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Question 2181Question →

A home health nurse is evaluating a preschool-aged child diagnosed with spastic cerebral palsy. The child's caregivers report severe behavioral frustration during meal times because the child lacks the fine motor control necessary to hold standard dining utensils independently. Which action represents the most appropriate interdisciplinary collaboration to address this specific barrier?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Initiate a referral to occupational therapy for the selection of specialized utensils and functional training

Answer

The nurse should initiate a referral to occupational therapy for the selection of specialized utensils and functional training.
Occupational therapists are the experts within the interdisciplinary team responsible for helping clients develop or regain the skills needed for activities of daily living (ADLs), such as feeding, dressing, and bathing. Because this client's barrier involves fine motor control and the need for adaptive dining utensils, the occupational therapist is the exact correct discipline to consult to foster the child's independence and reduce mealtime frustration.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the client's primary barrier identified in the scenario.
The preschool-aged child is experiencing frustration due to an inability to grasp standard utensils, which is a deficit in fine motor skills and an activity of daily living (ADL).
Identifying the exact nature of the deficit (fine motor/ADL vs. gross motor or swallowing) is required to select the correct allied health discipline.
2
Evaluate the scope of practice for the available interdisciplinary team members.
Occupational therapy focuses on fine motor coordination, ADLs, and adaptive equipment. Physical therapy focuses on gross motor skills and mobility. Speech-language pathology focuses on swallowing and speech.
Matching the client's specific deficit to the correct professional scope ensures effective, safe collaboration.
3
Select the intervention that directly addresses the root cause while maintaining safe delegation and accurate developmental expectations.
Referring to occupational therapy directly addresses the fine motor deficit, whereas delegating assessments to an aide or ignoring the developmental delay would be unsafe or incorrect.
Evidence-based practice requires prioritizing interventions that safely promote maximum functional independence.

Key Concept

Collaboration with Interdisciplinary Team
Question 2182Question →

Simultaneous vital sign alerts and assessment data are transmitted to the centralized monitor on an adult medical-surgical unit. Which client presentation dictates the most immediate physical evaluation by the nurse?

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Answer: A 24-year-old client admitted with a concussion who appears to be sleeping soundly, with a heart rate of 48 beats/min and a blood pressure of 176/54 mm Hg.

Answer

The 24-year-old client with a concussion, a heart rate of 48 beats/min, and a blood pressure of 176/54 mm Hg.
The correct answer identifies a client exhibiting Cushing's triad (bradycardia and a widening pulse pressure) along with a depressed level of consciousness (appearing to be 'sleeping soundly' after a head injury). This triad is a late, grave sign of severely increased intracranial pressure (ICP) indicating impending brainstem herniation. This constitutes an absolute medical emergency that takes immediate precedence over all other presented scenarios.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Evaluate the clinical data for the client with the head injury.
The client has significant bradycardia (48 beats/min) and a dangerously widened pulse pressure (systolic 176 minus diastolic 54 = 122 mm Hg), while presenting as 'sleeping soundly'.
Identifying abnormal vital sign patterns in clients with neurological injuries is the first step in emergency triage.
2
Correlate the findings with pathophysiological emergencies.
The combination of profound bradycardia, widening pulse pressure, and a depressed level of consciousness after a head trauma forms Cushing's triad.
Cushing's triad is a critical indicator of severely increased intracranial pressure that is compressing the brainstem.
3
Compare the severity of this emergency against the other clients' conditions.
Impending brain herniation represents an immediate, catastrophic threat to life. The other clients present with an expected chronic ABG finding, a slightly supratherapeutic lab value without bleeding, and mild compensatory tachycardia.
The prioritization framework dictates that immediate, unexpected threats to life (ABCs and severe neurological deterioration) must always be addressed first.

Key Concept

Cushing's triad (bradycardia, widening pulse pressure, and altered respirations or level of consciousness) is a late sign of increased intracranial pressure indicating impending brainstem herniation, requiring immediate life-saving intervention.
Estimated Time:1m 30s
Question 2183Question →

The nurse has received the shift report for four assigned clients. In what order should the nurse assess these clients? Arrange the clients from highest priority (first to be assessed) to lowest priority (last to be assessed).

Drag items to arrange them in the correct order

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Answer

The correct sequence of assessment is: the post-thyroidectomy client first, followed by the client with new-onset atrial fibrillation, then the client with acute cholecystitis, and finally the client requiring discharge teaching.
Based on the ABC prioritization framework, airway emergencies take absolute precedence. The post-thyroidectomy client's symptoms suggest a developing airway obstruction. Next is circulation; the client with rapid atrial fibrillation is at risk for compromised cardiac output. Third is the client with acute pain, which requires prompt but not life-saving intervention. Finally, routine tasks such as discharge teaching are the lowest priority and should be addressed last.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the clients using the ABCs (Airway, Breathing, Circulation) framework.
The post-thyroidectomy client has potential airway compromise.
Difficulty swallowing and neck tightness after neck surgery strongly indicate a possible hematoma compressing the trachea. Airway is always the highest priority.
2
Evaluate the remaining clients for circulatory or systemic threats.
The client with heart failure and new-onset atrial fibrillation (rate of 128 beats/min) has a circulation issue.
A rapid ventricular response can lead to decreased cardiac output and hemodynamic instability, making this the second priority under the 'Circulation' category.
3
Differentiate between acute symptom management and routine care for the last two clients.
The client with cholecystitis needs pain management, while the other needs routine discharge teaching.
Acute pain management takes precedence over routine education, placing the client with cholecystitis third and the discharge client fourth.

Key Concept

Prioritization utilizing the ABC (Airway, Breathing, Circulation) framework and the Acute vs. Routine care principles.
Question 2184Question →

A client who is experiencing confusion keeps attempting to remove their peripheral intravenous (IV) catheter. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial nursing action to protect the IV site?

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Answer: Cover the intravenous site with a protective stockinette or long-sleeved gown.

Answer

Covering the intravenous site with a protective stockinette or long-sleeved gown is the most appropriate initial action.
The least restrictive intervention must always be attempted first before considering physical or chemical restraints. Covering the IV site with a stockinette conceals the catheter from the confused client's view, which often prevents them from picking at it while maintaining their freedom of movement.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the primary safety issue.
The confused client is at risk of dislodging their IV catheter, which could cause harm or delay treatment.
Accurate identification of the risk is required to select the proper intervention.
2
Apply the principle of least restrictive interventions.
The nurse must select a strategy that protects the medical device without unnecessarily restricting the client's freedom or using medication.
Nursing standards and regulations mandate that physical or chemical restraints be used only as a last resort.
3
Evaluate the available options against this principle.
Concealing the IV site is a non-restrictive alternative that often prevents confused clients from picking at medical devices.
Removing the visual stimulus is a safe and effective initial measure.

Key Concept

Restraint alternatives and the principle of least restrictive interventions.
Question 2185Question →

An RN is distributing clinical tasks for a group of complex clients on a general medical unit. The team matrix consists of the RN, a licensed practical nurse (LPN/VN), and an unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP). To maintain client safety and adhere to the authorized scope of practice, which assignment is most appropriate for the RN to make?

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Answer: Assigning the LPN/VN to perform sterile tracheostomy care and suctioning for a client with a chronic tracheostomy who is awaiting placement in a skilled nursing facility.

Answer

The most appropriate delegation is assigning the LPN/VN to perform sterile tracheostomy care and suctioning for the client with a chronic tracheostomy.
The correct assignment is instructing the LPN/VN to perform sterile tracheostomy care for the client awaiting placement. Under standard delegation guidelines, LPN/VNs are authorized to perform sterile procedures, including tracheostomy care and suctioning, provided the client is stable. The keywords 'chronic' and 'awaiting placement' confirm that this client's physiological condition is stable and their response to the procedure is predictable, making this a safe and legally sound delegation.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the authorized scope of practice for the LPN/VN and UAP based on National Council of State Boards of Nursing (NCSBN) guidelines.
The RN retains responsibility for all assessments, initial teaching, and clinical judgments (EAT). The LPN/VN can perform sterile procedures on stable clients. The UAP assists with standard activities of daily living for stable clients.
Establishing the baseline regulatory rules for delegation is necessary before evaluating specific clinical scenarios.
2
Evaluate the clinical stability and acuity of the client with a chronic tracheostomy.
The client is highly stable, which is indicated by the chronic nature of the tracheostomy and their status of awaiting long-term care placement.
Client stability and the predictability of their response are primary determinants of whether a nursing task can be safely delegated.
3
Determine if the assigned task falls within the LPN/VN scope of practice for this specific client.
Yes. Because the client is stable with predictable outcomes, the LPN/VN can safely perform the sterile procedure of tracheostomy care and suctioning.
This aligns with the LPN/VN scope of practice for executing established care protocols on non-acute clients.

Key Concept

Delegation, Scope of Practice, and Client Stability
Question 2186Question →

During a shift change report, the nurse learns that an assigned client has a wound culture positive for Vancomycin-Resistant Enterococcus (VRE). What specific infection control measures should the nurse implement for this client? Select all that apply.

Select all that apply

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Answer: Put on a protective gown immediately upon entering the client's care space.; Use clean gloves when interacting with the client or touching items in the immediate surroundings.; Assign the client to a single-patient room or cohort with another individual who has the same active VRE diagnosis.

Answer

The nurse should put on a protective gown upon entering the room, use clean gloves for interaction or touching surroundings, and assign the client to a single-patient room or cohort with another VRE-positive client.
Vancomycin-Resistant Enterococcus (VRE) is a multidrug-resistant organism spread by direct or indirect contact. Standard care protocols for contact precautions dictate that healthcare personnel must don a gown and gloves upon entry into the client's room to prevent contaminating their clothing and hands. Furthermore, the client must be placed in a single-patient room or cohorted with a client who has the same active infection to halt transmission to uninfected clients.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the mode of transmission for Vancomycin-Resistant Enterococcus (VRE).
VRE is transmitted through direct physical contact with the infected client or indirect contact with contaminated surfaces.
Determining the transmission route dictates the specific isolation precautions required.
2
Select the appropriate category of transmission-based precautions.
Contact precautions are indicated.
Contact precautions are designed to reduce the risk of transmission of epidemiologically important microorganisms by direct or indirect contact.
3
Determine the required interventions for contact precautions.
Interventions include a single-patient room (or cohorting), and wearing a gown and gloves upon entering the room.
These physical barriers prevent the transfer of the pathogen to the healthcare worker and other clients.

Key Concept

Contact Precautions for Multidrug-Resistant Organisms
Question 2187Question →

A hospitalized client is placed on transmission-based precautions due to suspected active pulmonary tuberculosis and a concurrent, confirmed Clostridioides difficile infection. Which of the following nursing actions are appropriate? Select all that apply.

Select all that apply

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Don an N95 respirator, gown, and clean gloves prior to entering the client's room.; Perform hand hygiene using soap and water immediately after removing personal protective equipment.; Provide the client with a standard surgical mask to wear during transport to the radiology department.

Answer

The nurse should don an N95 respirator, gown, and gloves before entry; perform hand hygiene with soap and water after removing PPE; and have the client wear a standard surgical mask during transport.
Caring for this client requires a synthesis of multiple precaution protocols. Airborne precautions for pulmonary tuberculosis mandate a fit-tested N95 respirator and a negative-pressure room. Contact precautions for Clostridioides difficile require a gown and gloves for all interactions. Crucially, C. diff spores are highly resistant to alcohol; therefore, hand hygiene must be performed strictly with soap and water to physically wash away the spores. Finally, standard infection control policy dictates that clients on Airborne precautions wear a standard surgical mask when transported outside their room to filter their exhaled breath and protect others.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the client's infectious processes to determine the required isolation categories.
Active pulmonary tuberculosis requires Airborne precautions, and Clostridioides difficile requires Contact precautions with special enteric hand hygiene.
Correctly identifying the transmission route is the first step in applying appropriate infection control measures.
2
Determine the necessary personal protective equipment (PPE) and environmental controls for the combined precautions.
An N95 respirator (or PAPR) is required for Airborne precautions, while a gown and gloves are required for Contact precautions. A negative-pressure room is necessary.
Airborne pathogens can travel long distances on air currents, and enteric pathogens are spread through direct and indirect contact.
3
Evaluate the hand hygiene requirements specific to the identified pathogens.
Handwashing with soap and water is mandatory.
Clostridioides difficile is a spore-forming bacterium. Alcohol-based hand rubs lack sporicidal efficacy.
4
Assess appropriate protocols for client transport and nursing delegation.
The client must wear a standard surgical mask outside the room. Initial client education cannot be delegated.
A standard surgical mask catches exhaled respiratory droplets from the client. RNs cannot delegate initial teaching to UAPs.

Key Concept

Applying combined Airborne and Contact Precautions with enteric specific hand hygiene.
Question 2188Question →

A registered nurse (RN) is coordinating care for clients on a pediatric hematology/oncology unit with the assistance of a licensed practical/vocational nurse (LPN/VN) and an unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP). Which of the following task delegations by the RN are appropriate? Select all that apply.

Select all that apply

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Answer: Assigning the LPN/VN to administer a subcutaneous injection of filgrastim to an adolescent with neutropenia; Assigning the UAP to measure and record the urinary output from the indwelling catheter of a child receiving intravenous chemotherapy; Assigning the LPN/VN to reinforce discharge teaching regarding infection prevention with the family of a client with leukemia

Answer

The appropriate delegations are assigning the LPN/VN to administer the subcutaneous injection and to reinforce discharge teaching, and assigning the UAP to measure and record urinary output.
Delegation must adhere strictly to the nurse practice act and the Five Rights of Delegation. The registered nurse (RN) retains ultimate responsibility for the core nursing process, which includes initial assessment, nursing diagnosis, establishing the care plan, initial client teaching, and evaluating outcomes. It is within the licensed practical/vocational nurse (LPN/VN) scope of practice to administer medications via standard routes (such as subcutaneous injections) and to reinforce education that has already been initiated by the RN. It is within the unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) scope of practice to perform routine, non-invasive tasks with predictable outcomes, such as measuring and recording urinary intake and output.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the scope of practice for the LPN/VN in the given scenario.
The LPN/VN is permitted to administer subcutaneous medications and reinforce initial teaching, but cannot perform initial assessments or evaluate care outcomes.
The RN is required to retain responsibility for the core nursing process, including comprehensive assessment and evaluation.
2
Analyze the scope of practice for the UAP in the given scenario.
The UAP can perform standard procedures like measuring urinary output, but cannot monitor for critical physiological changes such as an acute blood transfusion reaction.
UAP tasks must have predictable outcomes and cannot require clinical nursing judgment or interpretation of data.
3
Evaluate each option against safe delegation principles.
Administering filgrastim (LPN/VN), measuring urinary output (UAP), and reinforcing teaching (LPN/VN) are correct and safe delegations.
These specific tasks align with legal scopes of practice and do not involve unauthorized clinical judgment.

Key Concept

Delegation and Scope of Practice
Question 2189Question →

A registered nurse is managing the care of several clients on an orthopedic trauma unit and is working with an unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP). Which task is most appropriate for the nurse to delegate to the UAP?

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Answer: Emptying a surgical closed-wound drainage device and recording the output volume for a stable client who is two days post-operative from a total knee arthroplasty

Answer

The most appropriate delegation is having the UAP empty the surgical closed-wound drainage device and record the output volume for the stable, two-day post-operative client.
Emptying a surgical drain and recording the output is a routine, standard procedure that does not require nursing judgment or complex assessment. Because the client is two days post-operative and clinically stable, the outcomes of this intervention are highly predictable. Therefore, this task is safe and appropriate to delegate to the unlicensed assistive personnel.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the scope of practice for an unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP).
UAPs are permitted to perform routine, standardized care tasks that have predictable outcomes and do not require nursing judgment or complex critical thinking.
Establishing the foundational rules for safe delegation is necessary to evaluate the options.
2
Evaluate each task against the National Council of State Boards of Nursing (NCSBN) delegation guidelines.
Tasks involving clinical assessment (evaluating pulses), patient teaching (instructing on exercises), and managing unstable or high-risk patients (feeding a client with dysphagia) violate the principles of delegation.
Identifying which tasks fall strictly under the registered nurse's scope of practice eliminates inappropriate delegations.
3
Select the task that represents a routine activity for a stable client.
Emptying a surgical drain and recording the output for a client who is two days post-operative and clinically stable is the only task that aligns with the UAP's scope of practice.
Confirming the correct choice based on the safety and stability of the client and the routine nature of the task.

Key Concept

Delegation to unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) must exclude tasks requiring clinical assessment, nursing judgment, or patient education, and should be limited to routine tasks for stable clients.
Question 2190Question →

A nurse is preparing the room for a newly admitted client who has a history of frequent, generalized tonic-clonic seizures. Which safety interventions should the nurse implement? Select all that apply.

Select all that apply

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Ensure functional suction equipment is available at the bedside; Pad the side rails of the client's bed; Keep the client's bed in the lowest locked position

Answer

The nurse should ensure functional suction equipment is available, pad the side rails, and keep the bed in the lowest locked position.
Evidence-based seizure precautions focus on preventing trauma and maintaining a clear airway without restricting the client's movements. Functional suction equipment is critical for clearing saliva or vomitus to prevent aspiration. Padding the side rails creates a soft barrier that protects the client's head and limbs during violent muscle contractions. Furthermore, keeping the bed in the lowest locked position ensures that if the client does fall out of bed, the distance to the floor is minimized, reducing the severity of potential injuries.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the primary risks associated with the client's diagnosis.
The client is at high risk for aspiration, blunt force trauma, and falls during a generalized tonic-clonic seizure.
Understanding the specific hazards of a condition dictates the required safety measures.
2
Select interventions that protect the airway and prevent physical trauma.
Suction equipment maintains airway clearance, while padded rails and a low bed protect against physical impact and fall-related injuries.
These are evidence-based universal seizure precautions.
3
Eliminate interventions that are outdated or represent safety hazards.
Tongue blades and the use of four side rails are excluded.
Inserting objects into the mouth causes injury, and four side rails constitute an unsafe restraint.

Key Concept

Seizure Precautions and Environmental Safety
Estimated Time:1m 0s
Question 2191Question →

An emergency department triage nurse is establishing immediate isolation measures for multiple newly arriving clients. Match each client's clinical presentation with the most appropriate transmission-based precaution protocol.

Click a left item, then click its matching right item

Items

Client reporting a persistent cough, unexplained weight loss, and hemoptysis.
Client with frequent, foul-smelling liquid stools and a recent history of broad-spectrum antibiotic therapy.
Client presenting with sudden onset of high fever, nuchal rigidity, and a purpuric rash.
Client with a large, uncontained abdominal wound that is heavily draining purulent fluid.

Matches

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Answer

Hemoptysis/weight loss matches with Airborne isolation (AIIR/N95). Liquid stools/antibiotic use matches with Contact-Enteric (soap and water). Nuchal rigidity/rash matches with Droplet (surgical mask). Uncontained draining wound matches with Standard Contact (gown and gloves).
Appropriate transmission-based precautions are dictated by the pathogen's mode of transmission. Airborne precautions (AIIR, N95) protect against aerosolized droplet nuclei (e.g., TB). Droplet precautions (surgical mask) protect against larger respiratory droplets (e.g., meningitis). Contact precautions (gown, gloves) prevent transmission via direct or indirect contact with the patient or environment. Enteric precautions are a strict subset of contact precautions requiring soap and water to physically remove alcohol-resistant spores.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the clinical presentation of the client with a persistent cough and hemoptysis.
Identify suspected active pulmonary tuberculosis.
Tuberculosis is transmitted via small droplet nuclei, necessitating Airborne Precautions.
2
Analyze the clinical presentation of the client with severe diarrhea following antibiotic therapy.
Identify suspected Clostridioides difficile infection.
C. difficile forms spores that are resistant to alcohol-based hand rubs, requiring Contact Precautions specifically with soap and water handwashing (enteric precautions).
3
Analyze the clinical presentation of the client with fever, nuchal rigidity, and purpuric rash.
Identify suspected meningococcal meningitis.
Neisseria meningitidis is transmitted via large respiratory droplets, requiring Droplet Precautions (surgical mask).
4
Analyze the clinical presentation of the client with an uncontained, draining purulent wound.
Identify a high risk for contact-based transmission of pathogens (e.g., MRSA).
Copious drainage that cannot be contained by dressings requires standard Contact Precautions (gown and gloves) to prevent environmental contamination.

Key Concept

Selection of appropriate transmission-based precautions based on presenting symptoms and suspected pathogen transmission routes.
Question 2192Question →

A clinical nurse manager is evaluating staff compliance with information security, client confidentiality, and legal mandates on a medical-surgical unit. Which of the following observed actions demonstrate appropriate adherence to these guidelines? Select all that apply.

Select all that apply

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Answer: Sharing a client's protected health information with a consulting physical therapist during a private interdisciplinary care conference.; Verifying a telephone caller's identity using a facility-designated privacy code before providing an update on the client's condition.; Locking the screen of a mobile electronic health record workstation before turning away to assist a client with a bed-to-chair transfer.

Answer

The correct actions include sharing information privately with the interdisciplinary care team, verifying a telephone caller's identity with a privacy code, and locking the electronic health record screen before leaving it unattended.
Appropriate adherence to confidentiality guidelines requires balancing secure data handling with permitted disclosures. Sharing protected health information with a consulting therapist during a private interdisciplinary conference is a legally permitted disclosure for treatment purposes. Furthermore, utilizing a facility-designated privacy code accurately verifies caller authorization before information is released. Finally, locking unattended electronic health record screens is a necessary physical safeguard to prevent unauthorized data access in high-traffic clinical areas.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Evaluate the action regarding the interdisciplinary care conference.
Sharing information with the physical therapist in a private setting is determined to be appropriate.
HIPAA privacy rules permit the sharing of protected health information among healthcare professionals for the purpose of treatment and care coordination.
2
Evaluate the action regarding telephone updates.
Using a privacy code to verify identity before giving an update is determined to be appropriate.
Privacy codes ensure that clinical information is only released to individuals the client has explicitly authorized.
3
Evaluate the action regarding the electronic health record workstation.
Locking the screen before assisting the client is determined to be appropriate.
Securing unattended screens prevents unauthorized viewing of protected health information, fulfilling security rule requirements.
4
Review the remaining actions for legal or scope of practice violations.
Delegating result explanations to unlicensed personnel, posting a diagnosis on a door, and failing to report child abuse are identified as inappropriate.
These actions violate the nursing scope of practice, public privacy standards, and mandatory reporting laws, respectively.

Key Concept

HIPAA Privacy Rules, Information Security, and Mandatory Reporting Exceptions
Question 2193Question →

A nurse in the pediatric intensive care unit is caring for a 7-year-old child who is intubated following a severe traumatic brain injury sustained in a motor vehicle collision. The child is highly restless and repeatedly attempts to grasp the endotracheal tube. At the bedside, one parent tearfully discloses that the other parent was driving intoxicated when the crash occurred, and begs the nurse to keep this information confidential. Which legally appropriate actions should the nurse implement? Select all that apply.

Select all that apply

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Notify the designated state authority or child protective services regarding the disclosure of child endangerment.; Implement alternative safety measures, such as applying padded mittens or utilizing a sitter, prior to considering physical restraints.; Personally perform all ongoing evaluations of the child's neurological status and pupillary responses.

Answer

The nurse must notify authorities about the child endangerment, implement alternative safety measures before using restraints, and personally perform all neurological evaluations.
The legally sound actions require the nurse to fulfill the mandatory duty to report child endangerment, protect the client's right to the least restrictive environment by attempting alternatives to restraints, and adhere strictly to the legal scope of practice by performing all clinical assessments.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the legal duty regarding the parent's disclosure of intoxicated driving.
The nurse identifies this as an incident of child endangerment and neglect, triggering mandatory reporting laws that supersede standard confidentiality requests.
All healthcare professionals are legally required to report suspected abuse or endangerment of a minor to protect the child's safety.
2
Evaluate the legal requirements for managing the restless, intubated child.
The nurse determines that less restrictive safety measures, such as mittens or direct observation, must be attempted and documented first.
Federal laws and facility policies dictate that physical restraints are a measure of last resort, protecting the client's right to freedom from unnecessary restriction.
3
Determine the legal boundaries for delegating care in this acute scenario.
The nurse retains the responsibility for conducting neurological and orientation assessments.
The nurse practice act prohibits the delegation of clinical assessments and evaluations to unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP).

Key Concept

Legal Rights, Mandatory Reporting, and Scope of Practice
Question 2194Question →

A nurse on an adult medical-surgical unit is reviewing the electronic health records and morning assessment data for a group of assigned clients. Which of the following client findings require immediate follow-up by the nurse? Select all that apply.

Select all that apply

Show answer & explanation

Answer: A client receiving a continuous heparin infusion for a deep vein thrombosis who develops a sudden onset of a severe headache and sluggish pupillary response.; A client with a tracheostomy who has a sudden decrease in oxygen saturation from 96% to 88% and absent breath sounds on the right side of the chest.; A client who underwent a total thyroidectomy 12 hours ago and is reporting a tingling sensation around the mouth and in the fingertips.

Answer

The findings requiring immediate follow-up are the sudden severe headache with sluggish pupils in a client on heparin, the sudden hypoxemia with absent breath sounds in a client with a tracheostomy, and the perioral tingling in a post-thyroidectomy client.
The correct selections represent acute, life-threatening emergencies that require immediate intervention. A sudden, severe headache with sluggish pupils in a client receiving an anticoagulant strongly suggests an intracranial hemorrhage, which is a life-threatening neurological emergency. A sudden drop in oxygen saturation combined with absent unilateral breath sounds in a client with a tracheostomy indicates a severe airway and breathing compromise, such as a pneumothorax or tube displacement. Tingling around the mouth and in the fingertips (paresthesia) in a client recovering from a thyroidectomy is a classic early sign of hypocalcemia (due to inadvertent parathyroid removal or injury), which can rapidly escalate to life-threatening tetany and laryngospasm (airway obstruction).

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Evaluate each client's presentation against the Airway-Breathing-Circulation (ABC) framework and the potential for acute, life-threatening deterioration.
Identify which clients are experiencing unexpected, severe physiological instability versus expected or chronic manifestations.
Prioritization requires identifying the most critical clients who will suffer severe harm or death if interventions are delayed.
2
Analyze the client on a heparin infusion with a sudden headache and sluggish pupils.
This indicates an acute neurological change and potential intracranial bleed, representing a severe circulatory/neurological emergency.
Anticoagulants carry a high risk of bleeding, and acute intracranial changes must be addressed immediately to prevent permanent brain injury or death.
3
Analyze the client with a tracheostomy experiencing sudden oxygen desaturation and unilateral absent breath sounds.
This represents a critical airway and breathing emergency (e.g., pneumothorax, severe mucus plug, or tube displacement).
Airway compromise is the highest priority in emergency triage and requires immediate assessment and intervention to restore oxygenation.
4
Analyze the post-thyroidectomy client reporting perioral and extremity tingling.
These are signs of acute hypocalcemia (tetany), which can rapidly lead to fatal laryngospasm.
Electrolyte imbalances that threaten airway patency are high-priority, life-threatening emergencies.
5
Evaluate the remaining clients (pancreatitis and Addison's disease).
The pancreatitis client has expected disease manifestations (pain, elevated glucose). The Addison's disease client has stable, normal assessment findings.
Clients with stable, expected findings or chronic, controlled conditions are lower priority than those with acute physiological instability.

Key Concept

Prioritization of Care using the ABCs and Acute vs. Chronic Framework
Question 2195Question →

A nurse is reviewing the medication administration record for a client receiving continuous enteral nutrition via a nasogastric tube. The morning prescriptions include liquid acetaminophen, an immediate-release carvedilol tablet, and an extended-release nifedipine tablet. The provider's prescription states to crush all solid medications and administer them via the tube. Which action is the highest priority for the nurse to prevent a critical adverse event?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Withhold the extended-release nifedipine and contact the healthcare provider to request a non-sustained-release alternative.

Answer

The nurse must withhold the extended-release nifedipine and contact the provider for an alternative prescription.
Extended-release (ER, XL, SR, CR) medications are specifically formulated to release their active ingredients slowly over an extended period. Crushing an extended-release antihypertensive like nifedipine destroys this controlled-release mechanism, causing a rapid 'dose dump.' This floods the systemic circulation with the medication, leading to profound, life-threatening hypotension and potential cardiovascular collapse. The nurse's highest priority is to recognize this prescribed medical error, withhold the medication, and collaborate with the provider for a safe alternative.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the prescribed medications and the route of administration.
The prescription calls for crushing an extended-release (ER/XL) medication for nasogastric tube administration.
Identifying contraindications in medication preparation is the first line of defense in error prevention.
2
Evaluate the physiological consequences of the prescribed action.
Crushing extended-release nifedipine will cause immediate release of a dose meant for 24 hours, leading to severe cardiovascular collapse.
Understanding the pharmacodynamics of dose dumping is required to recognize the severity of the error.
3
Prioritize nursing interventions among the available options.
Preventing a fatal medication error is a higher priority than adjusting bed angles, pausing tube feeds, or delegating tasks.
According to Maslow's hierarchy and basic safety principles, avoiding an immediate, life-threatening iatrogenic injury takes ultimate precedence.

Key Concept

Prevention of Medication Administration Errors: Contraindications for Crushing Medications
Estimated Time:1m 30s
Question 2196Question →

A pediatric triage nurse in an outpatient clinic is evaluating phone messages left by caregivers. Which client condition requires the most immediate callback and intervention?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: A 44-year-old child with a history of asthma whose caregiver states the child is only speaking in single words and prefers to sit upright

Answer

The 44-year-old child with a history of asthma who is only speaking in single words and prefers to sit upright requires the most immediate intervention.
The correct answer identifies a client experiencing an acute airway and breathing crisis. Speaking in single words and adopting an upright (tripod) position are classic signs of severe respiratory distress and impending respiratory failure. Using the ABC prioritization framework, this life-threatening condition must be addressed before any other client needs.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Evaluate each client's presentation to identify the affected physiological or psychosocial system.
The 44-year-old has an airway/breathing impairment; the 66-month-old has a circulatory deficit (dehydration); the 22-year-old has pain and infection; the 99-month-old is exhibiting a psychosocial developmental behavior.
Identifying the primary system involved is the first step in applying triage and prioritization frameworks.
2
Apply the Airway, Breathing, Circulation (ABC) framework and Maslow's Hierarchy of Needs to rank the clients.
The airway and breathing emergency (asthma exacerbation) takes precedence over circulation (dehydration), basic physiological comfort (ear pain), and psychosocial needs (separation anxiety).
Without a patent airway and adequate ventilation, all other physiological systems will rapidly fail, making it the highest acuity concern.

Key Concept

Prioritizing Client Care Using the ABC Framework
Question 2197Question →

During a busy morning shift on a medical-surgical unit, a staff nurse is collaborating with an unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) to provide client care. Which of the following clinical tasks are appropriate to delegate to the UAP? Select all that apply.

Select all that apply

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Measuring and documenting the hourly urine volume from an indwelling Foley catheter for a client with chronic kidney disease.; Providing oral hygiene and repositioning a client who is comatose following a stroke.; Helping a stable client transfer from the bed to a bedside chair using a mechanical lift.

Answer

The correct tasks to delegate include measuring and documenting urine volume, providing oral hygiene and repositioning for the comatose client, and transferring the stable client using a mechanical lift.
The correct activities fall within the standard scope of practice for a UAP. They are routine, have predictable outcomes, and do not require nursing judgment. These include measuring fluid output, assisting with routine activities of daily living (ADLs) such as oral hygiene and repositioning, and assisting stable clients with transfers.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the role and scope of practice of the Unlicensed Assistive Personnel (UAP).
Determine that UAPs can perform standard, unchanging, and routine procedures (e.g., vital signs on stable clients, ADLs, I&O, ambulation).
Delegation must follow the Five Rights, ensuring the task matches the delegatee's competence.
2
Evaluate each option against the 'EAT' acronym (Evaluate, Assess, Teach), which are tasks reserved exclusively for the RN.
Identify that determining the cause of pain is an assessment/clinical judgment, and demonstrating insulin injection is teaching.
These tasks violate the rules of safe delegation if assigned to a UAP.
3
Assess the stability of the clients described in the remaining options.
Identify that the client with active chest pain and diaphoresis is acutely unstable.
Tasks for unstable clients or those experiencing acute changes in condition should not be delegated to UAPs, as the RN is required for immediate and continuous assessment.

Key Concept

Delegation to Unlicensed Assistive Personnel (UAP)
Estimated Time:1m 30s
Question 2198Question →

An older adult client with moderate dementia is admitted to the medical-surgical unit. During the night, the client repeatedly wanders out of the room, creating a significant risk for falls. Which initial action should the nurse take to promote client safety?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Activate a bed alarm system to alert the nursing staff when the client attempts to exit the bed.

Answer

The correct answer is to activate a bed alarm system to alert the nursing staff when the client attempts to exit the bed.
Activating a bed alarm is the most appropriate initial intervention because it is a safe, non-invasive, and least restrictive alternative to physical restraints. It immediately alerts healthcare staff when the client attempts to move, allowing for rapid intervention to prevent falls while maintaining the client's freedom of movement and dignity.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the primary safety risk presented in the clinical scenario.
The client has dementia and is wandering at night, placing them at a high risk for falls and injury.
Recognizing the specific hazard dictates which safety protocols must be initiated.
2
Evaluate the interventions based on the principle of least restrictive restraints.
A bed alarm provides immediate notification to staff without physically restricting the client's movement.
Nursing standards mandate that the least restrictive measures must be exhausted before considering physical or chemical restraints.

Key Concept

Restraint Alternatives and Fall Prevention
Question 2199Question →

During a shift on a surgical unit, a nurse receives a radiology report indicating that a small, sterile surgical sponge was inadvertently left inside a client's abdominal cavity during a procedure performed the previous day. The client is alert, oriented, and recovering well. The attending surgeon approaches the nurse and states, 'I will schedule the client for a brief wound washout today to retrieve the sponge. Please do not mention the retained sponge to the client; knowing about this error will only cause unnecessary panic, and I can resolve it safely.' Which of the following responses or actions by the nurse most appropriately upholds the ethical principles of veracity and client advocacy?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Express to the surgeon that the client must be fully informed about the specific complication before providing consent for the secondary procedure.

Answer

Express to the surgeon that the client must be fully informed about the specific complication before providing consent for the secondary procedure.
The correct answer demonstrates the nurse's role as a client advocate. Veracity is the ethical principle of telling the truth. Autonomy refers to the client's right to self-determination. For a client to exercise autonomy through informed consent, they must be truthfully informed about their condition, the proposed procedure, and the reasons for it. The surgeon's request to hide the retained sponge represents paternalism and violates the client's rights. The nurse must firmly advocate for the client's right to full disclosure before allowing the secondary procedure to proceed.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the ethical dilemma presented in the scenario.
The conflict is between the surgeon's directive to withhold truth (paternalism) and the client's right to know the truth (veracity) and make informed decisions (autonomy).
Recognizing the competing ethical principles is the first step in ethical decision-making.
2
Determine the nurse's primary ethical and legal obligation.
The nurse's primary duty is to act as a client advocate, ensuring the client receives truthful information necessary for valid informed consent.
The ANA Code of Ethics mandates that nurses protect the health, safety, and rights of the client.
3
Select the intervention that directly addresses the ethical obligation without compromising the client's rights.
The nurse must confront the surgeon's plan to deceive the client and advocate for full disclosure prior to the procedure.
Active advocacy is required when a client's right to autonomy and informed consent is threatened by another healthcare team member.

Key Concept

Ethical Principles: Veracity, Autonomy, and Informed Consent
Estimated Time:1m 30s
Question 2200Question →

A registered nurse is formulating an SBAR (Situation, Background, Assessment, Recommendation) communication for an interdisciplinary care conference regarding a 29-year-old client recovering from severe Guillain-Barré syndrome in an acute rehabilitation unit.

Situation: The client is weaning from nocturnal mechanical ventilation via tracheostomy, receives enteral nutrition via a percutaneous endoscopic gastrostomy (PEG) tube, and exhibits dense bilateral upper extremity weakness with wrist drop.
Background: The client was diagnosed 4 weeks ago and was previously independent. The client has a 2-year-old child at home.
Assessment: The client tolerates a daytime tracheostomy collar but is unable to grasp objects. The client is tearful and expresses overwhelming anxiety regarding future parenting capabilities.
Recommendation: Initiate specific interprofessional collaborations to optimize discharge readiness.

Which of the following recommendations are appropriate for the nurse to include in the interdisciplinary care plan? Select all that apply.

Select all that apply

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Speech-language pathologist (SLP): Evaluate the client's vocal cord function for a speaking valve and assess swallowing safety for potential oral intake.; Occupational therapist (OT): Design custom bilateral wrist splints and introduce adaptive equipment to promote independence with feeding.; Medical social worker (MSW): Facilitate applications for temporary disability benefits and coordinate community-based childcare assistance.

Answer

The appropriate interdisciplinary recommendations are consulting a speech-language pathologist for swallowing and speaking valve assessment, an occupational therapist for fine motor splints and feeding adaptations, and a medical social worker for disability and childcare coordination.
The correct selections accurately match the client's complex deficits with the specialized scopes of practice of allied health professionals. The SLP manages the tracheostomy speaking valve and swallowing safety; the OT manages fine motor deficits (wrist drop) and ADL independence; and the MSW addresses the profound psychosocial and environmental barriers to discharge.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the SBAR data to identify the client's specific clinical deficits and psychosocial barriers.
The client presents with dysphagia/communication barriers (tracheostomy, PEG), fine-motor deficits (wrist drop, unable to grasp), and psychosocial barriers (childcare anxiety, financial concerns).
Identifying specific, distinct deficits dictates which specialized interdisciplinary team member is required for safe discharge.
2
Map the identified clinical deficits to the correct allied health discipline's scope of practice.
Dysphagia and speaking valve assessments map to the SLP. Fine motor deficits and feeding ADLs map to the OT. Psychosocial and financial distress maps to the MSW.
Appropriate referrals ensure targeted, specialized care and optimize the client's rehabilitation and discharge readiness.
3
Evaluate the remaining options for scope of practice violations or improper delegation.
The physical therapist focuses on gross motor (not fine motor ADLs). UAPs cannot perform initial assessments. Dietitians calculate nutrition but do not administer tube feedings.
Preventing improper delegation ensures client safety and adheres to legal and ethical nursing standards.

Key Concept

Interdisciplinary Team Roles and Scope of Practice
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