A 68-year-old man is evaluated in the outpatient clinic for a 1-day history of severe right great toe pain, swelling, and redness. He reports the pain woke him from sleep and is so exquisite that he cannot bear the weight of a bedsheet on his foot. Medical history is notable for hypertension, type 2 diabetes mellitus, and chronic kidney disease stage 3b. One week ago, he was diagnosed with a peptic ulcer associated with Helicobacter pylori and was started on a 14-day eradication regimen. Current medications include lisinopril, amlodipine, clarithromycin, amoxicillin, and omeprazole. Vital signs are temperature 37.3°C (99.1°F), blood pressure 138/82 mmHg, and pulse 88/min. Physical examination shows a swollen, erythematous, and exquisitely tender right first metatarsophalangeal joint. Arthrocentesis is performed, and synovial fluid analysis reveals a leukocyte count of 25,000/mm³ and negatively birefringent, needle-shaped crystals. Gram stain is negative. Laboratory studies show:
| Test | Result |
|---|---|
| Leukocyte count | 11,200/mm³ |
| Serum uric acid | 5.4 mg/dL |
| Serum creatinine | 1.7 mg/dL (baseline 1.6 mg/dL) |
Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in pharmacologic management for this patient?
- Intra-articular triamcinoloneCevap
- BOral colchicine
- COral indomethacin
- DOral allopurinol
- EIntravenous ceftriaxone