A 58-year-old man is evaluated in the hospital for a 5-day history of fever, nonproductive cough, and right-sided pleuritic chest pain. He underwent a deceased-donor renal transplantation eight months ago and is maintained on a daily immunosuppressive regimen of tacrolimus, mycophenolate mofetil, and low-dose prednisone. Vital signs are temperature (), pulse , respirations , and blood pressure . Chest computed tomography reveals a dense right upper lobe nodule with a surrounding halo of ground-glass attenuation. Serum galactomannan assay is strongly positive, and bronchoscopy with bronchoalveolar lavage confirms the diagnosis of invasive pulmonary aspergillosis. The medical team decides to initiate the standard first-line targeted intravenous antifungal therapy for this condition. Which of the following concurrent pharmacologic interventions is most appropriate for this patient?
- Decrease the current dosage of tacrolimusCevap
- BIncrease the current dosage of tacrolimus
- CInitiate high-dose intravenous methylprednisolone
- DInitiate intravenous fluconazole therapy
- EWithhold antifungal therapy pending fungal blood culture results