A 68-year-old man is evaluated in the urgent care clinic for a 24-hour history of severe, progressive pain and swelling in his right knee. He is unable to bear weight on the affected leg. His medical history is significant for type 2 diabetes mellitus, hypertension, and stage 4 chronic kidney disease with a baseline estimated glomerular filtration rate (eGFR) of . Current medications include amlodipine, insulin detemir, and calcium acetate. Vital signs are temperature (), pulse 88/min, and blood pressure 138/84 mm Hg. Physical examination reveals a swollen, erythematous, and exquisitely tender right knee with a moderate effusion. Arthrocentesis is performed. Synovial fluid analysis reveals a leukocyte count of (85% neutrophils) and the presence of negatively birefringent, needle-shaped crystals under polarized light microscopy. Gram stain is negative. Which of the following is the most appropriate pharmacologic intervention for this patient's acute joint condition?
- Intra-articular triamcinoloneCevap
- BIntravenous ceftriaxone and vancomycin
- COral allopurinol
- DOral colchicine
- EOral indomethacin