An -year-old man is evaluated in the intensive care unit for worsening oxygenation and persistent fever. He was admitted days ago for severe community-acquired pneumonia and required endotracheal intubation on hospital day due to acute respiratory failure. His empiric antimicrobial regimen includes intravenous vancomycin and cefepime. Today, his temperature is (), blood pressure is , and heart rate is . Endotracheal aspirate cultures drawn on admission have grown *Staphylococcus aureus*. Susceptibility testing reveals resistance to oxacillin and a vancomycin minimum inhibitory concentration (MIC) of .
Pertinent laboratory results:
- Leukocyte count:
- Serum creatinine: (baseline )
His medical history is significant for major depressive disorder and atrial fibrillation, for which he takes home medications including escitalopram, metoprolol, and apixaban via an orogastric tube. A decision is made to discontinue vancomycin and initiate an alternative agent for the methicillin-resistant *Staphylococcus aureus* (MRSA) infection. Which of the following is the most appropriate targeted pharmacologic intervention?
- Intravenous ceftarolineCevap
- BIntravenous linezolid
- CIntravenous daptomycin
- DIncreased dose of intravenous vancomycin
- EIntravenous piperacillin-tazobactam