therapy
- CDiscontinue amlodipine
- Discontinue amitriptyline and diphenhydramineCevap
- EDiscontinue sertraline