A -year-old man presents to the addiction medicine clinic complaining of severe muscle aches, abdominal cramping, diarrhea, and rhinorrhea over the past days. He has a history of opioid use disorder and has been stable on a fixed daily dose of oral methadone for the past years without any illicit drug use. Three weeks ago, he was diagnosed with a latent tuberculosis infection after a positive interferon-gamma release assay. He was subsequently started on a daily regimen of oral rifampin, which is planned for a -month duration. His vital signs today include a blood pressure of mmHg, a heart rate of /min, and a temperature of (). Physical examination reveals diaphoresis, pupillary dilation, and hyperactive bowel sounds. A urine toxicology screen is negative for all illicit substances. Which of the following is the most appropriate pharmacologic intervention for this patient's current symptoms?
- AAdminister intramuscular naloxone
- BDecrease the daily dose of methadone
- CDiscontinue methadone and initiate sublingual buprenorphine-naloxone
- Increase the daily dose of methadoneCevap
- EMaintain the current methadone dose and add oral clonidine