A 38-year-old man is admitted to the hospital for intravenous antibiotic therapy for right lower extremity cellulitis. His past medical history is significant for treatment-resistant schizophrenia, which has been well-controlled for three years on a stable dose of clozapine (500 mg daily). He smokes two packs of cigarettes per day. Because the hospital is a smoke-free facility, he is prescribed a 21-mg nicotine transdermal patch upon admission to prevent withdrawal symptoms. His admission laboratory studies, including a serum creatinine of 0.8 mg/dL and normal liver enzymes, are unremarkable. He is started on intravenous daptomycin. On hospital day 4, the patient experiences a first-time generalized tonic-clonic seizure. Vital signs immediately following the event are temperature 37.0°C (98.6°F), blood pressure 132/82 mmHg, heart rate 94/min, and respiratory rate 16/min. Neurologic examination demonstrates post-ictal confusion but no focal deficits.
Which of the following medication management strategies upon admission would have most likely prevented this patient's new-onset neurologic complication?
- AReplace the nicotine transdermal patch with a nicotine inhaler
- BSubstitute daptomycin with an alternative antimicrobial agent
- Decrease the daily dosage of clozapine by 30% to 50%Cevap
- DCo-administer carbamazepine to accelerate clozapine metabolism
- EPrescribe bupropion for smoking cessation instead of nicotine replacement