A 55-year-old man with a history of recurrent major depressive disorder, generalized anxiety disorder, and chronic neuropathic pain is brought to the emergency department by his wife due to confusion, severe agitation, and profuse sweating that began earlier today. His home medications include fluoxetine and gabapentin. Three days ago, he was prescribed tramadol by an orthopedic surgeon for worsening back pain and linezolid by his primary care physician for a suspected methicillin-resistant *Staphylococcus aureus* skin infection. Vital signs are temperature 39.2°C (102.6°F), blood pressure 168/98 mmHg, heart rate 122/min, and respiratory rate 22/min. Physical examination reveals a diaphoretic, agitated man. Neurologic examination shows bilateral hyperreflexia and inducible myoclonus in the lower extremities. Bowel sounds are hyperactive.
Which of the following pharmacologic interventions are appropriate in the immediate management of this patient? (Select all that apply)
- Discontinue fluoxetine, tramadol, and linezolidCevap
- Administer intravenous lorazepamCevap
- CAdminister intravenous bromocriptine
- DAdminister intravenous physostigmine
- EAdminister intravenous fentanyl for pain management