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Question 2781Question →

A client weighing 198 lb198\text{ lb} is receiving a continuous intravenous (IV) heparin infusion for the treatment of a deep vein thrombosis. The client's morning activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) is reported as 42 seconds42\text{ seconds}. According to the facility's weight-based heparin protocol, for this aPTT result, the nurse must administer an IV push bolus of 40 units/kg40\text{ units/kg} and increase the continuous infusion rate by 2 units/kg/hr2\text{ units/kg/hr}. The continuous IV infusion is currently running at 14 units/kg/hr14\text{ units/kg/hr}. The pharmacy provides a premixed heparin bag containing 25,000 units25,000\text{ units} in 250 mL250\text{ mL} of 0.9%0.9\% sodium chloride, and a separate heparin vial containing 1,000 units/mL1,000\text{ units/mL} for the bolus dose.

After administering the required bolus, at what rate in mL/hr\text{mL/hr} should the nurse set the IV pump for the new continuous infusion? (Record your answer to the nearest tenth.)

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Answer: 14.4

Answer

14.4
To find the correct continuous infusion rate, the nurse must first convert the client's weight to kilograms (198÷2.2=90 kg198 \div 2.2 = 90\text{ kg}). Next, determine the new infusion rate by adding the 2 units/kg/hr2\text{ units/kg/hr} protocol increase to the current 14 units/kg/hr14\text{ units/kg/hr} rate, resulting in 16 units/kg/hr16\text{ units/kg/hr}. Multiply this rate by the client's weight to find the total hourly dose (16×90=1440 units/hr16 \times 90 = 1440\text{ units/hr}). Finally, calculate the required volume from the continuous infusion bag (which has a concentration of 100 units/mL100\text{ units/mL}) by dividing the hourly dose by the concentration (1440÷100=14.4 mL/hr1440 \div 100 = 14.4\text{ mL/hr}).

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Convert the client's weight from pounds to kilograms.
90 kg90\text{ kg}
Medication dosing in the protocol is weight-based in kg (198÷2.2=90198 \div 2.2 = 90).
2
Determine the new prescribed continuous infusion rate.
16 units/kg/hr16\text{ units/kg/hr}
The protocol requires adding 2 units/kg/hr2\text{ units/kg/hr} to the current rate of 14 units/kg/hr14\text{ units/kg/hr}.
3
Calculate the total units per hour required.
1440 units/hr1440\text{ units/hr}
Multiply the new rate (16 units/kg/hr16\text{ units/kg/hr}) by the client's weight (90 kg90\text{ kg}).
4
Determine the concentration of the continuous heparin bag.
100 units/mL100\text{ units/mL}
Divide the total units in the bag (25,000 units25,000\text{ units}) by the total volume (250 mL250\text{ mL}).
5
Calculate the new IV pump rate in mL/hr.
14.4 mL/hr14.4\text{ mL/hr}
Divide the hourly unit requirement (1440 units/hr1440\text{ units/hr}) by the bag concentration (100 units/mL100\text{ units/mL}).

Key Concept

Weight-Based Intravenous Medication Titration
Question 2782Question →

A nurse is preparing to administer a large-volume cleansing enema to an adult client who is experiencing severe constipation. Arrange the following steps of the procedure in the correct chronological order.

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Answer

The correct sequence is to first position the client, then prepare for insertion by donning gloves and lubricating the tip. Next, the nurse inserts the tip while the client exhales, elevates the bag to the correct height to begin infusion, and finally manages any potential cramping by clamping the tubing.
This sequence ensures patient safety, anatomical alignment, and procedure effectiveness. Positioning the client first ensures the descending colon is optimally oriented. Donning gloves and lubricating immediately prior to insertion prevents contamination. Exhaling during insertion relaxes the sphincter, and properly elevating the bag controls the fluid pressure. Finally, anticipating and reacting to cramping by clamping the tube represents safe intra-procedure monitoring.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Assist the client into the left lateral Sims position with the right knee flexed.
The client's gastrointestinal tract is anatomically aligned for the procedure.
This position allows gravity to help the enema solution flow smoothly into the sigmoid and descending colon.
2
Don clean gloves and apply a water-soluble lubricant to the tip of the enema tubing.
The equipment is prepared for safe insertion while maintaining infection control.
Lubrication reduces friction, preventing trauma to the rectal mucosa. Doing this after positioning prevents accidental contamination of the tip.
3
Instruct the client to breathe out slowly while inserting the tip 3 to 4 inches into the rectum.
The tip is safely advanced into the adult rectum without excessive resistance.
Exhaling relaxes the external anal sphincter, reducing discomfort and minimizing the risk of tissue injury during insertion.
4
Elevate the enema container 12 to 18 inches above the level of the anus and unclamp the tubing.
The solution begins to flow into the colon at a safe, controlled rate.
This specific height limits the hydrostatic pressure. Holding the bag too high forces fluid in too rapidly, causing severe distention and pain.
5
Clamp the tubing temporarily if the client reports fullness or abdominal cramping.
The instillation is safely paused, relieving the client's discomfort.
Cramping is a sign of rapid bowel distention. Stopping the flow allows the intestinal muscles to relax, preventing premature expulsion of the fluid.

Key Concept

Safe administration of a large-volume cleansing enema
Estimated Time:1m 30s
Question 2783Question →

A nurse in a pediatric acute care unit is caring for a 9-year-old child admitted with a vaso-occlusive sickle cell crisis. The child's divorced parents are at the bedside, loudly blaming each other for the child's recent illness. The child begins to cry and reports a sudden increase in pain. In what order should the nurse take the following actions to manage this family dynamic and care for the child? (Arrange the actions from first to last.)

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Answer

The correct sequence prioritizes the immediate safety of the client's environment, followed by patient assessment, moving the conflict to a private area, utilizing therapeutic communication to de-escalate, and finally setting firm behavioral boundaries.
The correct sequence utilizes the nursing process and prioritizing frameworks. The nurse must first control the environment to prevent further harm, then assess the patient. Only after the patient is stable should the nurse address the family's psychosocial needs by relocating them, de-escalating the situation therapeutically, and setting future boundaries.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Remove the stressors from the client's immediate environment.
The parents step out of the room, halting the active emotional distress inflicted on the child.
Milieu management and patient safety are the highest priorities during an escalating crisis.
2
Evaluate the child's condition.
The nurse determines the severity of the child's pain and physiological stability.
Following the nursing process, assessment must immediately follow the stabilization of the environment to guide clinical interventions.
3
Relocate the parents to a neutral, private setting.
The parents are moved away from the clinical care area.
This protects the confidentiality of the family and prevents disruption to other clients on the unit.
4
Use therapeutic communication to address the parents' emotions.
The parents feel heard and their anger begins to de-escalate.
Validating underlying concerns (fear for the child's health) reduces defensiveness and prepares them for collaborative planning.
5
Set visitation rules.
Clear guidelines are established for how the parents must behave when returning to the child's room.
Establishing therapeutic boundaries is necessary to maintain a safe, healing environment for the client moving forward.

Key Concept

Managing maladaptive family dynamics in acute care requires a stepwise approach: prioritize the client's immediate psychological and physiological safety, remove the conflict from the therapeutic environment, de-escalate using therapeutic communication, and establish firm behavioral boundaries.
Question 2784Question →

A public health nurse is conducting a wellness consultation for a 22-year-old client who regularly attends multi-day outdoor music festivals. The client confides in the nurse, stating, "I sometimes take MDMA so I have enough energy to dance all night, but I am careful to only take a small amount." Which response by the nurse demonstrates the most appropriate harm reduction strategy?

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Answer: Ensure you are drinking a balanced amount of electrolyte fluids and taking frequent breaks in cool areas while dancing.

Answer

The nurse should advise the client to ensure they are drinking a balanced amount of electrolyte fluids and taking frequent breaks in cool areas while dancing.
The correct answer embraces a harm reduction approach, which focuses on minimizing the negative physical and social impacts of drug use rather than solely demanding abstinence. MDMA (commonly known as ecstasy or molly) disrupts the body's ability to regulate temperature, significantly increasing the risk of severe hyperthermia and dehydration, especially in hot, crowded environments like music festivals. Furthermore, clients often overcompensate by drinking too much plain water, leading to life-threatening dilutional hyponatremia. Advising the client to maintain hydration with electrolytes and take cooling breaks directly addresses and mitigates the highest-priority physiological risks associated with this specific behavior.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the client's statement and the nursing context.
The client is a young adult engaging in a high-risk behavior (illicit substance use) in a specific environment (outdoor music festivals). The question asks for a 'harm reduction strategy'.
Identifying the goal (harm reduction) determines the correct therapeutic approach, which focuses on safety rather than demanding immediate abstinence.
2
Identify the primary physiological risks associated with the specific substance (MDMA).
MDMA (ecstasy) significantly increases the risk of severe hyperthermia, dehydration, and hyponatremia (due to excessive free-water intake combined with increased antidiuretic hormone secretion).
Effective harm reduction must target the most acute life-threatening complications of the behavior.
3
Evaluate the options based on harm reduction principles and therapeutic communication.
The option suggesting electrolyte fluids and cooling breaks directly mitigates the physiological risks of MDMA. The other options rely on non-therapeutic communication ('why' questions, giving advice) or clinically inappropriate interventions (inpatient detox for occasional use).
Harm reduction aims to keep the client as safe as possible while maintaining a trusting, non-judgmental therapeutic alliance.

Key Concept

Harm Reduction and Substance Use Safety
Estimated Time:1m 0s
Question 2785Question →

A community health nurse is evaluating a client's progression through the Transtheoretical Model of Change regarding weight management and cardiovascular risk reduction. Place the following client statements in chronological order representing the progression of behavioral change, from the earliest stage to the latest stage.

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Answer

The correct chronological order of the stages of behavioral change is: Precontemplation, Contemplation, Preparation, Action, and Maintenance.
The Transtheoretical Model of Change outlines five stages a client progresses through when adopting healthy lifestyle choices. It begins with Precontemplation (denial or unawareness), moves to Contemplation (recognition and intent to act within 6 months), transitions to Preparation (intent to act within 30 days with small preparatory steps), proceeds to Action (active modification for less than 6 months), and concludes with Maintenance (sustained change for over 6 months).

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the Precontemplation stage statement.
The statement denying the weight issue is placed first.
In the earliest stage, the client lacks awareness of the problem and has no intention of changing.
2
Identify the Contemplation stage statement.
The statement about planning to look into gym memberships in a few months is placed second.
The client recognizes the need for change and intends to act within six months, but is not yet ready for immediate action.
3
Identify the Preparation stage statement.
The statement regarding purchasing a food scale and starting next Monday is placed third.
The client is planning to initiate the change within the next 30 days and has taken small behavioral steps.
4
Identify the Action stage statement.
The statement about walking and logging meals for the past three weeks is placed fourth.
The client has been actively engaging in the new lifestyle behavior, but for less than six months.
5
Identify the Maintenance stage statement.
The statement about maintaining the target weight for eight months is placed last.
The client has successfully sustained the lifestyle modification for greater than six months.

Key Concept

Transtheoretical Model (Stages of Change) in Lifestyle Modification
Question 2786Question →

A nurse is preparing to assess an adult client for orthostatic hypotension to determine their risk for falls. In what order should the nurse perform the following actions to ensure accurate results?

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Answer

The correct sequence is to first have the client rest supine for 5 to 10 minutes, then measure baseline vital signs, assist the client to a standing position, and finally wait 1 to 3 minutes before reassessing vital signs.
The correct sequence ensures that an accurate physiological baseline is established at rest, followed by a controlled postural change. Providing a 1 to 3 minute delay before the final measurement is critical to allow the body's compensatory mechanisms time to act, ensuring an accurate diagnosis of orthostatic hypotension.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Instruct the client to lie flat in a supine position for 5 to 10 minutes.
The cardiovascular system stabilizes at a resting baseline.
Recent movement or position changes can falsely elevate vital signs, which would skew the baseline comparison.
2
Measure the client's blood pressure and heart rate while supine.
Baseline control metrics are obtained.
These initial measurements are required to calculate any pathological drop in blood pressure or spike in heart rate upon standing.
3
Assist the client safely to a standing position.
A sudden gravitational shift of blood to the lower extremities occurs.
This physical maneuver tests the autonomic nervous system's ability to maintain adequate cardiac output and vascular tone.
4
Wait 1 to 3 minutes, then take a second blood pressure and heart rate measurement.
The final diagnostic values are recorded.
Measuring immediately upon standing may yield false-negative results; waiting allows time to observe if compensatory mechanisms fail.

Key Concept

Orthostatic Blood Pressure Measurement Sequence
Question 2787Question →

A community health clinic nurse is working with a client who presents in a state of acute situational crisis following a sudden, unexpected job loss. The client appears highly distressed and overwhelmed. Arrange the following nursing interventions in the correct chronological order according to standard crisis intervention principles.

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Answer

The correct sequence is: assess for safety, establish rapport, identify the trigger, address feelings, explore alternatives, and finally develop an action plan.
According to standard crisis intervention protocols, the absolute first priority is always assessing for lethality and ensuring physical safety. Once safety is established, the nurse must quickly build therapeutic rapport to create a secure environment. Only after trust is established can the nurse effectively identify the specific precipitating event and encourage the expression of feelings. Finally, with the problem defined and emotions validated, the nurse and client can collaborate to explore alternative coping mechanisms and develop a concrete, short-term action plan.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Determine the priority of care in a crisis situation.
Safety is identified as the primary concern, requiring an immediate lethality assessment.
To prevent injury or death, the nurse must first rule out imminent danger before proceeding with psychological interventions.
2
Identify the next required action to facilitate communication.
Establish rapport and psychological contact.
A client cannot engage in meaningful problem-solving without a foundation of trust, empathy, and active listening.
3
Determine how to approach understanding the client's problem.
Identify the precipitating event and then explore the associated feelings.
The nurse needs to understand the specific stressor and allow the client to process their emotional reaction to it before attempting to fix the issue.
4
Select the interventions for resolving the crisis.
Explore alternatives and develop an action plan.
After feelings are validated, the client is more capable of identifying coping strategies and collaborating on a concrete plan for the immediate future.

Key Concept

Crisis Intervention Sequence
Estimated Time:1m 30s
Question 2788Question →

A 68-year-old male client presents to the outpatient clinic for an annual health maintenance visit. The client's past medical history includes essential hypertension and a 25-pack-year smoking history, though he reports successfully quitting smoking five years ago. When formulating the client's care plan, which action by the nurse represents an appropriate secondary disease prevention strategy specifically indicated for this client's demographic and risk profile?

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Answer: Facilitating a one-time screening ultrasonography of the abdominal aorta.

Answer

Facilitating a one-time screening ultrasonography of the abdominal aorta.
Secondary prevention focuses on the early detection of asymptomatic disease through screening. According to evidence-based guidelines, a one-time screening ultrasonography for an abdominal aortic aneurysm (AAA) is indicated for men aged 65 to 75 years who have a history of smoking. This client perfectly fits the demographic and risk profile for this secondary prevention strategy.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the client's demographic and clinical profile.
The client is a 68-year-old male with a history of hypertension and a significant smoking history (25 pack-years).
Identifying age, gender, and risk factors is essential for determining appropriate evidence-based screening guidelines.
2
Define the goal of secondary prevention.
Secondary prevention involves screening measures to detect asymptomatic diseases early.
The question specifically asks for a secondary prevention strategy, eliminating primary interventions (vaccines) and tertiary interventions (disease management).
3
Evaluate each intervention against prevention levels and demographic indications.
An AAA ultrasound is a secondary prevention measure indicated for males aged 65-75 who have ever smoked. The influenza vaccine is primary. The DASH diet for existing hypertension is tertiary. A DEXA scan is secondary but typically indicated for females over 65.
Matching the correct prevention level with the specific demographic guideline isolates the correct answer.

Key Concept

Epidemiological Framework of Prevention and Age-Specific Screenings
Estimated Time:1m 15s
Question 2789Question →

A nurse is caring for a client with severe hyponatremia who becomes acutely confused and begins forcefully grasping at a newly inserted central venous catheter. To prevent a life-threatening hemorrhage, the nurse must initiate a medical-surgical restraint protocol. Arrange the following nursing actions in the correct chronological sequence from the initial clinical response to the final resolution.

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Answer

The correct chronological sequence is: 1) Attempt and document the failure of less restrictive measures, 2) Apply the restraints to secure the client, 3) Contact the provider for an emergency prescription, 4) Perform 2-hour assessments and releases, and 5) Discontinue the restraints as soon as the clinical indication resolves.
The proper sequence for managing a client pulling at life-sustaining equipment begins with attempting and documenting the failure of less restrictive alternatives. Once alternatives fail and immediate harm is imminent, the nurse must apply the physical restraints to stabilize the situation. After the client is safe, the nurse must immediately contact the provider to obtain a formal prescription. Ongoing care requires releasing the restraints every 2 hours for neurovascular checks and basic needs. Finally, the nurse must discontinue the restraints as soon as the client's cognition improves, without waiting for the provider's order to expire.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Attempt less restrictive safety measures, such as concealing the catheter site with a stockinette, and document their failure.
The client continues to grasp at the central venous catheter despite alternative interventions.
Regulatory guidelines mandate that physical restraints are strictly a measure of last resort. All viable less restrictive alternatives must be attempted and proven ineffective before proceeding.
2
Apply bilateral soft wrist restraints and secure the straps to the movable portion of the bed frame using quick-release knots.
The client's hands are secured safely, preventing the immediate removal of life-sustaining medical equipment.
In an emergency where immediate physical harm (e.g., severe hemorrhage from a central line) is imminent, the nurse must prioritize the client's physiological safety by applying the restraint first.
3
Contact the primary healthcare provider immediately to report the emergency application and obtain a formal prescription.
The provider is notified of the emergency intervention and issues a valid order for non-violent medical restraints.
A nurse may apply a restraint in an emergency to protect the client from immediate injury, but they must contact the provider immediately afterward to obtain a formal prescription and ensure legal compliance.
4
Release the restraint devices one at a time every 2 hours to perform range-of-motion exercises and neurovascular assessments.
The client's skin integrity, distal pulses, and joint mobility are maintained during the restraint period.
Standard protocol for non-violent (medical-surgical) restraints requires the removal of the device at least every 2 hours to assess circulation, provide skin care, and meet the client's basic needs.
5
Discontinue the restraints completely as soon as the client's cognition clears and they no longer pose a risk to the medical device.
The client is freed from the physical restraints at the earliest clinically safe opportunity.
Restraints must be discontinued the moment the client is no longer a danger to themselves or their medical devices, regardless of the time remaining on the active medical prescription.

Key Concept

Emergency Application Sequence and Legal Protocols for Non-Violent Medical Restraints
Question 2790Question →

A pediatric nurse is conducting a developmental assessment on a 6-month-old infant during a well-child visit. The infant was born at term with no prenatal complications. Which observation should the nurse identify as a potential developmental delay requiring further evaluation?

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Answer: The infant exhibits a pronounced head lag when pulled from a lying to a sitting position.

Answer

The infant exhibiting a pronounced head lag when pulled from a lying to a sitting position.
At 6 months of age, an infant should demonstrate strong head control. Head lag typically disappears by 4 months of age as neck and shoulder muscles strengthen. A pronounced head lag at 6 months is a significant developmental red flag that may suggest hypotonia, cerebral palsy, or other neurological conditions, warranting a prompt referral for further evaluation.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the client's age and context in the scenario.
The client is a 6-month-old infant at a well-child visit.
Developmental milestones are strictly age-dependent and must be evaluated against the infant's specific age.
2
Evaluate each assessment finding against normal 6-month developmental milestones.
Doubling birth weight, transferring objects hand-to-hand, and stranger anxiety are normal at 6 months. Head lag is an abnormal finding at this age.
Distinguishing normal anticipatory guidance from pathological delays is critical in pediatric nursing to ensure early intervention.
3
Identify the finding that represents a developmental red flag.
Pronounced head lag at 6 months is selected because head control should be well established by 4 months.
Missing early signs of neurological or motor impairment can delay crucial referrals and therapeutic interventions.

Key Concept

By 4 months of age, an infant should have established head control. The presence of a head lag at 6 months is a developmental red flag that requires further neurological and motor evaluation.
Question 2791Question →

A 68-year-old client with severe osteoarthritis arrives on the orthopedic unit after undergoing a right total hip arthroplasty using a posterior surgical approach. The client is drowsy but responsive, with stable vital signs. Which action must the nurse prioritize to prevent dislocation of the new joint prosthesis?

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Answer: Place an abductor wedge pillow between the client's legs while the client is supine.

Answer

The nurse must prioritize placing an abductor wedge pillow between the client's legs while the client is supine.
Placing an abductor wedge pillow between the legs is essential because it actively prevents adduction of the operative hip across the body's midline. Following a posterior approach total hip arthroplasty, avoiding adduction, internal rotation, and extreme flexion (greater than 90 degrees) is critical to reduce the risk of the prosthesis dislocating from the newly formed acetabulum.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the surgical procedure and its specific postoperative risks.
The client had a total hip arthroplasty via a posterior approach, which carries a high risk of joint dislocation if proper alignment is not maintained.
Understanding the surgical approach determines which specific movements are contraindicated in the postoperative period.
2
Recall the standard posterior hip precautions used to reduce the risk of dislocation.
The client must avoid hip flexion greater than 90 degrees, adduction of the leg across the body's midline, and internal rotation of the hip.
These specific movements place excessive mechanical stress on the posterior capsule, potentially forcing the femoral head out of the acetabulum.
3
Evaluate the given interventions against these strict precautions.
Placing an abductor wedge actively prevents adduction. The other options violate positional precautions or represent an unsafe delegation of initial mobility.
Selecting the intervention that directly aligns with established hip precautions actively reduces the physiological risk of joint dislocation.

Key Concept

Reduction of Risk Potential: Posterior Hip Precautions
Question 2792Question →

A clinic nurse is assessing a 45-year-old client who brings in their 78-year-old parent with moderate Alzheimer's disease for a routine check-up. The client, who also has two teenagers at home, appears exhausted and tearful. The client states, 'I feel like I am failing everyone. I snap at my kids, and I lose my patience with my parent constantly.' Which of the following is the most appropriate initial action by the nurse?

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Answer: Validate the client's feelings of being overwhelmed and explore their current support network.

Answer

The most appropriate initial action is to validate the client's feelings of being overwhelmed and explore their current support network.
The correct answer prioritizes the immediate psychological needs of the caregiver. The client is experiencing caregiver role strain from managing the demands of an aging parent with Alzheimer's disease and teenage children (often referred to as the 'sandwich generation'). By validating the client's feelings and exploring their support network, the nurse uses therapeutic communication to establish trust and assess safety. Unmanaged caregiver burnout can compromise the safety and well-being of the entire family system.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the primary issue presented in the scenario.
The client is exhibiting clear signs of caregiver role strain and burnout, compounded by being in the 'sandwich generation' (caring for both children and an aging parent).
Recognizing the core problem determines the priority of care.
2
Evaluate the nursing priorities.
The immediate priority is to address the caregiver's psychosocial distress to prevent a crisis, which could lead to neglect or abuse.
Caregivers in acute distress cannot safely provide care until their own emotional and psychological needs are addressed.
3
Select the most therapeutic nursing intervention.
Validating the caregiver's feelings and assessing their support system is the most therapeutic and necessary initial step.
Therapeutic communication builds trust, while assessing the support network provides a foundation for long-term coping strategies.

Key Concept

Caregiver Role Strain and Family Dynamics
Question 2793Question →

A nurse at a student health center is caring for a young adult client who ingested a hallucinogenic substance and is experiencing acute panic, paranoia, and severe psychomotor agitation. Arrange the following nursing interventions in the most appropriate order of priority to safely manage and de-escalate the situation.

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Answer

The correct sequence is: secure the environment, decrease stimuli, establish verbal contact, assess vital signs, and finally administer medication if needed.
In any behavioral crisis or acute intoxication scenario, the nurse must follow the framework of 'safety first', followed by prioritizing the least restrictive interventions. Securing the environment protects everyone involved. Reducing stimuli directly addresses the sensory overload causing the panic. Verbal reassurance is the next least restrictive de-escalation tool. Once the client is behaviorally calm enough to approach safely, vital signs are assessed to rule out life-threatening physiological toxicity. Finally, chemical interventions like benzodiazepines are the most restrictive option and are reserved for when all other de-escalation attempts are ineffective.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Prioritize physical safety.
Hazardous objects are removed and exit paths are cleared.
Safety is the foundational step in any psychiatric or intoxication crisis before any other intervention can occur.
2
Implement the least restrictive environmental interventions.
The client is placed in a low-stimulus environment.
Hallucinogens cause sensory overload; minimizing stimuli directly addresses the root cause of the agitation.
3
Attempt non-pharmacological behavioral de-escalation.
The nurse provides calm, verbal reassurance.
Therapeutic communication helps ground the paranoid client without requiring physical contact.
4
Perform physical assessment.
Vital signs are obtained.
Physiological assessment is crucial to rule out life-threatening toxicity but must be delayed until the client is calm enough to approach safely.
5
Utilize restrictive pharmacological interventions as a last resort.
Benzodiazepines are administered.
Chemical restraints are only indicated when conservative safety measures and verbal de-escalation fail to manage severe agitation.

Key Concept

Crisis De-escalation and Prioritization in Acute Intoxication
Question 2794Question →

A client admitted to the medical-surgical unit is severely confused and continuously attempts to pull out a newly placed continuous bladder irrigation (CBI) catheter. After multiple alternative safety measures prove ineffective, the healthcare provider prescribes bilateral soft wrist restraints. Which action by the nurse regarding the management of these restraints is legally and clinically appropriate?

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Answer: Releasing one restraint at a time every 2 hours to perform passive range-of-motion exercises and evaluate the continued necessity of the intervention.

Answer

The legally and clinically appropriate action is to release one restraint at a time every 2 hours to perform passive range-of-motion exercises and evaluate the continued necessity of the intervention.
Removing restraints every 2 hours is a mandatory standard of care to prevent neuromuscular damage, skin breakdown, and to evaluate if the client still meets the criteria for restraint use. Releasing them one at a time is a critical safety strategy when a client is actively attempting to pull at life-sustaining or necessary medical equipment, as it maintains partial control while allowing necessary care.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the legal and facility protocol requirements for the application of physical medical restraints.
Medical restraints require a specific, time-limited provider order (never PRN), attachment to a movable part of the bed using quick-release knots, and strict ongoing monitoring.
Ensuring legal compliance and patient safety prevents severe injury and respects the client's legal rights.
2
Evaluate the delegation boundaries associated with restraint management.
Basic care (hygiene, feeding) can be delegated to a UAP, but clinical assessments (circulation, skin integrity, continued need) cannot be delegated.
The RN retains accountability for all nursing judgments and assessments.
3
Determine the safest method for performing the required 2-hour restraint care.
Releasing one restraint at a time allows the nurse to assess the limb while preventing the client from using two free hands to dislodge the continuous bladder irrigation catheter.
This balances the physiological need for circulation and skin checks with the immediate safety need to protect the medical device.

Key Concept

Safe Use of Restraints and Safety Devices
Question 2795Question →

A nurse is evaluating a newly hired colleague who is preparing to administer an intravenous (IV) push medication into a client's existing primary IV line. Which actions by the newly hired colleague demonstrate safe parenteral medication administration? (Select all that apply.)

Select all that apply

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Answer: Consulting a drug reference guide to confirm the medication can safely mix with the primary IV fluid; Flushing the injection port with a compatible solution immediately before and after the medication is given; Using a timepiece to carefully monitor the rate of administration according to manufacturer guidelines

Answer

The correct actions include consulting a drug reference guide to confirm compatibility, flushing the injection port with a compatible solution before and after administration, and using a timepiece to monitor the rate of administration.
Safe administration of intravenous push medications requires verifying chemical compatibility with a reliable reference, flushing the line to ensure the medication clears the tubing and does not mix with incompatible fluids, and timing the injection accurately to prevent systemic adverse reactions.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the core requirements for safe intravenous push (IVP) medication administration.
Safe IVP requires compatibility verification, appropriate line flushing, and precise rate control.
Direct injection delivers medication immediately into the bloodstream, requiring strict adherence to safety protocols to prevent adverse reactions.
2
Evaluate each proposed action against evidence-based parenteral therapy standards.
Using a drug reference, flushing the line, and timing the push are correct safe practices. Relying on visual checks for compatibility and pushing the medication quickly are unsafe practices.
Visible clarity does not rule out chemical incompatibility, and rapid administration can cause speed shock.

Key Concept

Safe administration of intravenous push medications
Question 2796Question →

A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving intravenous fluid therapy via a subclavian central venous catheter. The nurse enters the room and observes that the intravenous tubing has disconnected from the catheter hub. The client is suddenly grasping their chest, gasping for air, and appears cyanotic. Arrange the following nursing interventions in the priority sequence they should be performed, from first to last.

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Answer

The correct sequence is to first clamp the catheter, then place the client in a left lateral Trendelenburg position, administer high-flow oxygen, activate the rapid response team, and finally assess vital signs and heart sounds.
The correct priority sequence adheres to the principles of basic life support and emergency source control. When an air embolism occurs, the immediate priority is to stop further air from entering by clamping the line. The second immediate priority is positional (Durant's maneuver) to prevent the air already in the system from blocking pulmonary circulation. Once the immediate mechanical threats are mitigated, the nurse supports oxygenation, calls for advanced help, and then performs a comprehensive assessment.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Clamp the central venous catheter immediately.
Stops further atmospheric air from entering the circulatory system.
Source control is the absolute highest priority in an emergency to prevent the condition from rapidly worsening. Even a few seconds of delay can allow a fatal amount of air to enter.
2
Place the client in a left lateral Trendelenburg position.
Traps the air bubble in the apex of the right ventricle.
This specific anatomical position (Durant's maneuver) prevents the air from migrating into the pulmonary artery, avoiding a deadly right ventricular outflow tract obstruction.
3
Administer 100% supplemental oxygen via a nonrebreather mask.
Increases blood oxygenation and helps shrink the air embolus.
High-flow oxygen treats the resulting hypoxemia and creates a nitrogen concentration gradient that promotes the rapid resorption of the air bubble into the blood.
4
Activate the rapid response team and notify the healthcare provider.
Summons advanced medical support and resources.
Once immediate independent stabilizing interventions have been performed, the nurse must obtain help for further medical management, such as potential aspiration of the air from the central line.
5
Obtain a complete set of vital signs and auscultate heart sounds.
Establishes a post-intervention hemodynamic baseline and identifies clinical signs.
After securing the airway, breathing, circulation, and calling for help, the nurse assesses the client's current status, listening for a classic 'mill wheel' murmur that confirms air in the heart.

Key Concept

Prioritization of care during a suspected central line air embolism.
Question 2797Question →

A 31-week gestation client is admitted with preterm prelabor rupture of membranes (PPROM). The client is receiving a continuous intravenous infusion of magnesium sulfate for fetal neuroprotection, intravenous prophylactic ampicillin, and has recently received the first dose of intramuscular betamethasone. During the current assessment, the nurse notes the following findings: Maternal temperature is 38.3°C (100.9°F), blood pressure is 110/68 mmHg, heart rate is 118 bpm, and deep tendon reflexes are 1+. The fetal heart rate tracing reveals a baseline of 175 bpm with minimal variability and occasional early decelerations. The client reports new-onset diffuse abdominal tenderness. Based on these findings, which of the following is the priority nursing action?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Notify the healthcare provider immediately of the assessment findings and anticipate the need for prompt delivery.

Answer

Notify the healthcare provider immediately of the assessment findings and anticipate the need for prompt delivery.
The client's presentation of maternal fever, maternal and fetal tachycardia, and diffuse abdominal tenderness in the setting of PPROM are classic clinical manifestations of chorioamnionitis. Chorioamnionitis is a life-threatening intra-amniotic infection. Despite the preterm gestation (31 weeks) and the ongoing administration of neuroprotective magnesium sulfate, the definitive treatment for chorioamnionitis is immediate delivery. The nurse must immediately notify the healthcare provider so that prompt delivery and broad-spectrum antibiotic therapy can be initiated to prevent maternal sepsis and severe neonatal complications.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the maternal assessment findings.
The client presents with a fever of 38.3°C (100.9°F), tachycardia at 118 bpm, and new-onset diffuse abdominal tenderness.
Identifying abnormal vital signs and localized pain is the crucial first step in recognizing maternal systemic infection.
2
Analyze the fetal heart rate (FHR) tracing in the context of the administered medications.
The FHR shows tachycardia (175 bpm), minimal variability, and early decelerations. The client is receiving magnesium sulfate and betamethasone.
Magnesium sulfate and betamethasone decrease FHR variability, and early decelerations are benign. However, the baseline fetal tachycardia (>160 bpm) is pathological and a classic early sign of maternal infection.
3
Synthesize the findings to identify the underlying complication.
The combination of PPROM, maternal fever, maternal/fetal tachycardia, and abdominal tenderness strongly indicates the development of chorioamnionitis.
Chorioamnionitis is a severe, life-threatening intra-amniotic infection that frequently complicates PPROM.
4
Determine the priority nursing intervention based on the diagnosis.
The priority is to immediately notify the healthcare provider, as chorioamnionitis necessitates prompt delivery regardless of the preterm gestational age.
Delivery is the definitive treatment for chorioamnionitis to prevent overwhelming maternal sepsis and severe neonatal morbidity.

Key Concept

Chorioamnionitis in PPROM requires immediate provider notification and prompt delivery, overriding interventions for preterm labor management.
Estimated Time:2m 0s
Question 2798Question →

A client receiving continuous enteral nutrition via a nasogastric (NG) tube has just returned to the medical-surgical unit following a diagnostic lumbar puncture. The healthcare provider has prescribed strict flat bed rest for 6 hours to minimize the risk of a post-dural puncture headache. Which nursing action safely integrates the client's continuous nutritional requirements with the prescribed post-procedure positioning?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Adjust the entire bed frame into a reverse Trendelenburg position while continuing the feeding.

Answer

Adjust the entire bed frame into a reverse Trendelenburg position while continuing the feeding.
The client has competing physiologic needs: maintaining a flat spinal alignment to prevent cerebrospinal fluid leakage post-lumbar puncture, while simultaneously requiring head elevation to prevent pulmonary aspiration of continuous enteral feedings. The reverse Trendelenburg position tilts the entire bed frame so the head is elevated relative to the feet without bending the spinal column. This brilliantly satisfies the requirement for a flat anatomical alignment while safely utilizing gravity to prevent reflux and aspiration.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the competing physiological safety requirements for the client.
The client requires a flat spinal alignment to prevent cerebrospinal fluid leakage (lumbar puncture protocol) and concurrent head elevation to prevent aspiration (continuous NG feeding protocol).
Recognizing contradictory standard protocols is essential before implementing basic care interventions.
2
Evaluate standard positioning interventions against both clinical constraints.
Articulating the head of the bed bends the spine, violating the post-lumbar puncture protocol. Lying completely horizontal causes a severe reflux risk, violating the enteral feeding protocol.
Standard single-condition interventions become unsafe when multiple complex physiologic constraints overlap.
3
Select the specialized positioning intervention that simultaneously satisfies all safety constraints.
The reverse Trendelenburg position is implemented, which tilts the entire bed plane.
This elevates the head relative to the stomach to utilize gravity against reflux, while keeping the entire spinal column in a straight, non-articulated alignment.

Key Concept

Safe positioning integration for continuous enteral nutrition and strict spinal precautions.
Question 2799Question →

A client on a medical-surgical unit has a hemoglobin level of 6.8 g/dL (68 g/L) and is prescribed a transfusion of packed red blood cells (PRBCs). The client has a single 20-gauge peripheral intravenous (IV) catheter, which is currently infusing a continuous maintenance fluid of 5% dextrose in water (D5W) at 75 mL/hr. What is the most appropriate action by the nurse?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Stop the continuous D5W infusion, flush the IV catheter with 0.9% sodium chloride, and initiate the blood transfusion.

Answer

The nurse must stop the D5W infusion, flush the line with 0.9% sodium chloride, and then administer the PRBCs.
Blood products can only be safely infused with 0.9% sodium chloride (normal saline). Solutions containing dextrose (like D5W) or lactated Ringer's will cause red blood cells to hemolyze or clot. When a client only has one adequate IV site (a 20-gauge is appropriate for blood), the nurse must stop the incompatible continuous fluid, clear the catheter completely with a normal saline flush, and then initiate the transfusion.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the compatibility of the prescribed blood product with the current continuous IV fluid.
Packed red blood cells (PRBCs) are incompatible with 5% dextrose in water (D5W).
Dextrose solutions cause red blood cell hemolysis and clumping.
2
Determine the adequacy of the current IV access for the prescribed therapy.
A 20-gauge peripheral IV catheter is adequate for PRBC administration in an adult.
18- to 20-gauge catheters provide sufficient lumen size to prevent mechanical damage to the red blood cells during infusion.
3
Formulate a safe administration plan utilizing the single IV access.
The nurse will stop the D5W, flush the line with 0.9% sodium chloride (normal saline) to clear the dextrose, and then connect the blood administration set.
Normal saline is the only IV fluid compatible with blood products. Flushing the line ensures no incompatible fluid comes into contact with the PRBCs.

Key Concept

Blood products must only be administered with 0.9% sodium chloride to prevent hemolysis, and a 20-gauge IV is sufficient for administration.
Question 2800Question →

A nurse is caring for a client with acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) who is intubated and receiving mechanical ventilation. The ventilator settings include a positive end-expiratory pressure (PEEP) of 15 cm H2OH_2O. The most recent arterial blood gas (ABG) analysis indicates a pH of 7.297.29, PaCO2PaCO_2 of 5454 mm Hg, HCO3−HCO_3^- of 2525 mEq/L, and PaO2PaO_2 of 6262 mm Hg. Over the last 1010 minutes, the client's blood pressure drops rapidly from 115/72115/72 mm Hg to 82/4882/48 mm Hg, and the heart rate increases from 9595 to 132132 bpm. Which action should the nurse implement first to reduce the client's risk of imminent physiological collapse?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Auscultate bilateral lung sounds and evaluate chest excursion to assess for a suspected tension pneumothorax.

Answer

The nurse must first auscultate bilateral lung sounds and evaluate chest excursion to determine if the client has developed a tension pneumothorax.
The correct action prioritizes focused physical assessment to identify a life-threatening complication of high PEEP. Clients with ARDS requiring high levels of PEEP are at extreme risk for barotrauma, such as a tension pneumothorax. The sudden onset of profound hypotension and tachycardia strongly suggests this complication, as the trapped air increases intrathoracic pressure and severely impairs venous return to the heart. Auscultating for absent or diminished breath sounds is the critical first step to confirm this diagnosis before preparing for emergency needle decompression.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the arterial blood gas (ABG) values.
The low pH (7.297.29) combined with an elevated PaCO2PaCO_2 (5454 mm Hg) and a normal HCO3−HCO_3^- (2525 mEq/L) indicates uncompensated respiratory acidosis.
Establishing the baseline acid-base status prevents inappropriate treatments for metabolic imbalances.
2
Evaluate the sudden change in the client's hemodynamic status.
The client has developed acute hypotension (82/4882/48 mm Hg) and significant tachycardia (132132 bpm).
Sudden hemodynamic instability in an intubated client signals severely decreased cardiac output, requiring immediate investigation of the root cause.
3
Correlate the mechanical ventilation settings with the new assessment findings.
The use of high PEEP (15 cm H2OH_2O) places the client at an extreme risk for barotrauma, specifically alveolar rupture leading to a tension pneumothorax.
A tension pneumothorax traps air in the pleural space, severely increasing intrathoracic pressure, which compresses the vena cava, restricts venous return, and causes rapid circulatory collapse.
4
Determine the safest priority nursing intervention.
Physical assessment of the lungs (auscultation and observation of chest excursion) is selected as the immediate first step.
Confirming the presence of absent or diminished breath sounds on one side is clinically required before preparing the client for an emergency needle decompression or chest tube insertion.

Key Concept

Complications of Mechanical Ventilation: Barotrauma and Hemodynamic Compromise
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