A 68-year-old man is hospitalized for an acute right lower extremity deep vein thrombosis. His medical history is significant for hypertension, type 2 diabetes mellitus, and end-stage renal disease on hemodialysis. On admission, he was started on a continuous intravenous unfractionated heparin infusion. On hospital day 4, routine morning laboratory studies reveal a platelet count of , representing a significant decline from his baseline of on admission. He is hemodynamically stable, his right leg swelling is unchanged, and there is no evidence of active bleeding. A serotonin release assay is ordered, but the clinical suspicion for heparin-induced thrombocytopenia is high. The heparin infusion is immediately discontinued. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the pharmacologic management of this patient?
- Initiate argatroban infusionCevap
- BInitiate fondaparinux subcutaneous injection
- CInitiate warfarin oral therapy
- DAdminister a platelet transfusion
- EWithhold further anticoagulation until the serotonin release assay results return