An ambulatory care appointment is scheduled for a 64-year-old male patient who is being managed for chronic heart failure with reduced ejection fraction (HFrEF). Over the past three months, he has noticed a progressive decline in his exercise tolerance and now experiences shortness of breath when walking up a single flight of stairs, consistent with New York Heart Association (NYHA) class III symptoms. His current daily medication regimen comprises lisinopril 40 mg, metoprolol succinate 100 mg, and spironolactone 25 mg. In the clinic, his blood pressure measures and heart rate is . The physical examination is notable for mild jugular venous distention and trace bilateral lower extremity edema. A recent echocardiogram confirms a left ventricular ejection fraction of . Serum laboratory analysis reveals a potassium level of and an estimated glomerular filtration rate of . The treating physician plans to escalate his heart failure pharmacotherapy by replacing his current renin-angiotensin system inhibitor with sacubitril-valsartan. Which of the following is the most appropriate strategy for executing this pharmacologic transition?
- Discontinue lisinopril and wait at least 36 hours before administering the first dose of sacubitril-valsartanCevap
- BDiscontinue lisinopril and administer the first dose of sacubitril-valsartan at the next scheduled medication time
- CContinue lisinopril at half the current dose and simultaneously initiate sacubitril-valsartan to prevent acute decompensation
- DDiscontinue spironolactone, wait at least 36 hours, and then initiate sacubitril-valsartan
- EDiscontinue lisinopril, wait at least 36 hours, and initiate sacubitril-valsartan along with an oral potassium supplement