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Question 2201Question →

A charge nurse on a medical-surgical unit is coordinating care assignments for the upcoming shift. The staffing mix includes the charge nurse, a registered nurse (RN) floated from the inpatient psychiatric unit, an experienced licensed practical/vocational nurse (LPN/VN), and an unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP). Which of the following task assignments are appropriate? Select all that apply.

Select all that apply

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Answer: Assigning the float psychiatric RN to perform a suicide risk assessment and manage continuous observation for a medically stabilized client following an intentional overdose; Delegating the UAP to perform routine oropharyngeal suctioning using a Yankauer catheter for a stable client with a history of a cerebrovascular accident; Delegating the LPN/VN to reinforce previously taught infection control measures to a client with methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) being discharged home

Answer

The appropriate assignments are assigning the float psychiatric RN to the stabilized overdose client, delegating the UAP to perform Yankauer suctioning, and delegating the LPN/VN to reinforce infection control instructions.
Safe delegation requires matching the complexity of the task and the stability of the client with the competency and legal scope of the staff member. A psychiatric float RN is the clinical expert for a stabilized overdose client requiring suicide risk observation. An LPN/VN is fully qualified to reinforce previously provided RN education. A UAP can safely perform non-sterile, routine oral suctioning with a Yankauer catheter.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the staff mix provided in the scenario.
The team consists of an RN floated from a psychiatric unit, an experienced LPN/VN, and a UAP.
Understanding the unique qualifications and legal scope of practice for each team member is the foundation of safe delegation.
2
Evaluate the appropriate scope for a float RN.
The float RN should be assigned clients who are physiologically stable with predictable outcomes, or clients whose conditions match their specialized expertise (e.g., psychiatric/behavioral needs).
Float nurses should not be assigned complex, physiologically unstable clients outside their typical specialty.
3
Differentiate between RN-only tasks and permissible LPN/VN tasks.
Initial assessments, IV push medications for acute conditions, and initial teaching must remain with the RN. Reinforcing teaching and administering routine care can go to the LPN/VN.
This aligns with national scope of practice guidelines protecting clients from care provided beyond a license's limits.
4
Determine the safety of UAP assignments based on task complexity and client stability.
Oropharyngeal suctioning is a clean, routine procedure suitable for a UAP. First-time feedings for clients with severe dysphagia carry high aspiration risk and require RN assessment.
UAPs cannot perform tasks requiring clinical judgment or nursing assessment.

Key Concept

Delegation Principles, Scope of Practice, and Float Nurse Assignments
Question 2202Question →

A registered nurse in a respiratory step-down unit is caring for a client scheduled for a bronchoscopy with biopsy. The healthcare provider has already obtained the client's signature on the informed consent document. As the nurse brings the prescribed preoperative midazolam to the bedside, the client states, 'I have decided I do not want anyone putting a tube into my lungs. Cancel the test.' Arrange the following nursing actions in the correct priority order from first to last.

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Answer

The correct order is to first withhold the sedative, then explore the client's concerns, followed by contacting the provider, and finally documenting the event in the medical record.
When a client revokes consent, the nurse's immediate priority is to stop any procedural interventions, such as administering preoperative sedation. Continuing to sedate the client would constitute battery. After halting the intervention, the nurse assesses the client's reasoning to provide holistic care and advocacy. Next, the nurse must communicate the client's decision to the provider, as the provider is responsible for discussing the medical consequences of the refusal. Finally, the nurse documents the entire event to maintain a legal record of the client's revocation and the appropriate nursing actions taken.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Withhold the preoperative sedative.
The medication is not administered.
A competent client has the legal right to revoke consent at any time. Administering a mind-altering medication after refusal violates autonomy.
2
Explore the client's reasons for refusal.
The nurse understands the client's rationale.
Assessment is the next step in the nursing process. Therapeutic communication helps determine the root cause of the refusal and identifies any unmet informational needs.
3
Notify the healthcare provider.
The pulmonologist is informed of the canceled procedure.
The provider must be informed so they can cancel the procedural team and discuss the medical consequences of refusing the biopsy directly with the client.
4
Document the interaction.
The medical record accurately reflects the client's revocation and the nurse's actions.
Timely documentation provides a legal record demonstrating that the nurse respected the client's rights, advocated appropriately, and communicated with the interdisciplinary team.

Key Concept

Client's Right to Revoke Informed Consent
Estimated Time:1m 30s
Question 2203Question →

A nurse is initiating an urgent telephone consultation with the on-call hospitalist regarding a client who suddenly developed respiratory distress two days after a right total knee arthroplasty. Arrange the nurse's statements in the correct chronological sequence according to the ISBAR (Identify, Situation, Background, Assessment, Recommendation) interdisciplinary communication framework. All options must be used.

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Answer

The correct sequence follows the ISBAR framework: Identify, Situation, Background, Assessment, and Recommendation.
The ISBAR (Identify, Situation, Background, Assessment, Recommendation) framework is a standardized interdisciplinary communication tool designed to prevent medical errors during handoffs and provider escalations. It requires a logical progression from introducing the participants, stating the acute problem, providing historical context, sharing current clinical findings, and concluding with actionable requests.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Place the 'Identify' statement first.
The nurse identifies themselves, the unit, and the client.
Establishes who is calling and who the call is about, which is essential for patient safety and interprofessional record-keeping.
2
Place the 'Situation' statement second.
The nurse describes the sudden chest pain and dyspnea.
Immediately alerts the provider to the primary acute problem requiring interdisciplinary attention.
3
Place the 'Background' statement third.
The nurse shares the surgical status and history of DVT.
Provides contextual information that helps the provider properly interpret the acute situation.
4
Place the 'Assessment' statement fourth.
The nurse reports the vital signs and clinical suspicion of a pulmonary embolism.
Shares objective clinical data and the nurse's professional judgment based on the situation and background.
5
Place the 'Recommendation' statement fifth.
The nurse requests immediate evaluation and specific diagnostic orders.
Directs the collaborative action plan to resolve the client's critical issue.

Key Concept

ISBAR Interprofessional Communication
Estimated Time:1m 30s
Question 2204Question →

A nurse is utilizing the SBAR (Situation, Background, Assessment, Recommendation) framework during an interdepartmental handoff report for a 65-year-old client transferring to acute rehabilitation following a radical neck dissection. The client has a tracheostomy, receives continuous enteral feedings, and exhibits spinal accessory nerve damage causing profound ipsilateral shoulder weakness. During the 'Assessment' phase, the nurse highlights the client's severe frustration over the inability to manipulate the feeding pump controls or perform independent oral care. Additionally, the spouse tearfully states, 'I cannot manage all this medical equipment at home.' Which collaborative action should the nurse prioritize in the 'Recommendation' phase of the SBAR?

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Answer: Initiate an Occupational Therapy (OT) consult to provide adaptive strategies for upper extremity deficits impacting activities of daily living, and involve a Medical Social Worker (MSW) to evaluate caregiver resources.

Answer

Initiate an Occupational Therapy (OT) consult to provide adaptive strategies for upper extremity deficits impacting activities of daily living, and involve a Medical Social Worker (MSW) to evaluate caregiver resources.
The correct action directly addresses the two primary issues identified in the assessment: the client's inability to perform fine motor ADLs and the spouse's role strain. Occupational Therapy is the exact discipline responsible for modifying activities of daily living and providing adaptive equipment for upper extremity deficits. The Medical Social Worker is the appropriate professional to assess caregiver support needs and coordinate resources.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the SBAR 'Assessment' data provided in the scenario.
The client has fine motor deficits affecting ADLs (pump controls, oral care) causing frustration, and the spouse is experiencing caregiver role strain.
Identifying the core clinical and psychosocial issues is necessary to determine the appropriate interdisciplinary referrals.
2
Differentiate the scope of practice for the allied health team members based on the identified needs.
Occupational Therapy (OT) addresses fine motor skills and ADLs. A Medical Social Worker (MSW) addresses coping, community resources, and caregiver support.
Accurate scope identification prevents inappropriate referrals (e.g., PT for fine motor tasks or SLP for caloric requirements).
3
Evaluate the distractors for safety, prioritization, and therapeutic communication violations.
Delegating initial teaching to a UAP is unsafe. Promising the spouse they will 'easily adapt' is nontherapeutic. Prioritizing ambulation ignores the immediate stated concerns.
Eliminating options with critical safety or communication errors isolates the safest and most effective collaborative action.

Key Concept

Interdisciplinary collaboration requires accurate identification of allied health scopes of practice, strict adherence to delegation principles, and therapeutic communication to address both client functional deficits and caregiver role strain.
Question 2205Question →

The nurse is assessing a client with a history of chronic heart failure who has just arrived at the emergency department reporting severe shortness of breath. Which of the following clinical cues require immediate intervention by the nurse? Select all that apply.

Select all that apply

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Answer: Expectoration of pink, frothy sputum; New-onset restlessness and confusion; Respiratory rate of 34 breaths/min with accessory muscle use

Answer

The clinical cues requiring immediate intervention are the expectoration of pink, frothy sputum; new-onset restlessness and confusion; and a respiratory rate of 34 breaths/min with accessory muscle use.
The correct selections represent acute, life-threatening manifestations of severe heart failure exacerbation, specifically acute pulmonary edema and severe hypoxia. Expectoration of pink, frothy sputum indicates fluid in the alveoli (impaired gas exchange). A respiratory rate of 34 with accessory muscle use indicates impending respiratory failure (breathing compromise). New-onset restlessness and confusion are early signs of cerebral hypoxia (circulation/perfusion compromise). According to the ABCs (Airway, Breathing, Circulation) framework, these acute findings take absolute priority.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the client's baseline diagnosis and current presentation.
The client has a history of chronic heart failure but is presenting with acute severe shortness of breath.
Establishing the baseline helps differentiate between chronic expected findings and acute unexpected deteriorations.
2
Evaluate each finding using the Airway-Breathing-Circulation (ABC) framework and the acute vs. chronic prioritization principle.
Pink, frothy sputum, tachypnea with accessory muscle use, and new-onset confusion indicate acute, severe ABC compromise (pulmonary edema and hypoxia). Orthopnea and pitting edema are chronic, stable findings.
Prioritization requires identifying acute life threats that immediately compromise physiological integrity.
3
Select the cues that represent acute deterioration requiring immediate life-saving action.
The findings indicating pulmonary edema, severe respiratory distress, and cerebral hypoxia are selected.
These findings take highest priority as they will rapidly lead to death if not immediately treated.

Key Concept

Prioritization: Acute vs. Chronic and ABCs
Question 2206Question →

A client with rapidly progressing lower extremity weakness is scheduled for an emergent magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) scan of the spine. During the pre-procedure safety screening, the nurse obtains the following information. Which finding represents the highest priority for the nurse to communicate immediately to the healthcare provider and the radiology team?

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Answer: The client had a cerebral aneurysm surgically repaired with a metal clip twenty years ago.

Answer

The presence of a cerebral aneurysm clip placed twenty years ago represents the highest priority and an absolute safety contraindication.
Older cerebral aneurysm clips are typically made of ferromagnetic materials. The powerful magnetic field generated by an MRI can cause these clips to torque, move, or dislodge, resulting in catastrophic and potentially fatal intracranial hemorrhage. This represents an absolute contraindication to the procedure until the exact make and model of the clip can be verified as MRI-safe.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the proposed imaging modality.
The client is scheduled for a magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) scan.
MRI utilizes a powerful magnetic field that strongly interacts with ferromagnetic materials.
2
Evaluate the safety risk of an iodinated contrast allergy.
An iodine allergy is relevant for CT scans, but MRI uses gadolinium. This is not a primary safety concern for this procedure.
Differentiating contrast media types prevents unnecessary delays in care.
3
Evaluate the safety risk of titanium implants.
Titanium is non-ferromagnetic and is considered safe in MRI environments.
Knowledge of safe versus unsafe metals is critical for MRI screening.
4
Evaluate the safety risk of a transdermal patch.
Patches with metal backing can cause burns but can simply be removed prior to the scan.
This is an easily mitigated risk that does not require halting the procedure.
5
Evaluate the safety risk of an older cerebral aneurysm clip.
Clips placed decades ago are highly likely to be ferromagnetic. The magnet can dislodge the clip, causing fatal hemorrhage.
Ferromagnetic materials in the brain represent an absolute contraindication and the highest priority risk.

Key Concept

MRI Safety and Ferromagnetic Contraindications
Question 2207Question →

A charge nurse on an acute gastroenterology unit is reviewing shift allocations for a team consisting of a registered nurse (RN), a licensed practical/vocational nurse (LPN/VN), and an unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP). Which specific delegation decision by the RN demonstrates safe and legally sound practice?

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Answer: Instructing the UAP to empty a mature ileostomy appliance and document the effluent volume for a medically stable client.

Answer

Instructing the UAP to empty a mature ileostomy appliance and document the effluent volume for a medically stable client.
Emptying a mature ileostomy pouch and recording the volume is a routine, standardized procedure with predictable outcomes. Because the client is medically stable and the stoma is mature, this task does not require clinical judgment or advanced assessment skills, making it safe and appropriate to delegate to a UAP.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the acuity and clinical stability of each client presented in the options.
Three clients have changing, complex, or potentially unstable conditions; one client is medically stable.
Safe delegation requires verifying that the client's condition is stable and predictable.
2
Evaluate the legal scope of practice for the assigned personnel for each task.
Creating teaching plans and performing complex assessments fall outside LPN/VN and UAP scopes; routine ostomy care is permissible for a UAP.
The RN must adhere to the legal scope of practice constraints and the Five Rights of Delegation.
3
Select the task that matches a stable client with an appropriate personnel skill level.
The UAP emptying the mature ileostomy appliance is the only legally and clinically sound assignment.
This task involves a routine, standard procedure requiring no independent nursing judgment.

Key Concept

Scope of Practice and the Five Rights of Delegation
Question 2208Question →

A registered nurse is implementing safety measures for a group of clients on a medical-surgical unit. Which nursing action best promotes client safety and injury prevention?

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Answer: Implementing a bed alarm and keeping the bed in the lowest position for a confused client who frequently attempts to wander.

Answer

Implementing a bed alarm and keeping the bed in the lowest position for a confused client who frequently attempts to wander.
The correct answer demonstrates the appropriate use of fall prevention strategies. For a confused client at risk of wandering, utilizing a bed alarm and keeping the bed in the lowest position are evidence-based, least-restrictive interventions. These measures alert staff to potential falls without violating the client's autonomy or resorting to physical restraints.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze each option to identify which action represents a safe, evidence-based nursing intervention.
Three options describe unsafe practices or errors in judgment, while one describes a correct safety measure.
The question asks for the action that best promotes safety and injury prevention.
2
Evaluate the use of the bed alarm for a wandering client.
This is recognized as a safe, least-restrictive alternative to physical restraints that effectively mitigates fall risk.
Maintaining the bed in the lowest position and using alarms align with standard fall prevention guidelines.
3
Identify the safety violations in the remaining choices.
Elevating the head of the bed post-lumbar puncture risks a spinal headache; using restraints without trying alternatives violates restraint protocols; and delegating an initial assessment violates the nursing scope of practice.
Understanding contraindicated positioning, strict restraint guidelines, and the RN scope of practice is essential for comprehensive error prevention.

Key Concept

Identifying and implementing least restrictive safety measures while avoiding common procedural and delegation errors.
Estimated Time:1m 15s
Question 2209Question →

A client who sustained an ischemic stroke 48 hours ago is clinically stable but experiences right-sided hemiparesis. The registered nurse (RN) is coordinating care with an unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP). Which task is most appropriate for the RN to delegate to the UAP?

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Answer: Assisting the client with personal hygiene and applying barrier cream to intact perineal skin

Answer

Assisting the client with personal hygiene and applying barrier cream to intact perineal skin.
The registered nurse can safely delegate standard, unchanging, and routine procedures to the UAP for a clinically stable client. Assisting with personal hygiene and applying barrier cream to intact skin are standard activities of daily living (ADLs) that do not require independent nursing judgment, making this an appropriate delegation.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the client's stability and current needs.
The client is stable 48 hours post-stroke but has right-sided hemiparesis, requiring assistance with basic activities of daily living.
Delegation requires assessing the client's overall condition to ensure assigned tasks are safe and predictable.
2
Analyze each proposed task against the UAP scope of practice.
Hygiene and basic skin protection are routine tasks, while evaluation, teaching, and care plan modification require RN licensure.
The RN cannot delegate nursing judgment, assessment, teaching, or evaluation.

Key Concept

Delegation to Unlicensed Assistive Personnel (UAP)
Question 2210Question →

A home health nurse is reviewing overnight messages and scheduling the daily visitation itinerary. Based on the reported data, which client's situation warrants the first home visit of the day?

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Answer: A client with heart failure who reports a 3-lb (1.36 kg) weight gain over the past 24 hours and new-onset orthopnea requiring sleeping in a recliner.

Answer

The client with heart failure reporting a rapid weight gain and new-onset orthopnea requires the first visit.
The correct answer identifies the client experiencing acute physiological deterioration. A 3-lb weight gain in 24 hours coupled with new-onset orthopnea (difficulty breathing when lying flat) strongly suggests worsening heart failure and fluid backing up into the lungs (pulmonary edema). This is a 'Breathing' priority that requires immediate assessment and intervention to prevent respiratory failure.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze each client's presentation using the Airway, Breathing, Circulation (ABC) framework and Maslow's Hierarchy of Needs.
The client with heart failure has a 'Breathing' issue (orthopnea); the COPD client has a potential infection; the diabetic client has a stable, non-critical lab abnormality; the colostomy client has a psychosocial need.
Establishing priorities requires categorizing needs based on immediate physiological threats to life.
2
Compare the severity and acuity of the identified issues.
New-onset orthopnea with rapid weight gain indicates acute pulmonary edema, an unstable and potentially life-threatening breathing compromise. The other clients represent semi-urgent or stable chronic needs.
Acute, unstable conditions always take precedence over chronic, expected, or psychosocial needs.

Key Concept

Prioritization frameworks: ABCs (Airway, Breathing, Circulation) and Acute vs. Chronic
Question 2211Question →

An 82-year-old client is being prepared for an elective cataract extraction. The ophthalmologist has discussed the procedure and left the unit. When the registered nurse hands the client the consent form to sign, the client states, "I cannot remember if they are fixing my right or left eye today. But I guess memory problems are just part of getting old. I will go ahead and sign it." Which action should the nurse take first?

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Answer: Document the client's statement, withhold the consent form, and contact the ophthalmologist.

Answer

Document the client's statement, withhold the consent form, and contact the ophthalmologist.
For informed consent to be legally valid, the client must demonstrate a clear understanding of the specific procedure, including the correct surgical site. The registered nurse's role is to witness the signature voluntarily given by a competent and informed client. If the client exhibits confusion or a lack of understanding, the nurse must act as a client advocate by withholding the consent form and notifying the healthcare provider, who holds the legal responsibility to clarify the medical details.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Assess the client's level of understanding regarding the planned surgical procedure prior to witnessing the signature.
The client demonstrates confusion about the specific operative site (right versus left eye).
The nurse's primary role during the informed consent process is to verify that the client fully comprehends the procedure and is signing voluntarily.
2
Identify the ethical and legal implications of the client's statement.
The client is currently unable to provide legally valid informed consent due to a fundamental lack of understanding regarding the exact nature of the surgery.
Informed consent requires the client to be competent, willing, and fully informed about the specific procedure, including the correct anatomical site.
3
Determine the appropriate nursing intervention to protect the client.
The nurse halts the consent process and notifies the healthcare provider.
It is the healthcare provider's legal responsibility to explain the procedure and answer clinical questions. The nurse acts as an advocate by ensuring the provider returns to clarify the details before any signatures are collected.

Key Concept

The registered nurse acts as an advocate during the informed consent process by verifying client comprehension and notifying the healthcare provider if the client expresses confusion or misunderstanding.
Question 2212Question →

A 35-year-old client presents to an urgent care clinic reporting sudden chills, severe myalgia, and a dry cough. A point-of-care rapid diagnostic test confirms an influenza type A infection. Which of the following infection control interventions should the nurse implement? (Select all that apply.)

Select all that apply

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Answer: Instruct the client to wear a regular procedural mask when exiting the exam room for diagnostic imaging.; Put on a simple face mask prior to interacting within 3 feet of the client.; Cleanse hands thoroughly with an alcohol-based sanitizer or soap and water after client contact.

Answer

The nurse should instruct the client to wear a mask during transport, wear a simple face mask when within 3 feet of the client, and perform hand hygiene after contact.
Influenza requires droplet precautions, which mandate that healthcare workers wear a simple face mask when working in close proximity (within 3 feet) of the client. Additionally, the client must wear a mask for source control when transported outside their room. Hand hygiene is a universally applied standard precaution.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the mode of transmission for the diagnosed infection.
Influenza type A is transmitted primarily via large respiratory droplets.
Knowing the transmission route dictates the specific tier of isolation precautions required.
2
Determine the appropriate PPE for healthcare personnel.
A standard face mask is required when coming within 3 feet of the client.
Droplets do not remain suspended in the air over long distances, making a simple mask adequate protection.
3
Identify necessary source control measures for the client.
The client must wear a regular procedural mask when outside the isolation room.
Masking the client traps droplets at the source, protecting others during transport.
4
Apply standard precautions to the scenario.
Routine hand hygiene must be performed after providing care.
Hand hygiene is universally required to break the chain of infection for all clients.

Key Concept

Droplet and Standard Precautions
Question 2213Question →

A nurse is participating in interdisciplinary care rounds for a client who sustained a complex pelvic fracture and bilateral wrist fractures in a motor vehicle collision. The client is immobilized in bed, exhibits acute agitation, and is entirely dependent on staff for meals due to the upper extremity injuries. Which nursing action demonstrates appropriate care management and interprofessional collaboration?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Consulting an occupational therapist to evaluate the client for custom hand splints and adaptive feeding equipment.

Answer

Consulting an occupational therapist to evaluate the client for custom hand splints and adaptive feeding equipment.
Occupational therapists specialize in assisting clients to regain independence in activities of daily living (ADLs) through the rehabilitation of fine motor skills, upper extremity function, and the provision of customized adaptive equipment (like splints and adapted utensils). Given the client's bilateral wrist fractures and inability to self-feed, this is the most accurate and beneficial interdisciplinary referral.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the client's clinical presentation and injuries.
The client has a high-risk orthopedic injury (pelvic fracture) and bilateral upper extremity limitations (wrist fractures) causing a deficit in self-care.
Identifying the physiological risks and functional deficits is the first step in determining appropriate nursing actions and interdisciplinary referrals.
2
Evaluate the proposed allied health referrals based on scope of practice.
Occupational therapy (OT) is correctly identified as the discipline responsible for upper extremity rehabilitation and adapting activities of daily living (ADLs).
Effective interprofessional collaboration requires matching the client's specific functional deficits to the correct allied health specialty.
3
Critically analyze the distractor actions for safety, delegation, and communication principles.
The distractors involve unsafe delegation of assessments, failure to recognize early shock symptoms (prioritization failure), and nontherapeutic communication.
The nurse must ensure that while coordinating care, fundamental safety principles regarding the ABCs (airway, breathing, circulation) and scope of practice are strictly maintained.

Key Concept

Interprofessional collaboration involves accurately utilizing allied health scopes of practice (such as Occupational Therapy for ADLs and fine motor skills) while maintaining strict adherence to safe delegation, therapeutic communication, and physiological prioritization.
Estimated Time:1m 30s
Question 2214Question →

A clinical educator is reviewing infection control protocols with a group of newly hired nurses. Match each specific infection control action to its corresponding precaution category.

Click a left item, then click its matching right item

Items

Wear an N95 respirator and place the patient in a negative-pressure room.
Wear a standard surgical mask when working within 3 feet of the patient.
Don a gown and gloves upon entering the patient's room.
Perform hand hygiene and use personal protective equipment only if contact with blood or body fluids is anticipated.

Matches

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Answer

The specific actions match directly to their defining precaution categories: N95 and negative pressure indicate Airborne Precautions; a surgical mask within 3 feet indicates Droplet Precautions; gown and gloves upon entry indicate Contact Precautions; and baseline hygiene with situational PPE indicates Standard Precautions.
Each matching pair accurately reflects the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) guidelines for infection control. Appropriate PPE and environmental controls are the foundation of preventing pathogen transmission in healthcare settings.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the transmission-based precaution that requires high-level respiratory protection and specialized ventilation.
Airborne precautions require an N95 respirator and a negative-pressure room.
Pathogens like tuberculosis and measles are small enough to remain airborne and require stringent measures.
2
Identify the precaution that targets large respiratory droplets.
Droplet precautions require a surgical mask when in close proximity to the patient.
Large droplets generated by coughing or sneezing travel short distances (typically 3 to 6 feet).
3
Identify the precaution designed to prevent transmission via direct touch.
Contact precautions require donning a gown and gloves upon entering the room.
This provides a physical barrier against organisms like MRSA or VRE present on the patient or in their environment.
4
Identify the universal baseline infection control practice.
Standard precautions apply to all patient care and involve hand hygiene and exposure-based PPE.
These are the primary strategy for the prevention of healthcare-associated transmission of infections among all patients.

Key Concept

Standard and Transmission-Based Precautions core interventions
Question 2215Question →

Following the morning shift change on a high-acuity surgical step-down unit, the nurse is reviewing the clinical data of four newly assigned clients. Which client presentation mandates the most immediate assessment?

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Answer: A client 12 hours post-exploratory laparotomy whose blood pressure has changed from 124/76 mm Hg to 108/84 mm Hg and whose heart rate has increased to 118 beats/min.

Answer

The client 12 hours post-exploratory laparotomy with a changing blood pressure and elevated heart rate requires the most immediate assessment.
The correct answer identifies the client exhibiting early signs of shock. Following surgery, internal hemorrhage or hypovolemia are major risks. A narrowing pulse pressure (the difference between systolic and diastolic pressure shrinking from 48 to 24 mm Hg) combined with tachycardia (118 beats/min) indicates the body is in the compensatory stage of shock. The sympathetic nervous system is vasoconstricting peripheral vessels (raising diastolic pressure) to maintain blood flow to vital organs. This represents an acute, unstable circulatory crisis requiring immediate life-saving intervention.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the vital sign trends for the post-exploratory laparotomy client.
The client's heart rate is elevated (118 beats/min) and the pulse pressure has narrowed significantly from 48 mm Hg (124 - 76) to 24 mm Hg (108 - 84).
Identifying subtle vital sign changes is critical for detecting early physiological deterioration before full hemodynamic collapse occurs.
2
Evaluate the clinical significance of the narrowing pulse pressure and tachycardia.
These are classic manifestations of the compensatory stage of shock, likely hypovolemic or hemorrhagic in nature following an abdominal surgery.
The sympathetic nervous system responds to decreased cardiac output by increasing the heart rate and causing peripheral vasoconstriction, which raises diastolic blood pressure and narrows the pulse pressure.
3
Compare the acuity of the early shock presentation to the other clients using the ABCs and acute vs. chronic principles.
The laparotomy client has an acute circulation threat. The client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease has chronic, compensated ABGs; the cholecystectomy client has expected drainage; and the gastric bypass client has a pain management need.
Acute, unexpected physiological instability (circulation) always takes highest priority over expected chronic findings, routine postoperative recovery, and psychosocial or comfort needs.

Key Concept

Prioritization of Care: Acute Circulatory Compromise and Early Recognition of Shock
Estimated Time:1m 30s
Question 2216Question →

Match each complex clinical scenario described on the left with the core ethical nursing principle it most directly demonstrates on the right.

Click a left item, then click its matching right item

Items

Refusing to administer a prescribed chemotherapy dose after calculating that it significantly exceeds the safe therapeutic limit based on the client's body surface area.
Allocating limited trauma bays and nursing staff based strictly on clinical acuity rather than the chronological order of client arrival in the emergency department.
Informing a client about their terminal diagnosis in response to a direct question, despite the family's explicit request to withhold this information.
Ensuring a colleague delivers a client's requested antiemetic medication within the exact timeframe promised, after being suddenly called to assist with a cardiac arrest.

Matches

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Answer

Refusing the unsafe dose matches with Nonmaleficence; allocating resources by acuity matches with Justice; answering honestly about a diagnosis matches with Veracity; and ensuring a promised task is completed by a colleague matches with Fidelity.
Each scenario illustrates a distinct ethical dilemma requiring a specific core principle. Refusing a dangerous order is the essence of doing no harm (Nonmaleficence). Sorting clients by acuity ensures fair resource distribution (Justice). Telling the truth to a client despite family objections fulfills the obligation of honesty (Veracity). Finally, ensuring a promised intervention occurs, even when redirected to a code blue, maintains faithfulness to the client (Fidelity).

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the chemotherapy scenario.
The nurse identifies a dangerous dose and stops its administration.
This action actively avoids causing injury or suffering to the client, aligning directly with the principle of 'do no harm' (Nonmaleficence).
2
Analyze the emergency department triage scenario.
Resources are distributed based on acuity rather than a first-come, first-served basis.
Triage decisions that allocate limited healthcare resources fairly according to medical need represent the principle of Justice.
3
Analyze the family conflict over the terminal diagnosis.
The nurse chooses to answer the client's direct question truthfully instead of adhering to the family's wish for secrecy.
The obligation to provide truthful information to the client, maintaining trust and respecting their right to know, defines Veracity.
4
Analyze the antiemetic medication scenario.
The nurse delegates the task to ensure the client receives the medication exactly when promised, despite an intervening emergency.
Honoring commitments and promises made to clients, even when facing conflicting urgent priorities, demonstrates Fidelity.

Key Concept

Application of Core Ethical Principles in Nursing Practice
Estimated Time:1m 30s
Question 2217Question →

Care is being organized for four clients admitted to a progressive care unit. The personnel available includes one registered nurse (RN) and one licensed practical/vocational nurse (LPN/VN). Which client is most appropriate to assign to the LPN/VN?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: A client with cor pulmonale who maintains an oxygen saturation of 89% on 2 liters of oxygen via nasal cannula and requires scheduled oral furosemide

Answer

The most appropriate client to assign to the LPN/VN is the client with cor pulmonale who has an oxygen saturation of 89% and requires scheduled oral furosemide.
The client with cor pulmonale presents with chronic, expected baseline findings (oxygen saturation of 89%) and requires a routine, predictable intervention (oral furosemide administration). Because this client's condition is stable and the required task does not involve initial assessment, complex clinical judgment, or initial teaching, this assignment falls safely within the LPN/VN scope of practice.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the scope of practice limitations for an LPN/VN.
LPN/VNs are assigned stable clients with predictable outcomes, can administer routine medications, but cannot perform initial teaching or advanced clinical assessments.
Safe delegation requires matching the client's acuity and task complexity to the personnel's legal scope of practice.
2
Evaluate the stability of the client recovering from a cardiac catheterization.
Calculate the pulse pressure (108−86=22 mm Hg108 - 86 = 22 \text{ mm Hg}). The combination of a narrow pulse pressure and tachycardia (112 bpm112 \text{ bpm}) signals early shock.
Identifying subtle physiological decline is required to prevent assigning an unstable client to a practical nurse.
3
Evaluate the stability of the client with an acute asthma exacerbation.
Recognize that a 'normal' PaCO2\text{PaCO}_2 (42 mm Hg42 \text{ mm Hg}) during an asthma attack indicates respiratory muscle fatigue, not recovery. This is a medical emergency.
Patients in impending respiratory failure require immediate RN intervention and continuous advanced assessment.
4
Evaluate the client requiring education on apixaban.
Identify that providing initial discharge education is an exclusive RN responsibility.
The 'teach' component of the nursing process (Assess, Diagnose, Plan, Implement, Evaluate, Teach) cannot be delegated.
5
Evaluate the stability of the client with cor pulmonale.
Identify that an oxygen saturation of 89%89\% is an expected, stable chronic baseline for severe right-sided heart failure secondary to lung disease, and oral furosemide is a routine medication.
Stable clients with predictable baseline abnormalities are the safest and most appropriate assignments for LPN/VNs.

Key Concept

Delegation and Physiological Prioritization
Estimated Time:2m 0s
Question 2218Question →

During morning rounds on a neurology unit, a nurse observes a client with an acute exacerbation of multiple sclerosis consuming breakfast. The client coughs repeatedly and clears their throat forcefully after taking sips of water. When asked how they are feeling, the client states, 'My throat feels unusually weak today when I try to drink.' Which action by the nurse demonstrates the most appropriate interprofessional collaboration?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Request a consultation with a speech-language pathologist to comprehensively evaluate the client's swallowing function.

Answer

The nurse should request a consultation with a speech-language pathologist to comprehensively evaluate the client's swallowing function.
The client's coughing and throat clearing after drinking thin liquids are classic signs of dysphagia, a common complication of multiple sclerosis exacerbations. The speech-language pathologist is the specific interdisciplinary team member trained to conduct swallow studies, diagnose aspiration risk, and recommend safe diet modifications.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the client's clinical presentation.
The client with multiple sclerosis is exhibiting new coughing and throat clearing after drinking thin liquids.
Identifying new neurological deficits is critical, as these symptoms strongly indicate dysphagia and a high risk for aspiration.
2
Evaluate the scope of practice for the interdisciplinary team members.
A speech-language pathologist specializes in assessing and managing swallowing disorders, whereas a dietitian focuses on nutritional content.
Matching the client's specific functional deficit to the correct allied health professional ensures safe and effective collaborative care.
3
Determine the safety of delegation and communication.
Delegating feeding of an unstable client is unsafe, and asking 'why' is non-therapeutic.
The nurse must prioritize securing an expert assessment to prevent an adverse physiological event like aspiration pneumonia.

Key Concept

Interprofessional collaboration involves identifying the specific functional deficits of a client and referring them to the appropriate specialist, such as a speech-language pathologist for new-onset dysphagia.
Question 2219Question →

A nurse in the intensive care unit is coordinating care for a client who has sustained a severe traumatic brain injury. The client's family members are experiencing significant distress and are expressing conflicting expectations to various staff members regarding the client's long-term prognosis. In what chronological sequence should the nurse perform the following collaborative actions to effectively manage this situation?

Drag items to arrange them in the correct order

Show answer & explanation

Answer

The correct sequence is: (1) Identify essential team members, (2) Coordinate scheduling with the social worker, (3) Convene a pre-conference team huddle, (4) Explore the family's understanding, and (5) Formulate and document the plan.
The correct chronological sequence follows the principles of interdisciplinary collaboration and the nursing process. First, the nurse and provider must determine which disciplines are needed based on the clinical picture. Second, the medical social worker assists in coordinating the logistics. Third, a critical pre-conference huddle ensures the team is unified, preventing conflicting information from being shared with the family. Fourth, the conference itself begins with an assessment of the family's baseline understanding. Finally, the team collaborates with the family to establish a plan, which is then formally documented.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify essential interdisciplinary team members
The necessary clinical expertise is secured for the meeting.
Ensures all critical aspects of the client's condition can be addressed accurately.
2
Coordinate logistics with the medical social worker
A mutually agreeable time is established.
Facilitates attendance by bridging hospital schedules and family availability.
3
Conduct a pre-conference team huddle
The healthcare team establishes a unified consensus.
Prevents presenting contradictory medical opinions to the family, which can erode trust.
4
Explore the family's understanding during the conference
The family's baseline comprehension is assessed.
Aligns with the nursing process to assess before providing new interventions or information.
5
Formulate and document the agreed-upon care plan
The transition plan and goals are finalized and recorded.
Provides legal documentation and guides ongoing interdisciplinary care.

Key Concept

Effective interdisciplinary collaboration for complex family dynamics requires structured preparation, including identifying essential team members, logistical planning, pre-aligning the healthcare team, and utilizing therapeutic assessment during the conference.
Question 2220Question →

A registered nurse (RN) assumes care for four clients on a medical-surgical telemetry unit after receiving the shift report. In which order should the RN assess these clients? Arrange the clients from highest priority (first to be seen) to lowest priority (last to be seen).

Drag items to arrange them in the correct order

Show answer & explanation

Answer

The RN must first assess the client with tracheostomy stridor (airway), followed by the client with new-onset confusion (circulation/perfusion), then the pre-operative client (time-sensitive), and finally the discharge client (stable).
In nursing prioritization, acute life-threatening conditions involving the airway always take precedence. The client with stridor has a critical airway emergency. Once the airway is secured, circulation and perfusion issues, such as new-onset confusion in a heart failure client, are addressed. Between the two stable clients, time-sensitive needs (preoperative checklist) are prioritized over routine, flexible tasks (discharge).

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Apply the ABC (Airway, Breathing, Circulation) prioritization framework.
The client with stridor has an immediate airway compromise.
Airway issues are always the highest priority.
2
Evaluate the remaining clients for acute changes in condition.
The client with heart failure has a sudden neurological change indicating compromised circulation.
Circulation and acute neurological changes take precedence over stable clients.
3
Compare the stability and time sensitivity of the remaining two clients.
The preoperative client has a time-sensitive procedure in 2 hours, whereas the discharge client is completely stable.
Time-bound tasks for stable clients are prioritized over non-urgent discharge procedures.

Key Concept

Prioritization using the ABC (Airway, Breathing, Circulation) framework and Maslow's Hierarchy of Needs.
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