A -year-old man with a history of alcohol-associated cirrhosis and esophageal varices is evaluated in the intensive care unit. He was admitted days ago for worsening ascites, confusion, and abdominal pain. Upon admission, diagnostic paracentesis revealed an absolute neutrophil count of . Intravenous ceftriaxone was initiated for spontaneous bacterial peritonitis. His home medications include oral lactulose, spironolactone, furosemide, and nadolol. Upon admission, his diuretics were held, but nadolol was continued for primary prophylaxis of variceal bleeding.
Over the past hours, he has received volume expansion with intravenous albumin (). Despite these measures, his urine output has decreased to over the last hours.
Current vital signs:
Blood pressure:
Heart rate:
Temperature: ()
| Laboratory Test | Result |
|---|---|
| Serum sodium | |
| Serum potassium | |
| Blood urea nitrogen | |
| Serum creatinine | (baseline ) |
| Urine sodium |
Microscopic urinalysis is normal with no red blood cells, casts, or protein. Renal ultrasound demonstrates normal kidneys without hydronephrosis.
Which of the following pharmacologic interventions are indicated at this time? (Select all that apply)
- Discontinue oral nadololCevap
- Initiate intravenous terlipressinCevap
- Continue intravenous albuminCevap
- DAdminister intravenous furosemide
- ESubstitute ceftriaxone with intravenous vancomycin