A 68-year-old man is evaluated in the cardiac intensive care unit for acute-onset, severe right knee pain and swelling. He was admitted 2 days ago for a non-ST-segment elevation myocardial infarction (NSTEMI). His medical history is significant for chronic kidney disease stage 4 (baseline serum creatinine 2.4 mg/dL), hypertension, and a history of a bleeding gastric ulcer 1 year ago. His current medications include aspirin, ticagrelor, fondaparinux, metoprolol, and a high-intensity statin.
Vital signs show a temperature of 37.8°C (100.0°F), blood pressure 135/85 mm Hg, and pulse 88/min.
Physical examination reveals a markedly swollen, erythematous, warm, and exquisitely tender right knee. There is a large effusion, and range of motion is severely limited by pain.
Arthrocentesis is performed. Synovial fluid analysis shows a leukocyte count of 45,000/mm³ with 85% neutrophils. Polarized light microscopy reveals strongly negatively birefringent, needle-shaped crystals. Gram stain of the fluid is negative.
Which of the following is the most appropriate pharmacologic intervention for this patient's acute joint condition?
- Intra-articular triamcinoloneCevap
- BOral indomethacin
- COral colchicine
- DIntravenous ceftriaxone
- EOral allopurinol