A -year-old man is evaluated in the hospital for worsening renal function. He was admitted days ago for fever, confusion, and abdominal pain. He has a history of alcohol-associated cirrhosis. On admission, diagnostic paracentesis revealed an ascitic fluid absolute neutrophil count of . He was appropriately started on intravenous cefotaxime, and his home regimen of spironolactone and furosemide was discontinued.
Despite resolving fever and improving mental status over the past hours, his urine output has decreased to mL/day. Vital signs today show a temperature of (), blood pressure of mmHg, and heart rate of . Physical examination reveals scleral icterus, spider angiomas, and tense ascites without peripheral edema.
Laboratory results:
Sodium: mEq/L
Potassium: mEq/L
Blood urea nitrogen: mg/dL (was mg/dL on admission)
Creatinine: mg/dL (was mg/dL on admission)
Urine sodium: mEq/L
Urinalysis: No red blood cells, white blood cells, or casts.
A volume expansion trial with intravenous albumin ( g/kg/day for days) was completed, but his repeat serum creatinine today is mg/dL. Renal ultrasound reveals normal-sized kidneys with no hydronephrosis.
Which of the following is the most appropriate next pharmacologic intervention for this patient's renal failure?
- AIntravenous hydrocortisone
- BIntravenous furosemide
- Intravenous terlipressinCevap
- DOral lisinopril
- EIntravenous dopamine