A 68-year-old man presents to the clinic with severe pain, swelling, and redness in his right knee that began abruptly 18 hours ago. He has a history of poorly controlled type 2 diabetes mellitus, diabetic nephropathy, and hypertension. His current medications include insulin glargine, insulin lispro, and amlodipine. Vital signs show a temperature of 37.3°C (99.1°F), blood pressure of 145/88 mmHg, and heart rate of 88/min. Physical examination reveals an erythematous, markedly swollen, and exquisitely tender right knee with severely limited range of motion.
Laboratory studies reveal:
- Serum creatinine: 2.7 mg/dL (baseline 2.5 mg/dL)
- Estimated GFR: 24 mL/min/1.73 m²
- Serum glucose: 345 mg/dL
- Hemoglobin A1c: 10.4%
Arthrocentesis of the right knee yields 4 mL of turbid yellow fluid. Synovial fluid analysis shows a leukocyte count of 22,000/mm³ with 85% neutrophils. Polarized light microscopy demonstrates numerous needle-shaped, negatively birefringent crystals. Gram stain of the fluid shows no organisms.
Which of the following is the most appropriate pharmacologic intervention for this patient's acute joint condition?
- AOral indomethacin
- BOral colchicine
- Intra-articular triamcinoloneCevap
- DOral prednisone
- EIntravenous ceftriaxone