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Question 2761Question →

A registered nurse evaluates a neonate at 90 minutes of life. The neonate was delivered at 38 weeks of gestation to a client with poorly controlled gestational diabetes. The nurse observes jitteriness and mild intercostal retractions. Vital signs include an axillary temperature of 97.0°F (36.1°C), a heart rate of 158 bpm, and a respiratory rate of 74 breaths/min. The capillary blood glucose level is 32 mg/dL (1.8 mmol/L). Which nursing action represents the most appropriate priority?

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Answer: Establish peripheral intravenous access to administer a prescribed 10% dextrose in water (D10W) infusion.

Answer

Establish peripheral intravenous access to administer a prescribed 10% dextrose in water (D10W) infusion.
The neonate is exhibiting symptomatic hypoglycemia (jitteriness, glucose of 32 mg/dL) combined with respiratory distress (tachypnea of 74 breaths/min and retractions). While enteral feeding is the standard first-line treatment for asymptomatic or mild hypoglycemia, a respiratory rate exceeding 60 breaths/minute is a strict contraindication to oral feeding due to the high risk of pulmonary aspiration. Therefore, establishing intravenous access to administer D10W is the safest and highest priority intervention.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the capillary blood glucose level in the context of the neonate's symptoms.
The glucose level is 32 mg/dL (1.8 mmol/L) and the neonate is jittery.
Normal neonatal glucose is greater than 40-45 mg/dL. A level of 32 mg/dL with symptoms indicates severe hypoglycemia requiring immediate intervention to prevent neurological damage.
2
Evaluate the neonate's respiratory status and vital signs.
The respiratory rate is 74 breaths/min with mild intercostal retractions.
Normal neonatal respiratory rate is 30 to 60 breaths/min. A rate of 74 breaths/min indicates severe tachypnea and respiratory distress.
3
Synthesize the assessment data to determine the safest and most effective route for glucose administration.
Enteral feeding is contraindicated, making intravenous administration the priority.
While enteral feeding is standard for hypoglycemia, an infant breathing faster than 60 times per minute cannot safely coordinate sucking, swallowing, and breathing, creating an extreme risk for pulmonary aspiration.

Key Concept

Neonatal hypoglycemia management in the presence of respiratory distress
Question 2762Question →

During mealtime on a medical-surgical unit, an elderly client with a known history of dysphagia requires assistance. What is the most appropriate action by the registered nurse to ensure safe ingestion and comfort?

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Answer: Maintain the client in a high-Fowler's position for the duration of the meal and for at least 30 minutes afterward.

Answer

The nurse must ensure the client remains in an upright, high-Fowler's position during the meal and for at least 30 minutes after eating to prevent aspiration.
For a client with dysphagia, sitting fully upright in a high-Fowler's position uses gravity to direct food and fluids safely into the stomach rather than the airway. Maintaining this elevated position for at least 30 minutes after the meal prevents the regurgitation of gastric contents, serving as a fundamental and highly effective aspiration precaution.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the client's primary risk factor during basic care.
The client has a history of dysphagia, which places them at a high risk for aspirating food or fluids into the lungs.
Recognizing specific physical vulnerabilities determines which safety precautions must be implemented during routine tasks like feeding.
2
Determine the optimal physical position for oral intake.
The client should be positioned in a high-Fowler's position (sitting up at 90 degrees).
An upright position enlists gravity to help guide the bolus of food down the esophagus and away from the trachea.
3
Establish the necessary post-meal positioning timeline.
The upright position must be maintained for 30 to 45 minutes after the meal has concluded.
Maintaining the position after eating allows time for gastric emptying and prevents the reflux of stomach contents back into the upper airway.

Key Concept

Aspiration Precautions and Safe Client Positioning
Question 2763Question →

A nurse is instructing a client who has a cast on the right lower extremity and is prescribed non-weight-bearing status. The client is learning to ascend stairs using axillary crutches. Arrange the following actions in the correct sequence from first to last.

Drag items to arrange them in the correct order

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Answer

The correct sequence for ascending stairs with crutches is: 1. Assume the tripod stance at the base of the stairs, 2. Place body weight entirely onto the crutches, 3. Advance the unaffected leg onto the step above, 4. Shift body weight from the crutches to the unaffected leg, 5. Bring the affected leg and both crutches up to the step.
Safe stair navigation with crutches relies on the principle that the unaffected ('good') leg must power the upward movement. The client must first establish stability (tripod stance) and shift weight to the crutches to free the strong leg. The unaffected leg is placed on the higher step, followed by a weight shift onto that leg, which then lifts the rest of the body, the affected leg, and the crutches up to the same step.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Establish a stable base of support.
The client assumes the tripod stance at the base of the stairs.
Safety and balance must be ensured before initiating any upward movement.
2
Unweight the unaffected leg.
The client places their body weight entirely onto the crutches.
This allows the strong leg to move freely without bearing weight during the transition.
3
Lead with the strong extremity.
The client advances the unaffected leg onto the step above.
When ascending stairs, the unaffected leg ('good' leg) should always go up first to lift the body's weight.
4
Transfer weight to the newly positioned leg.
The client shifts body weight from the crutches to the unaffected leg on the step.
The strong leg is now in position to stabilize and pull the rest of the body upward.
5
Complete the upward sequence.
The client brings the affected leg and both crutches up to the step.
The crutches and the non-weight-bearing affected leg follow the strong leg up to the new step, completing the maneuver.

Key Concept

Crutch walking on stairs (Three-point gait)
Estimated Time:1m 30s
Question 2764Question →

A nurse is preparing to administer an initial loading dose of 10001000 mg of intravenous phenytoin to an adult client experiencing continuous seizure activity. The client has a single peripheral intravenous catheter currently infusing 5% dextrose in water (D5W) at 100100 mL/hr. Which sequence of actions is the most appropriate for safe parenteral administration of this medication?

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Answer: Pause the primary dextrose infusion, flush the line with 0.9% sodium chloride, administer the phenytoin over at least 2020 minutes, and flush again with 0.9% sodium chloride.

Answer

The most appropriate action is to pause the primary dextrose infusion, flush the line with 0.9% sodium chloride, administer the phenytoin over at least 2020 minutes, and flush again with 0.9% sodium chloride.
The correct approach comprehensively addresses both the chemical incompatibility of the medication and its strict administration rate limit. Phenytoin rapidly precipitates in dextrose solutions, meaning the existing D5W infusion must be paused and the line thoroughly flushed with 0.9% sodium chloride both before and after the dose. Furthermore, intravenous phenytoin must not be administered faster than 5050 mg/minute in adults. For a 10001000 mg loading dose, the absolute minimum administration time is 2020 minutes (10001000 mg / 5050 mg/minute) to minimize the risk of cardiovascular collapse and severe hypotension.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the primary medication incompatibility.
Phenytoin physically precipitates when mixed with 5% dextrose in water (D5W).
Recognizing drug-solution incompatibility is crucial to prevent line occlusion and the infusion of solid crystalline emboli.
2
Determine the necessary intravenous line management strategy.
The primary D5W infusion must be paused and the line completely flushed with 0.9% sodium chloride before and after the medication is given.
0.9% sodium chloride is physically compatible with phenytoin and clears the line of any residual dextrose.
3
Calculate the safe maximum administration rate.
Dividing the 10001000 mg dose by the maximum safe rate of 5050 mg/minute yields a minimum required infusion time of 2020 minutes.
Rapid intravenous administration of phenytoin can cause severe hypotension, severe bradycardia, and fatal cardiovascular collapse.

Key Concept

Intravenous Phenytoin Administration, Fluid Compatibility, and Rate Calculation

Alternative Method

Nurses may utilize an intravenous pump to deliver the medication over 2020 to 3030 minutes rather than a manual IV push, provided the primary line is flushed and verified to contain only 0.9% sodium chloride.
Estimated Time:2m 0s
Question 2765Question →

A nurse is providing morning hygiene and nutritional support for an older adult client who underwent a right total hip arthroplasty via a posterior approach on the previous day. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

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Answer: Place an abduction pillow between the client's legs prior to turning them onto their unaffected side for a linen change.

Answer

The nurse should maintain hip precautions by using an abduction pillow between the legs when turning the client.
Maintaining hip precautions is essential to prevent dislocation of the new prosthesis. For a posterior approach, the hip must not be flexed beyond 90 degrees, and adduction or internal rotation must be avoided. Using an abduction pillow between the legs while turning the client prevents the hip from adducting across the midline during basic care activities such as linen changes.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the client's surgical procedure and post-operative risks.
The client had a right total hip arthroplasty (posterior approach).
Understanding the specific procedure determines which movements are safe and which are contraindicated.
2
Determine the necessary positioning precautions for a posterior approach.
The hip must not be flexed beyond 90 degrees, and adduction or internal rotation must be strictly avoided.
These movements can cause the head of the femur to pop out of the acetabular cup, leading to posterior dislocation.
3
Evaluate each nursing action against basic care principles and safety precautions.
Using an abduction pillow during turning safely prevents adduction, whereas elevating the bed to 90 degrees causes excessive flexion.
Basic care and comfort measures must be adapted to integrate safe post-procedure positioning.

Key Concept

Postoperative positioning and safety in basic care
Question 2766Question →

A nurse is assessing a client who experienced an acute anterior myocardial infarction 2424 hours ago. Which of the following clinical findings indicate that the client is developing cardiogenic shock? Select all that apply.

Select all that apply

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Answer: Urine output of 1515 mL over the past hour; Sudden onset of restlessness and agitation

Answer

The clinical findings that indicate developing cardiogenic shock are a urine output of 15 mL over the past hour and a sudden onset of restlessness and agitation.
Cardiogenic shock occurs when severe myocardial damage reduces cardiac output, compromising systemic perfusion. A urine output of 1515 mL over the past hour indicates inadequate renal blood flow, prompting the kidneys to retain fluid. A sudden onset of restlessness and agitation is a sensitive, early indicator of decreased cerebral perfusion and hypoxia. Both findings signal failing compensatory mechanisms and worsening shock.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the primary physiological risk for the client.
The client is at high risk for cardiogenic shock due to compromised left ventricular function following a large anterior myocardial infarction.
Myocardial damage impairs the heart's pumping ability, which can severely reduce cardiac output and systemic perfusion.
2
Analyze each assessment finding to determine if it reflects decreased cardiac output.
Oliguria (1515 mL/hr) reflects poor renal blood flow, and new-onset agitation reflects early cerebral hypoxia. Both are direct consequences of falling cardiac output.
During early shock, blood is shunted away from the kidneys (lowering urine output), and the brain is highly sensitive to even mild decreases in oxygen delivery.
3
Evaluate the remaining options to rule out distractors.
The skin temperature finding and the ABG values do not align with the hemodynamics of cardiogenic shock.
Cardiogenic shock triggers compensatory vasoconstriction (causing cool, clammy skin) and anaerobic metabolism (causing metabolic acidosis, not alkalosis).

Key Concept

Early Assessment of Cardiogenic Shock
Question 2767Question →

An emergency department nurse is caring for a client who ingested a large quantity of a central nervous system stimulant. The client is experiencing severe psychomotor agitation, diaphoresis, and intense paranoia, shouting that the healthcare staff is trying to poison them. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial nursing intervention?

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Answer: Decrease environmental stimuli, maintain a safe distance, and use a calm, non-confrontational tone.

Answer

Decrease environmental stimuli, maintain a safe distance, and use a calm, non-confrontational tone.
Decreasing environmental stimuli helps reduce the sensory overload that can exacerbate stimulant-induced paranoia and agitation. Maintaining a safe distance and using a calm tone protects the nurse while effectively de-escalating the client's anxiety without directly challenging their false beliefs.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the client's clinical presentation.
The client is exhibiting signs of acute stimulant intoxication, including severe psychomotor agitation and paranoid delusions.
Understanding the cause of the behavior guides the selection of appropriate psychosocial and safety interventions.
2
Identify the primary nursing priority.
The immediate priority is to ensure the physical safety of both the client and the healthcare staff while preventing further escalation of the agitation.
Agitated and paranoid clients are at high risk for impulsive and potentially violent behavior.
3
Evaluate the proposed interventions against safety and therapeutic communication standards.
Providing a low-stimulation environment and maintaining a safe distance is the least restrictive and most effective initial method to de-escalate the situation.
Nursing care must prioritize less restrictive measures before considering restraints, and must avoid confronting delusions directly.

Key Concept

Management of Acute Stimulant Intoxication and Paranoia
Question 2768Question →

A registered nurse is preparing a staff education seminar on the epidemiological framework of disease prevention. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include as examples of secondary prevention? Select all that apply.

Select all that apply

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Answer: Performing a hemoglobin A1c test on an asymptomatic 45-year-old client with a body mass index (BMI) of 32.; Conducting a baseline audiometry screening for employees working in a high-noise manufacturing facility.; Performing a one-time abdominal aortic aneurysm (AAA) ultrasonography on a 68-year-old male with a smoking history.

Answer

The correct interventions are performing a hemoglobin A1c test, conducting a baseline audiometry screening, and performing a one-time abdominal aortic aneurysm ultrasonography.
Secondary prevention strategies focus on the early detection and prompt intervention of diseases in asymptomatic or at-risk individuals. The correct interventions all involve screening measures: hemoglobin A1c testing to screen for diabetes, audiometry to screen for hearing loss, and ultrasonography to screen for an abdominal aortic aneurysm. These interventions aim to detect conditions early so that prompt treatment can be initiated to halt disease progression.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Define secondary prevention within the epidemiological framework.
Secondary prevention focuses on early detection and prompt treatment of a disease or condition, primarily through screening.
Establishing the correct definition is necessary to evaluate the interventions accurately.
2
Evaluate each option to determine if its primary goal is early detection in asymptomatic or at-risk individuals.
The A1c test, audiometry screening, and AAA ultrasonography are all screening tools designed to detect diseases early.
Identifying the true screening interventions separates secondary prevention from primary and tertiary actions.
3
Identify and exclude interventions that fall under primary or tertiary prevention.
Vaccines and community health education are primary prevention. Teaching foot care to a diabetic client is tertiary prevention.
Excluding the incorrect levels of prevention confirms the correct selections.

Key Concept

The epidemiological framework classifies disease prevention into three levels: primary (preventing disease onset), secondary (early detection through screening), and tertiary (managing an existing disease to prevent further complications).
Estimated Time:1m 30s
Question 2769Question →

A clinical manager is conducting safety rounds on an acute care unit. Which observed action by a registered nurse best demonstrates the correct application of accident, error, and injury prevention principles?

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Answer: Utilizing a designated enteral syringe that cannot connect to an intravenous hub to administer liquid medication via a gastrostomy tube.

Answer

Utilizing a designated enteral syringe that cannot connect to an intravenous hub to administer liquid medication via a gastrostomy tube.
Tubing misconnections (e.g., inadvertently connecting an enteral feeding syringe to an intravenous line) can lead to catastrophic, life-threatening injuries. Utilizing enteral-specific syringes that are physically incompatible with Luer-lock intravenous hubs is a proven engineering control that directly prevents these fatal medication errors, demonstrating optimal adherence to injury prevention principles.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the safety implications of the enteral medication administration.
Using syringes specifically designed for enteral feeding prevents accidental intravenous injection of enteral fluids.
Tubing misconnections are a critical, often fatal safety hazard that must be mitigated by standardized physical incompatibility.
2
Evaluate the use of physical restraints.
Applying restraints before attempting less restrictive measures violates safety protocols.
Restraints are a measure of last resort due to the high risk of injury, skin breakdown, and psychological harm.
3
Assess the delegation of the swallow screening.
Initial clinical assessments cannot be delegated to unlicensed assistive personnel.
Swallow screenings require advanced nursing judgment to recognize subtle signs of dysphagia and prevent aspiration.
4
Determine the appropriate precautions for disseminated herpes zoster.
Disseminated herpes zoster requires airborne and contact precautions.
Unlike localized shingles in a healthy adult, disseminated disease can spread via airborne particles, requiring stricter isolation.

Key Concept

Implementing systemic safeguards, such as physical equipment incompatibility and adherence to standardized protocols, is essential for preventing clinical errors and ensuring a safe care environment.
Question 2770Question →

An oncology nurse enters the room of a client with advanced pancreatic cancer who recently signed a Do Not Resuscitate (DNR) directive. The client is crying quietly and states, 'By signing that document, I feel like I am abandoning my children and giving up on my faith.' Which response by the nurse is the most therapeutic?

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Answer: This is clearly a very distressing time for you. Please share more about what giving up means to you in this moment.

Answer

The correct answer is the option that validates the client's feelings and uses open-ended communication to explore their concerns further.
The correct response utilizes two key therapeutic communication techniques: validation and broad opening. By acknowledging that this is a distressing time, the nurse validates the client's emotional state. Asking the client to share more about their feelings encourages the open expression of spiritual and emotional distress without judgment, assumptions, or defensive posturing.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the client's statement and current emotional state.
The client is experiencing acute spiritual distress and feelings of guilt related to the recent DNR order.
Understanding the core of the client's distress is necessary to formulate an appropriate therapeutic response.
2
Identify the nurse's priority in this psychosocial scenario.
The priority is to establish trust, validate the client's emotions, and encourage the open expression of their feelings.
End-of-life care requires prioritizing emotional and spiritual support through active listening.
3
Evaluate the provided options against therapeutic communication principles.
Select the response that avoids false reassurance, does not ask 'why', and retains the assessment responsibility with the registered nurse.
Only one option provides a broad opening without minimizing the client's experience.

Key Concept

Therapeutic Communication in End of Life Care
Question 2771Question →

A community health nurse is evaluating the lifestyle choices of a 68-year-old client with a recent diagnosis of hypertension. The client states, "I check my blood pressure weekly at the local pharmacy to prevent heart disease. I have stopped taking my daily walks because my knees ache, which I know is just a normal part of getting older. I am trying to eat better, but it is very difficult to give up my culture's traditional salted meats." Which of the following is the most appropriate response by the nurse?

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Answer: Joint pain is not an expected part of aging and should be evaluated by your provider. Let us look at ways to reduce the sodium in your traditional recipes and explore low-impact exercises.

Answer

The response that addresses the joint pain as an abnormal finding, suggests modifying traditional recipes, and encourages alternative exercise is the most appropriate intervention.
The correct response comprehensively addresses multiple facets of the client's lifestyle and misconceptions. It correctly identifies that joint pain is a pathological symptom requiring evaluation, not a normal physiological change of aging. Furthermore, it demonstrates cultural competence by offering to modify traditional recipes rather than demanding strict elimination, and it promotes continued physical activity through low-impact alternatives, which are essential lifestyle choices for managing hypertension.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the client's statements to identify knowledge deficits and misconceptions regarding lifestyle choices.
The client misunderstands aging by assuming knee pain is normal, misidentifies prevention levels by believing screening is primary prevention, and struggles with dietary adherence due to cultural preferences.
Comprehensive lifestyle counseling requires the nurse to address false beliefs and cultural barriers before implementing new interventions.
2
Evaluate the nursing responses for therapeutic communication, cultural sensitivity, and factual accuracy.
The correct response addresses the joint pain as an abnormal finding that needs evaluation, offers a cultural compromise for the diet, and suggests an alternative exercise.
Culturally sensitive, evidence-based education promotes adherence to lifestyle modifications and ensures holistic care.

Key Concept

Successful lifestyle modification requires addressing client misconceptions about aging, applying culturally competent dietary counseling, and accurately understanding levels of disease prevention.
Estimated Time:1m 30s
Question 2772Question →

An older adult client with profound bilateral hearing loss is admitted to a private room under strict contact precautions. On the third day of hospitalization, the client reports hearing a deceased spouse calling their name from the hallway. The client's vital signs are stable, and they remain fully oriented to person, place, and time. Which of the following is the most appropriate nursing action to address the client's sensory alteration?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Increase meaningful visual and environmental stimuli by opening the window blinds during daylight hours.

Answer

Increase meaningful visual and environmental stimuli by opening the window blinds during daylight hours.
The client is experiencing sensory deprivation due to the combination of profound hearing loss, placement in a private room, and strict isolation precautions. When the brain receives inadequate sensory input, it may generate its own stimuli, which often manifests as hallucinations. Because the client is fully oriented, acute delirium is less likely. The most appropriate nursing action is to increase meaningful environmental stimuli. Opening the window blinds provides natural light and visual orientation to the day-night cycle, which helps compensate for the severe auditory deficit.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the clinical presentation.
The client has a pre-existing sensory deficit (hearing loss), is physically isolated (private room, contact precautions), and is experiencing auditory hallucinations while remaining cognitively intact.
Identifying the root cause of the perceptual alteration is necessary to determine the appropriate nursing intervention.
2
Identify the primary nursing problem.
The client is experiencing sensory deprivation.
Isolation and sensory deficits severely reduce meaningful environmental input, leading the brain to generate its own stimuli, which can manifest as hallucinations.
3
Select the intervention that addresses the root cause.
Providing visual stimuli (such as opening the window blinds) compensates for auditory deficits and combats the deprivation.
Increasing meaningful sensory input resolves the underlying deprivation safely, avoiding nontherapeutic communication or unauthorized delegation.

Key Concept

Sensory Deprivation in Isolated Clients
Question 2773Question →

A registered nurse is assigned to care for a client who is receiving a continuous intravenous infusion of 0.45%0.45\% sodium chloride. The healthcare provider prescribes a new intravenous (IV) push medication for the client. Which action represents the most critical safety check before injecting the medication into the existing IV line?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Confirm the compatibility of the new medication with the infusing 0.45%0.45\% sodium chloride solution.

Answer

The nurse must confirm the compatibility of the new medication with the infusing 0.45%0.45\% sodium chloride solution.
When administering an IV push medication into an existing continuous IV line, the nurse must first verify that the new medication is compatible with the infusing fluid. Mixing incompatible medications or fluids in the IV tubing can result in crystallization or precipitation, which can cause a severe adverse event such as an embolism. Ensuring compatibility is a fundamental standard of medication safety.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the clinical scenario.
The nurse is preparing to administer an IV push medication through a line that already contains an infusing continuous fluid.
Understanding the route and current state of the IV line is essential for safe medication administration.
2
Identify potential patient safety risks.
Mixing two different intravenous substances carries a high risk of incompatibility, which can lead to precipitation in the IV tubing.
Patient safety relies on preventing adverse drug interactions before they reach the bloodstream.
3
Determine the priority nursing action.
The nurse must consult a drug reference guide or pharmacist to verify that the IV push medication and the continuous IV fluid are safe to mix.
Verifying compatibility is the mandatory first step before administering concurrent IV therapies in the same line.

Key Concept

Intravenous Medication Compatibility
Estimated Time:1m 0s
Question 2774Question →

A family clinic nurse is providing anticipatory guidance to the caregivers of a 9-year-old female regarding approaching pubertal changes. Arrange the following physiological milestones in the chronological sequence they are anticipated to manifest.

Drag items to arrange them in the correct order

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Answer

The normal progression of female puberty begins with the development of breast buds (thelarche), followed by the appearance of pubic hair (pubarche), then a rapid growth spurt (peak height velocity), and concludes with the onset of menstruation (menarche).
The established chronological sequence of female pubertal development is a predictable progression governed by hormonal changes. It reliably begins with thelarche, followed closely by pubarche, then a rapid increase in physical growth (peak height velocity), and ultimately concludes with menarche.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the earliest sign of female puberty.
Thelarche (breast bud development) is recognized as the initial physical change.
Ovarian estrogen production initially targets breast tissue, making it the first observable milestone.
2
Determine the milestone that closely follows the initial sign.
Pubarche (initial pubic hair appearance) is identified as the second stage.
Adrenal androgen production initiates pubic hair growth shortly after breast changes begin.
3
Sequence the remaining somatic and reproductive milestones.
The peak height velocity occurs next, followed finally by menarche.
The maximum rate of skeletal growth must occur before the advanced hormonal maturation that triggers menstruation.

Key Concept

Normal chronological sequence of female pubertal development
Estimated Time:1m 0s
Question 2775Question →

A registered nurse is orienting a newly hired nurse in the endoscopy suite. While preparing a concentrated glutaraldehyde solution for high-level disinfection, the newly hired nurse accidentally splashes the chemical into their unprotected eyes. Which action should the registered nurse implement first?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Guide the colleague to the nearest eyewash station and flush the eyes continuously with water for at least 15 minutes.

Answer

The correct action is to guide the colleague to the nearest eyewash station and flush the eyes continuously with water for at least 15 minutes.
The immediate priority for any chemical splash to the eyes is to minimize tissue damage by flushing the eyes copiously with water or normal saline for a minimum of 15 minutes. This action physically removes the hazardous material and dilutes its concentration, superseding any administrative or investigatory steps.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Assess the immediate physiological risk presented by the chemical exposure.
The concentrated chemical poses an acute threat of severe and potentially irreversible tissue damage to the cornea and conjunctiva.
Rapid recognition of a sight-threatening emergency dictates the urgency of the response.
2
Prioritize interventions based on immediate safety versus administrative protocols.
Immediate physical decontamination (flushing) takes precedence over consulting documentation or reporting the incident.
Diluting and removing the hazardous substance immediately is the only way to halt ongoing tissue destruction.

Key Concept

Emergency Management of Hazardous Chemical Exposures
Estimated Time:1m 0s
Question 2776Question →

An 84-year-old client with a history of mild Alzheimer's disease is brought to the emergency department. The caregiver reports a sudden, dramatic increase in the client's confusion, generalized weakness, and new-onset urinary incontinence over the past 12 hours. Recognizing the risk for acute delirium secondary to an underlying physiological issue in the older adult, arrange the following nursing actions in the correct priority order.

Drag items to arrange them in the correct order

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Answer

The correct sequence prioritizes physiological stability (ABCs), followed by focused assessment of the acute change, investigation of the underlying cause, implementation of safety measures, and finally, obtaining diagnostic specimens.
In the older adult, sudden confusion is a hallmark of delirium, often triggered by physiological stressors such as hypoxia, infection, or medication toxicity (atypical presentation). Following the nursing process and standard prioritization, the nurse must first ensure ABCs are stable by assessing vital signs and oxygenation. Next, a rapid neurocognitive assessment formally differentiates the acute delirium from baseline dementia. The nurse then physically assesses for common physiological triggers, such as urinary retention, before moving to the intervention phase to implement comprehensive safety measures. Finally, prescribed diagnostic specimens are obtained to identify the exact cause prior to initiating pharmacological treatment.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Assess airway, breathing, circulation, and vital signs.
Hemodynamic and respiratory status are confirmed.
Hypoxia and shock are immediate life threats that can rapidly cause acute confusion in older adults and must be addressed first.
2
Assess the cognitive baseline using a rapid screening tool.
Delirium is differentiated from baseline dementia.
It is critical to quantify the acute neurological change, which is a hallmark of atypical disease presentation in the elderly.
3
Assess for underlying physiological triggers via targeted physical examination.
Potential sources like urinary retention or bowel impaction are evaluated.
Infections or retention often manifest atypically as confusion and incontinence in older adults, requiring prompt physical assessment.
4
Implement environmental safety measures.
The client is protected from falls and injury.
Agitated or delirious older adults have a significantly increased risk of injury, requiring interventions immediately after the initial assessment phase.
5
Obtain prescribed diagnostic labs.
A sterile urine specimen is collected for analysis.
Diagnostic testing identifies the precise etiology of the delirium to guide definitive medical treatment, and must occur prior to administering antibiotics.

Key Concept

In older adults, sudden cognitive changes (delirium) often represent an atypical presentation of a physical illness, requiring immediate physiological prioritization (ABCs) followed by targeted assessment of common geriatric triggers.
Estimated Time:1m 30s
Question 2777Question →

A nurse is evaluating the arterial blood gas (ABG) results of an adult client admitted with an acute asthma exacerbation. Which of the following laboratory values indicate that the client is experiencing uncompensated respiratory acidosis? Select all that apply.

Select all that apply

Show answer & explanation

Answer: pH of 7.28; PaCO2 of 56 mm Hg; HCO3- of 24 mEq/L

Answer

The laboratory values that confirm uncompensated respiratory acidosis are a pH of 7.28, a PaCO2 of 56 mm Hg, and an HCO3- of 24 mEq/L.
Uncompensated respiratory acidosis is characterized by three fundamental criteria: a low pH (below 7.35) confirming acidemia, an elevated PaCO2 (above 45 mm Hg) demonstrating respiratory dysfunction due to carbon dioxide retention, and a normal bicarbonate level (22-26 mEq/L) indicating that the renal system has not yet initiated a compensatory metabolic response.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the pH to determine if the primary disturbance is acidosis or alkalosis.
The correct finding must be a pH less than 7.35.
The normal pH range is 7.35 to 7.45. Any value below 7.35 definitively establishes an acidotic state in the blood.
2
Examine the PaCO2 level to identify if the acidosis has a respiratory origin.
The correct finding must be a PaCO2 greater than 45 mm Hg.
Because carbon dioxide acts as an acid in the body, alveolar hypoventilation leads to CO2 retention. This establishes the respiratory component of the disorder.
3
Evaluate the HCO3- level to determine the presence or absence of metabolic compensation.
The correct finding must be an HCO3- within the normal range of 22 to 26 mEq/L.
An uncompensated state means the kidneys have not yet started to retain excess bicarbonate to offset the high acid levels in the blood.

Key Concept

Interpretation of uncompensated respiratory acidosis requires identifying a low pH (acidemia), an elevated PaCO2 (respiratory origin), and a normal HCO3- (lack of renal compensation).
Estimated Time:1m 0s
Question 2778Question →

A nurse is preparing to feed a client who has dysphagia and left-sided facial weakness following the surgical resection of a brain tumor. Arrange the following nursing actions in the correct chronological sequence to prevent aspiration and promote safe swallowing. All options must be used.

Drag items to arrange them in the correct order

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Answer

The sequence must prioritize immediate airway protection through initial positioning, utilize the client's intact neurological function for feeding, apply a protective swallowing maneuver, verify complete swallowing, and finally maintain post-meal aspiration precautions.
Feeding a client with dysphagia and unilateral weakness requires a strict, chronological approach centered entirely on airway protection. The nurse must first establish safe positioning (high-Fowler's). Next, food is placed specifically on the unaffected side to maximize mechanical control of the bolus. The client then utilizes a compensatory swallowing technique (chin-tuck) to anatomically protect the airway. Immediate post-swallow assessment is critical to check for pocketing on the weak side. Finally, upright post-meal positioning is maintained for an extended period to prevent reflux and delayed aspiration.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Elevate the head of the bed to 90 degrees.
The client is positioned optimally upright before the meal begins.
Prevents reflux and establishes baseline airway protection before introducing any food.
2
Place a small amount of food on the right side of the oral cavity.
The bolus is placed on the unaffected, stronger side of the mouth.
Allows the client to sense and control the food using intact facial muscles, as the left side is weak.
3
Instruct the client to flex the neck and tuck the chin against the chest.
The airway opening is anatomically protected at the exact moment of the swallow.
Narrows the laryngeal inlet to prevent the bolus from entering the trachea during the swallowing reflex.
4
Inspect the left buccal cavity for pocketed food.
The affected side of the mouth is cleared of hidden residual food.
Prevents delayed silent aspiration caused by leftover food falling into the airway post-swallow.
5
Maintain the upright seated position for at least 30 minutes.
The client remains safe during initial digestion.
Prevents gastroesophageal reflux which could lead to delayed aspiration of stomach contents.

Key Concept

Aspiration prevention and safe feeding techniques for clients with dysphagia and unilateral neurological weakness.
Question 2779Question →

A nurse is caring for a client with a central venous access device (CVAD) that is completely occluded. The healthcare provider has prescribed alteplase to declot the line. Arrange the following steps for administering this thrombolytic agent in the correct chronological sequence. All steps must be used.

Drag items to arrange them in the correct order

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Answer

The correct sequence is to first assess for mechanical obstruction, then instill the alteplase using negative pressure, allow it to dwell for 30 to 120 minutes, aspirate the drug and clot, and finally flush the restored line with normal saline.
Safe administration of a thrombolytic for CVAD clearance requires a specific sequence to protect the patient from emboli and systemic bleeding. The nurse must first confirm the occlusion, use negative pressure to safely draw the drug into the lumen, allow sufficient dwell time for fibrinolysis, aspirate the dissolved clot and medication to prevent systemic administration, and finally flush with saline to clear the line.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Assess the catheter for mechanical obstruction by attempting to aspirate blood and flush with 0.9% sodium chloride.
The nurse confirms the occlusion is thrombotic and rules out simple mechanical issues.
Pharmacological declotting should only be attempted after confirming a true intraluminal occlusion.
2
Instill the prescribed dose of alteplase into the occluded lumen using a negative-pressure technique.
The alteplase enters the catheter lumen without causing catheter rupture.
Applying positive pressure to an occluded line can rupture the catheter or dislodge a clot systemically. Negative pressure safely draws the medication in.
3
Allow the thrombolytic solution to dwell inside the catheter lumen for 30 to 120 minutes.
The alteplase converts plasminogen to plasmin, breaking down the fibrin matrix of the clot.
Thrombolytics require time to enzymatically dissolve the thrombosis.
4
Aspirate the medication and dissolved clot remnants until 4 to 5 mL of blood is returned.
The drug and clot fragments are safely removed from the catheter.
Flushing the medication into the systemic circulation poses a severe bleeding risk and could release emboli into the bloodstream.
5
Vigorously flush the cleared catheter lumen with 10 to 20 mL of sterile 0.9% sodium chloride.
The catheter is cleared of residual blood and patency is verified.
A final flush ensures the line is fully restored and safe for subsequent infusions.

Key Concept

Management of Central Venous Access Device (CVAD) Occlusion
Question 2780Question →

A gravid client at 3939 weeks gestation with chronic hypertension is admitted for labor induction. The client has a continuous epidural infusion and an intravenous oxytocin infusion at 12 mU/min12\text{ mU/min}. An intrauterine pressure catheter and a fetal scalp electrode are in place. The nurse evaluates the tracing and observes a baseline fetal heart rate of 165 bpm165\text{ bpm} with minimal variability. Over the past 2020 minutes, uniform decelerations begin exactly at the peak of each uterine contraction and return to the baseline approximately 3030 seconds after the contraction ends. Uterine contractions occur every 22 minutes, lasting 9090 seconds, with a resting tone of 25 mmHg25\text{ mmHg}. Which actions should the nurse prioritize? Select all that apply.

Select all that apply

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Answer: Discontinue the intravenous oxytocin infusion immediately.; Assist the client into a right or left lateral decubitus position.; Administer oxygen at 10 L/min10\text{ L/min} via a non-rebreather face mask.

Answer

The priority actions are to discontinue the oxytocin infusion, assist the client into a lateral decubitus position, and administer oxygen via a non-rebreather mask.
The client is experiencing uterine tachysystole (inadequate resting time between contractions) compounded by chronic hypertension, leading to uteroplacental insufficiency. This is evidenced by the fetal tachycardia, minimal variability, and late decelerations. Immediate intrauterine resuscitation is required to restore oxygenation to the fetus. The priority interventions are to stop the oxytocin to relax the uterus, place the client in a lateral position to optimize cardiac output and placental perfusion, and administer high-flow oxygen to increase maternal oxygen saturation available for fetal transfer.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the continuous electronic fetal monitor tracing and maternal contraction pattern.
Identified fetal tachycardia (165 bpm165\text{ bpm}), minimal variability, late decelerations, and uterine tachysystole (contractions every 2 minutes2\text{ minutes} lasting 90 seconds90\text{ seconds} with an elevated resting tone).
Accurate interpretation of the fetal-maternal dyad status is required to identify uteroplacental insufficiency.
2
Determine the physiological cause of the abnormal fetal heart rate pattern.
The late decelerations and minimal variability indicate fetal hypoxia driven by inadequate uterine relaxation between contractions (tachysystole), limiting placental blood flow.
Linking the contraction pattern to the fetal response guides the targeted interventions.
3
Select priority interventions for intrauterine resuscitation.
Selected stopping oxytocin, lateral positioning, and high-flow oxygen administration.
These actions directly address the root causes by halting the uterotonic agent, relieving aortocaval compression, and increasing maternal circulating oxygen.

Key Concept

Intrauterine Resuscitation for Uteroplacental Insufficiency
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