A 65-year-old man presents to the clinic with severe pain, swelling, and redness in his right knee that began 24 hours ago. He has a history of ischemic cardiomyopathy with a left ventricular ejection fraction of 30%, chronic kidney disease stage 4 with a baseline estimated glomerular filtration rate of 22 mL/min/1.73 m², and a prior episode of upper gastrointestinal bleeding secondary to a peptic ulcer. Vital signs show a temperature of 37.4°C (99.3°F), blood pressure of 110/70 mmHg, and heart rate of 82/min. Physical examination reveals a warm, erythematous, and markedly tender right knee with a moderate effusion. Arthrocentesis is performed, and synovial fluid analysis reveals a leukocyte count of 28,000/mm³ and the presence of negatively birefringent, needle-shaped crystals under polarizing microscopy. Gram stain reveals no organisms. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial pharmacologic intervention for this patient's acute symptoms?
- Intra-articular triamcinoloneCevap
- BOral indomethacin
- COral colchicine
- DOral allopurinol
- EIntravenous vancomycin