A 58-year-old man is treated in the intensive care unit for refractory septic shock secondary to a perforated viscus. Following initial resuscitation with of intravenous lactated Ringer solution, he requires escalating doses of vasoactive agents. His current infusions include norepinephrine at and vasopressin at . Despite these measures, his blood pressure is (mean arterial pressure ). His heart rate is and regular. Peripheral pulses are bounding. Point-of-care echocardiography demonstrates an underfilled left ventricular cavity, a hyperdynamic left ventricle with an estimated ejection fraction of , and systolic anterior motion of the mitral valve creating a dynamic left ventricular outflow tract gradient. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the pharmacologic management of this patient?
- AAdd a dobutamine infusion
- BAdd an epinephrine infusion
- Transition norepinephrine to a phenylephrine infusionCevap
- DInitiate empiric liposomal amphotericin B
- EAdminister a continuous furosemide infusion