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Question 3201Question →

A nurse is educating a client who is 24 hours postpartum about the expected progression of vaginal discharge. Arrange the types of lochia in the chronological order they occur, from immediately after delivery to the final stage of healing.

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Answer

The correct sequence of postpartum vaginal discharge is Lochia rubra, followed by Lochia serosa, and finally Lochia alba.
Following delivery, the uterus sheds its lining resulting in vaginal discharge known as lochia. The correct chronological sequence reflects the normal healing of the placental site: rubra (dark red, days 1-3), serosa (pink/brown, days 4-10), and alba (yellow/white, day 10 up to 6 weeks).

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the immediate postpartum period (days 1-3).
Lochia rubra is the first discharge.
Fresh bleeding from the placental site is initially dark or bright red.
2
Identify the intermediate postpartum period (days 4-10).
Lochia serosa is the second discharge.
As active bleeding slows, the discharge transitions to a pinkish-brown color, containing old blood and serum.
3
Identify the late postpartum period (day 10 to 6 weeks).
Lochia alba is the final discharge.
The placental site continues to heal, producing a yellowish-white discharge composed of white blood cells and healing tissue.

Key Concept

Postpartum physiological adaptations: Progression of Lochia
Estimated Time:45s
Question 3202Question →

The nurse is preparing to safely transfer a client with right-sided hemiparesis from the bed to a wheelchair. In which order should the nurse perform the following actions? (Arrange the steps in the correct sequence from first to last.)

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Answer

The correct sequence prioritizes safe environmental setup (placing the chair on the strong side and locking brakes), patient preparation (sitting the client up and applying the transfer belt), and safe physical execution (pivoting on the strong leg and reaching for armrests).
A safe transfer sequence must follow a logical progression that maximizes client safety, utilizes their functional abilities, and minimizes nursing injury. The environment must be prepared first by placing the wheelchair on the unaffected (left) side and locking all brakes. Once the environment is secure, the client is assisted to a seated position to stabilize hemodynamics before the transfer belt is applied. Finally, the physical transfer is executed by having the client bear weight on their strong leg, pivot, and secure themselves using the armrests before sitting.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Position the wheelchair on the unaffected side.
The wheelchair is placed on the client's left side at a 45-degree angle.
Transferring toward the strong side ensures the client can support their own weight during the pivot.
2
Secure the equipment.
The bed and wheelchair brakes are locked.
Locking all wheels is a mandatory safety measure to prevent the equipment from rolling away.
3
Mobilize the client to a seated position.
The client sits on the edge of the bed with feet flat on the floor.
Sitting and dangling allows the cardiovascular system to adapt, preventing dizziness upon standing.
4
Apply the transfer belt.
The transfer belt is fastened snugly around the client's waist.
Applying the belt while the client is seated upright ensures a proper fit and provides a safe point of contact for the nurse.
5
Execute the standing pivot.
The client bears weight on the left leg and pivots toward the chair.
The strong leg acts as the pivot point, compensating for the right-sided weakness.
6
Lower the client into the wheelchair.
The client reaches for the armrests and sits down securely.
Feeling the armrests behind them ensures spatial awareness and prevents the client from missing the seat.

Key Concept

Safe Client Transfer Techniques and Mobility Assistance
Question 3203Question →

A critical care nurse is preparing to transport a hemodynamically unstable client to the radiology department for an urgent diagnostic scan. The client is intubated, receiving mechanical ventilation, and requires a continuous intravenous infusion of norepinephrine. To prevent adverse events and ensure client safety during transport, which action is appropriate for the nurse to implement?

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Answer: Verify that a portable transport ventilator with sufficient oxygen is secured and attach a continuous cardiac and blood pressure monitor visible to the team.

Answer

Verify that a portable transport ventilator with sufficient oxygen is secured and attach a continuous cardiac and blood pressure monitor visible to the team.
Intra-hospital transport of a critically ill, mechanically ventilated client is a high-risk event that requires meticulous preparation to prevent life-threatening accidents. The standard of care mandates that the client remains continuously connected to a secure oxygen source via a transport ventilator. Furthermore, because the client is hemodynamically unstable and receiving vasoactive medications, the nurse must maintain constant visibility of the continuous cardiac and blood pressure monitor to immediately detect and intervene in the event of physiological deterioration.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the client's clinical acuity and vulnerabilities.
The client is airway-dependent (intubated) and hemodynamically unstable (requiring continuous norepinephrine).
Identifying the client's life-sustaining requirements dictates the level of monitoring and personnel needed during movement.
2
Identify the inherent risks of intra-hospital transport.
Transporting critically ill clients poses high risks for accidental extubation, equipment failure, and sudden hemodynamic collapse.
Anticipating these hazards allows the nurse to proactively implement targeted safety protocols.
3
Evaluate the proposed interventions against safety standards.
Interrupting pressors, delegating to non-nursing staff, or applying contraindicated positioning all increase the risk of severe injury or death.
Only continuous, visible physiological monitoring combined with a secure airway and oxygen supply mitigates the specific threats associated with this high-risk transport.

Key Concept

Safe Intra-hospital Transport of Critically Ill Clients
Question 3204Question →

A client who has difficulty swallowing is receiving a continuous enteral feeding via a nasogastric tube. Which actions are appropriate to include in the client's plan of care to maintain safety and comfort? (Select all that apply)

Select all that apply

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Answer: Keep the head of the bed elevated to at least a 30-degree angle.; Clean the oral cavity and teeth with a soft-bristled brush every four hours.; Inspect the skin around the nares for redness or tissue breakdown each shift.

Answer

The correct actions include elevating the head of the bed to at least 30 degrees, providing frequent oral hygiene, and inspecting the nares for skin breakdown.
Clients receiving continuous enteral feedings are at high risk for aspiration. Keeping the head of the bed elevated to at least 30 degrees uses gravity to prevent the reflux of gastric contents. Frequent oral hygiene is necessary to keep mucous membranes moist, promote comfort, and prevent infection, as these clients often mouth-breathe and lack oral fluid intake. Routine inspection of the nares is essential to detect and prevent pressure injuries caused by the friction and continuous presence of the tube.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the physiological risks associated with continuous nasogastric enteral feeding.
The primary risks include pulmonary aspiration of formula, pressure injuries at the tube insertion site, and impaired oral mucous membranes due to lack of oral intake.
Understanding the baseline risks guides the selection of appropriate basic care and comfort interventions.
2
Evaluate each provided option against evidence-based nursing practices for enteral nutrition.
Elevating the head of the bed, performing routine oral care, and monitoring the nares are standard practices that mitigate the identified risks.
These interventions directly promote comfort and prevent life-threatening complications like aspiration pneumonia.
3
Identify the contraindicated or inappropriate actions among the options.
Laying the client flat during a feeding, delegating assessments to a technician, and using the air-injection method are all unsafe or incorrect practices.
Recognizing improper delegation, outdated assessment techniques, and dangerous positioning is crucial for safe client care.

Key Concept

Basic Care and Comfort during Enteral Nutrition
Question 3205Question →

An intensive care nurse is initiating a heparin protocol for a client weighing 80 kg80 \text{ kg} who was recently diagnosed with a pulmonary embolism. The medical prescription indicates a continuous intravenous infusion at 18 units/kg/hr18 \text{ units/kg/hr}. The pharmacy delivers a premixed bag labeled 'Heparin sodium 25,000 units25,000 \text{ units} in 500 mL500 \text{ mL} of 0.45% NaCl0.45\% \text{ NaCl}'. Based on these parameters, how many mL/hr\text{mL/hr} will the infusion pump be programmed to deliver? (Round the final answer to the nearest tenth.)

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Answer: 28.828.8

Answer

The infusion pump should be programmed to deliver 28.8 mL/hr28.8 \text{ mL/hr}.
The correct rate is 28.828.8 because the client requires 1440 units/hr1440 \text{ units/hr} (80 kg×18 units/kg/hr80 \text{ kg} \times 18 \text{ units/kg/hr}), and the available concentration is 50 units/mL50 \text{ units/mL} (25,000 units÷500 mL25,000 \text{ units} \div 500 \text{ mL}). Dividing the required dose by the available concentration (1440÷501440 \div 50) yields exactly 28.8 mL/hr28.8 \text{ mL/hr}.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Calculate the total hourly heparin dose required based on the client's weight.
80 kg×18 units/kg/hr=1440 units/hr80 \text{ kg} \times 18 \text{ units/kg/hr} = 1440 \text{ units/hr}
The prescription is weight-based, so the initial step is to determine the absolute number of units needed per hour.
2
Determine the concentration of the available heparin solution.
25,000 units÷500 mL=50 units/mL25,000 \text{ units} \div 500 \text{ mL} = 50 \text{ units/mL}
To calculate the volume to be infused, the amount of medication in each milliliter of the provided bag must be known.
3
Calculate the required infusion rate in mL/hr.
1440 units/hr÷50 units/mL=28.8 mL/hr1440 \text{ units/hr} \div 50 \text{ units/mL} = 28.8 \text{ mL/hr}
Dividing the desired hourly dose by the concentration yields the exact volume to administer per hour.

Key Concept

Weight-based continuous intravenous medication calculation
Question 3206Question →

Match each clinical presentation to the most appropriate transmission-based or standard precaution category required for the client's care.

Click a left item, then click its matching right item

Items

A 6-year-old client presenting with a maculopapular rash and diagnosed with rubella (German measles).
A 10-year-old client presenting with Koplik spots and diagnosed with rubeola (measles).
A 45-year-old client admitted for treatment of a severe scabies infestation.
A 28-year-old client diagnosed with Lyme disease after a recent camping trip.

Matches

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Answer

Rubella requires Droplet Precautions; Rubeola requires Airborne Precautions; Scabies requires Contact Precautions; Lyme disease requires Standard Precautions.
The appropriate isolation category is determined by the specific pathogen's mode of transmission. Rubella spreads via large respiratory droplets (Droplet precautions). Rubeola spreads via small, aerosolized droplet nuclei that remain suspended in the air (Airborne precautions). Scabies is an infestation spread by direct skin-to-skin contact (Contact precautions). Lyme disease is transmitted by ticks and is not contagious from person to person (Standard precautions).

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the transmission route of rubella.
Identified as droplet transmission.
Determines the need for a surgical mask and private room.
2
Analyze the transmission route of rubeola.
Identified as airborne transmission.
Determines the need for a negative-pressure room and an N95 respirator.
3
Analyze the transmission route of scabies.
Identified as direct contact transmission.
Determines the need for a gown and gloves.
4
Analyze the transmission route of Lyme disease.
Identified as a vector-borne illness (tick bite) that is not transmitted person-to-person.
Determines that Standard precautions are sufficient for routine care.

Key Concept

Transmission-Based Precautions for Specific Pathogens
Question 3207Question →

An adult client who has severe osteoarthritis of the left knee is receiving education from the nurse on how to navigate a staircase at home using a standard single-point cane. Which statement by the client demonstrates a correct understanding of ascending the stairs?

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Answer: I should step up with my right leg first, and then bring the cane and my left leg up to the step.

Answer

The correct statement is that the client will step up with the right leg first, followed by the cane and the left leg.
When a client is using a cane to ascend a staircase, the mnemonic 'up with the good' applies. The client must step up with the strong or unaffected extremity (the right leg) first. The strong leg is capable of bearing the full body weight necessary to lift the person up to the next level. After the body is supported on the higher step, the cane and the affected extremity (the left leg) are brought up simultaneously. This technique maintains optimal balance and protects the arthritic knee from excessive strain.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the client's affected and unaffected sides based on the clinical presentation.
The left knee has severe osteoarthritis (affected/weak side), making the right leg the unaffected/strong side.
Determining limb strength is essential for applying correct mobility principles with assistive devices.
2
Recall the physiological principles for safely navigating stairs with an assistive device.
The standard clinical rule is 'up with the good, down with the bad.' The strong leg must always lead when ascending to bear the workload of lifting the body against gravity.
Leading with the strong leg ensures safety, prevents falls, and avoids overloading the damaged joint.
3
Determine the proper sequence for advancing the cane.
The cane provides support for the weak leg, so it must always move concurrently with the affected leg.
Moving the cane alongside the weak leg widens the base of support exactly when the weak leg is in motion or bearing partial weight.
4
Combine the clinical rules to evaluate the client's statements.
The correct sequence for going up is: right leg (strong) steps up first, then the left leg (weak) and the cane follow together.
This confirms the statement describing the right leg moving first is the only correct understanding of the procedure.

Key Concept

Mobility Assistive Devices: Stair Navigation
Question 3208Question →

A nurse is implementing safety protocols on a telemetry unit. Which nursing action correctly demonstrates the principles of accident, error, and injury prevention?

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Answer: Requesting a second registered nurse to independently verify the pump settings before changing the rate of a continuous intravenous heparin infusion.

Answer

Requesting a second registered nurse to independently verify the pump settings before changing the rate of a continuous intravenous heparin infusion.
High-alert medications, such as continuous intravenous heparin, carry a significant risk of causing catastrophic client harm if administered incorrectly. To prevent medication errors, safety protocols mandate an independent double-check by a second registered nurse before initiating or modifying the infusion.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Evaluate each nursing action against national patient safety standards and error prevention protocols.
Identify which action mitigates risk effectively without violating scope of practice, prioritization rules, or restraint guidelines.
Accident and error prevention requires strict adherence to established safety guidelines.
2
Analyze the action involving high-alert medications (heparin).
Recognize that heparin has a narrow therapeutic index and carries a high risk for severe injury if miscalculated.
An independent double-check is a mandatory evidence-based practice to prevent medication errors with high-alert drugs.
3
Identify the safety violations in the remaining options.
The other options demonstrate skipping required restraint alternatives, inappropriate delegation of an initial assessment, and ignoring an acute airway/breathing/circulation (ABC) priority.
Eliminating unsafe practices confirms the correct application of error prevention.

Key Concept

High-Alert Medication Safety and Error Mitigation
Question 3209Question →

A nurse is preparing to administer an intermittent intravenous (IV) antibiotic via a secondary line (piggyback) to a client who is currently receiving a continuous primary IV fluid infusion. Arrange the following steps for setting up and initiating the secondary infusion in the correct chronological order.

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Answer

The correct procedural sequence is: 1) Close the roller clamp on the secondary tubing, 2) Spike the secondary medication bag, 3) Prime the secondary tubing, 4) Scrub the uppermost Y-site port on the primary line, and 5) Attach the tubing and lower the primary fluid bag.
Safe initiation of an IV piggyback requires preparing the equipment before breaking into the patient's existing line. The nurse must first secure the clamp to prevent fluid loss, spike the bag, and prime the air from the line. Once the secondary set is fully prepared, the nurse cleanses the patient's primary line to maintain sterility, connects the secondary line, and manipulates the physical height of the bags to ensure the medication infuses correctly via gravity.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Close the roller clamp on the secondary tubing.
The tubing is occluded.
Prevents the premature loss of medication when the bag is punctured.
2
Spike the secondary medication bag.
The bag is connected to the administration set.
Establishes a closed pathway for the medication.
3
Prime the secondary tubing with the medication.
Air is removed from the tubing.
Prevents air embolisms from entering the client's vascular system.
4
Cleanse the primary line's uppermost Y-site port.
The access point is sterilized.
Maintains strict asepsis before breaching the primary closed IV system.
5
Connect the lines and lower the primary IV bag using a hanger.
The secondary system is fully integrated.
Lowering the primary bag utilizes gravity, ensuring the higher secondary bag infuses first.

Key Concept

Safe administration and procedural sequencing of secondary intravenous (IV piggyback) medications.
Question 3210Question →

A nurse is reviewing prescriptions for a client admitted with muscle weakness and a serum potassium level of 2.4 mEq/L. The healthcare provider has prescribed 40 mEq of intravenous potassium chloride (KCl) in 100 mL of 0.9% sodium chloride to be infused over 1 hour. The client currently has a 22-gauge peripheral intravenous (IV) catheter in the right forearm. Which action should the nurse take first?

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Answer: Withhold the medication and contact the healthcare provider to clarify the unsafe infusion rate and route.

Answer

Withhold the medication and contact the healthcare provider to clarify the unsafe infusion rate and route.
The correct action is to withhold the medication and contact the provider. Intravenous potassium chloride is a high-alert medication. The maximum safe infusion rate for a peripheral IV is typically 10 mEq/hr, and the maximum concentration is usually 10 mEq per 100 mL to prevent severe vein irritation and phlebitis. An infusion of 40 mEq over 1 hour via a peripheral line is highly dangerous and places the client at immediate risk for fatal cardiac arrhythmias and severe vascular damage.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the prescribed medication order against safe administration guidelines for intravenous potassium chloride.
The order is 40 mEq over 1 hour via a peripheral IV.
Intravenous potassium is a high-alert medication that can cause fatal arrhythmias if administered too rapidly.
2
Evaluate the prescribed route and concentration against maximum limits.
The concentration is 40 mEq in 100 mL, and the route is a 22-gauge peripheral line.
Peripheral administration of potassium should generally not exceed 10 mEq/hr, and concentrations higher than 10 mEq/100 mL can cause severe chemical phlebitis.
3
Determine the priority nursing intervention.
The nurse must refuse to administer the unsafe order and contact the provider for a safer prescription.
Patient safety and advocacy require the nurse to challenge unsafe prescriptions before harm occurs.

Key Concept

Safe Administration of Intravenous Potassium Chloride
Question 3211Question →

During morning rounds on the orthopedic unit, a clinical team coordinates the daily care for a client who is on their third day of recovery following a right total hip arthroplasty (posterior approach). Which intervention demonstrates correct adherence to post-operative safety and comfort guidelines?

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Answer: Securing an abduction pillow between the client's lower extremities before turning them onto their left side for a back massage.

Answer

The correct intervention is securing an abduction pillow between the client's lower extremities before turning them onto their left side.
Following a posterior approach total hip arthroplasty, the client is at high risk for hip dislocation if the operative leg crosses the midline (adduction) or flexes excessively. Securing an abduction pillow between the legs prevents adduction and maintains proper anatomical alignment while the client is turned to the unoperated side for basic care measures, such as receiving a back massage or having linens changed.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the surgical procedure and its specific post-operative restrictions.
The client had a right total hip arthroplasty using a posterior approach, which requires strict avoidance of hip adduction, internal rotation, and hip flexion equal to or greater than 90 degrees.
Understanding surgical precautions is essential for preventing prosthetic dislocation during routine basic care.
2
Evaluate the safety of each positioning and delegation option against the identified restrictions.
A 90-degree bed angle risks excessive flexion; crossing ankles causes adduction; delegating a complex assessment to a UAP violates the nursing scope of practice.
All care team actions must adhere to both physiological safety limits and legal delegation boundaries.
3
Select the option that maintains proper anatomical alignment and safety.
Using an abduction pillow while turning the client safely prevents adduction and complies with positioning guidelines.
This is the only action that actively protects the integrity of the new hip joint while allowing for necessary hygiene and comfort care.

Key Concept

Post-Operative Positioning and Care for Total Hip Arthroplasty (Posterior Approach)
Question 3212Question →

A client is brought to the emergency department with severe amphetamine intoxication and develops acute psychosis. The client becomes physically violent, striking a nurse and attempting to throw medical equipment. After verbal de-escalation, environmental containment, and emergency pharmacological interventions fail to mitigate the imminent risk of harm, four-point physical restraints are applied. Which nursing action is mandatory for the safe management of this client?

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Answer: Assigning a trained staff member to maintain continuous, face-to-face observation of the client.

Answer

The mandatory action is assigning a trained staff member to maintain continuous, face-to-face observation of the client.
Clients placed in physical restraints for violent or self-destructive behavior require continuous, direct 1:1 face-to-face observation by a trained staff member. This is a critical regulatory standard designed to ensure the client's physical safety, monitor airway and circulation closely, and continuously assess for ongoing agitation or readiness for early release.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the client's situation and the specific indication for restraints.
The client is in four-point restraints due to violent, aggressive behavior (a behavioral/violent restraint indication), not for medical-surgical healing (such as preventing the pulling of tubes).
Regulatory standards distinguish heavily between non-violent (medical-surgical) restraints and violent (behavioral) restraints, applying much stricter monitoring and evaluation rules to the latter.
2
Evaluate the monitoring and assessment requirements specifically for violent behavioral restraints.
Violent restraints require continuous 1:1 face-to-face observation, frequent assessments (typically every 15 minutes), and a provider face-to-face evaluation within 1 hour.
This intensive level of monitoring prevents injury or asphyxiation, ensures airway patency, and allows staff to discontinue restraints at the earliest possible moment the client regains behavioral control.
3
Assess the distracting options against standard restraint safety and delegation guidelines.
Evaluating within 24 hours applies only to non-violent restraints. PRN orders are universally forbidden. Delegating clinical assessment violates the RN scope of practice.
Eliminating options based on absolute rules confirms the necessity and correctness of continuous observation.

Key Concept

Violent and Behavioral Restraint Management
Question 3213Question →

Emergency department personnel are managing a young adult client who is demonstrating extreme physical aggression and combative behavior secondary to illicit substance intoxication. Verbal de-escalation strategies, pharmacological interventions, and the presence of security personnel have failed to protect the milieu. The client actively attempts to strike staff members with medical equipment. A prescription for four-point locked behavioral restraints is obtained. Which of the following nursing actions are required when managing this client's safety? Select all that apply.

Select all that apply

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Answer: Ensure the prescribing healthcare provider conducts an in-person clinical evaluation within 60 minutes of initiation.; Assign trained personnel to maintain continuous, direct line-of-sight observation.; Document circulation, respiratory status, and behavioral changes at 15-minute intervals.

Answer

The correct actions include ensuring a provider evaluation within 60 minutes, maintaining continuous observation, and documenting status every 15 minutes.
Violent or behavioral restraints require strict adherence to safety protocols due to the high risk of injury and the severely restrictive nature of the intervention. A face-to-face evaluation by a prescribing healthcare provider is legally mandated within 60 minutes of application. Because the client poses an immediate threat to self or others, continuous 1:1 observation is required to immediately identify signs of distress. Additionally, the nurse must assess and document the client's physical status, including distal circulation, respiration, and behavioral changes, every 15 minutes to prevent life-threatening complications.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the client scenario to determine the specific indication for the safety devices.
The client is exhibiting extreme physical aggression and combative behavior, which classifies the intervention as a violent or behavioral restraint.
Regulatory standards differentiate between medical-surgical restraints (for pulling tubes) and behavioral restraints (for active violence), assigning stricter monitoring protocols to the latter.
2
Identify the mandatory regulatory requirements for managing behavioral restraints.
Behavioral restraints require a face-to-face provider evaluation within 1 hour, continuous direct observation, and 15-minute physiological and behavioral assessments.
These strict timeframes prevent severe complications, such as asphyxiation, cardiovascular collapse, or neurovascular damage, in highly agitated clients.
3
Evaluate the distractors for unsafe practices or improper delegation.
Attaching ties to side rails, delegating clinical assessment to unlicensed personnel, and releasing all devices simultaneously on a violent client are identified as critical safety errors.
Ensuring proper application, retaining RN accountability for assessment, and maintaining staff safety are paramount when caring for violent clients.

Key Concept

Management of Behavioral and Violent Restraints
Estimated Time:2m 0s
Question 3214Question →

A nurse is preparing to obtain routine vital signs on a 4-hour-old newborn who is currently resting quietly in the bassinet. To obtain the most accurate physiological baseline data, which assessment sequence should the nurse follow?

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Answer: Assess respirations visually, auscultate the apical heart rate, and then measure the axillary temperature.

Answer

The correct sequence is to first assess respirations visually, then auscultate the apical heart rate, and finally measure the axillary temperature.
In a resting newborn, the nurse must always proceed from the least invasive assessment to the most invasive. Observing respirations visually does not disturb the infant, yielding an accurate baseline. Auscultating the apical heart rate is slightly more stimulating, and measuring the axillary temperature is the most invasive step, which frequently causes crying. If the infant cries during the temperature check, the respiratory and heart rates will artificially increase, making them impossible to measure accurately afterward.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Evaluate the newborn's current state and the overarching goal of the assessment.
The newborn is resting quietly, meaning the current vital signs will reflect an accurate physiological baseline if the infant remains undisturbed.
Crying or agitation dramatically alters a newborn's respiratory pattern and elevates the heart rate.
2
Determine the level of invasiveness for each vital sign measurement.
Counting respirations is non-invasive (visual inspection). Auscultating the heart is slightly invasive (touching with a stethoscope). Taking an axillary temperature is the most invasive (handling and positioning the infant's arm).
Pediatric assessment principles dictate moving from the least invasive procedure to the most invasive to prevent unnecessary stimulation.
3
Establish the correct assessment sequence based on the invasiveness of the techniques.
The correct order is respirations first, heart rate second, and temperature last.
This sequence ensures that the most sensitive data (respiratory and cardiac rates) are collected before the infant is inevitably disturbed by the placement of the thermometer.

Key Concept

Newborn Physical Assessment Principles
Question 3215Question →

A nurse in the emergency department is caring for a client who is experiencing continuous tonic-clonic seizures. The healthcare provider prescribes intravenous phenytoin. The client currently has an ongoing peripheral intravenous infusion of 5% dextrose in water (D5W). Which of the following is the most appropriate action by the nurse?

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Answer: Stop the D5W infusion, flush the intravenous line with 0.9% sodium chloride, administer the phenytoin, and flush again with 0.9% sodium chloride.

Answer

The nurse must stop the D5W infusion, flush the line with 0.9% sodium chloride, administer the phenytoin, and flush again with 0.9% sodium chloride.
Phenytoin is chemically incompatible with dextrose solutions and will form a precipitate if they mix. To safely administer intravenous phenytoin through an existing line that contains 5% dextrose in water (D5W), the nurse must first stop the D5W infusion, flush the intravenous line thoroughly with a compatible solution (0.9% sodium chloride), administer the phenytoin, and then flush the line again with 0.9% sodium chloride before resuming the dextrose infusion. This practice clears the tubing of incompatible fluids, ensuring safe medication delivery and preventing line occlusion or embolism.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the primary medical emergency.
The client is experiencing continuous tonic-clonic seizures (status epilepticus).
Immediate pharmacological intervention is required to halt seizure activity and prevent brain damage.
2
Assess the prescribed medication and current intravenous access.
Intravenous phenytoin is prescribed, but the client is receiving a continuous infusion of 5% dextrose in water (D5W).
Medication compatibility must be verified before administration.
3
Determine compatibility and safe administration technique.
Phenytoin is chemically incompatible with dextrose and forms a precipitate.
To prevent precipitation, the dextrose infusion must be stopped, and the line must be flushed with 0.9% sodium chloride (a compatible solution) before and after the phenytoin administration.

Key Concept

Intravenous Phenytoin Administration and Fluid Compatibility
Question 3216Question →

A client is admitted to the intensive care unit with confirmed avian influenza (H5N1) and requires airborne, contact, and eye precautions. A staff nurse is preparing to enter the negative-pressure room to perform an assessment. In what order should the nurse apply the necessary personal protective equipment (PPE)? Arrange the actions in the correct sequence from first to last.

Drag items to arrange them in the correct order

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Answer

The correct sequence for donning personal protective equipment is: hand hygiene, isolation gown, N95 respirator, face shield or goggles, and finally gloves.
According to standard infection control protocols established by the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC), the sequence for donning PPE is strictly organized to ensure all barriers are properly placed and secured. Hand hygiene must always occur first. The gown is applied to protect the torso and arms. The respirator is applied next so its straps can secure directly to the head. Eye protection follows, resting securely on the face. Finally, gloves are applied last so they can be stretched entirely over the cuffs of the gown, ensuring a continuous barrier.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Perform hand hygiene using an alcohol-based hand rub or soap and water.
Hands are free of transient flora.
Reduces baseline pathogens and prevents contamination of clean PPE.
2
Put on a fluid-resistant isolation gown and fasten all ties securely.
The torso and clothing are protected.
Provides the primary body barrier and must go on before gloves.
3
Apply a NIOSH-approved N95 respirator and perform a user seal check.
The respiratory tract is protected.
Must be secured to the face and head before any eye protection is placed over it to guarantee a tight seal.
4
Place a face shield or goggles over the face and eyes.
Mucous membranes of the eyes are protected.
Sits securely on top of the respirator straps to prevent interference with the respirator's fit.
5
Don clean, nonsterile gloves and extend them over the cuffs of the gown.
Hands and wrists are protected.
Applying gloves last allows the nurse to pull them over the gown cuffs, securing the wrists and leaving no skin exposed.

Key Concept

The Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) dictates a strict chronological sequence for donning personal protective equipment (PPE) to maximize effectiveness and minimize self-contamination: hand hygiene, gown, mask or respirator, goggles or face shield, and then gloves.
Question 3217Question →

A nurse is planning care for a pediatric client who is newly admitted with suspected pertussis. Which of the following infection control measures should the nurse implement? Select all that apply.

Select all that apply

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Assign the client to a private room.; Don a standard surgical mask upon entering the client's room.; Have the client wear a standard surgical mask when transported outside the room.

Answer

The nurse should assign the client to a private room, don a standard surgical mask upon entering the room, and have the client wear a standard surgical mask during necessary transport.
Pertussis is transmitted via large droplets. Therefore, the correct interventions include placing the client in a private room to isolate the pathogen, wearing a standard surgical mask to protect the healthcare worker from droplets, and placing a standard surgical mask on the client to contain secretions during transport.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the mode of transmission for the pathogen.
Pertussis (whooping cough) is transmitted via large respiratory droplets.
Determining the transmission route dictates the appropriate tier of transmission-based precautions.
2
Select the correct category of isolation precautions.
Droplet precautions are indicated for this client.
Droplet precautions prevent the spread of pathogens that travel short distances through the air.
3
Determine the required interventions for droplet precautions.
Appropriate interventions include a private room, a surgical mask for healthcare providers, and a surgical mask for the client during transport.
These specific barriers interrupt the transmission of large droplets.

Key Concept

Pertussis requires droplet precautions, which involve placing the client in a private room and wearing a standard surgical mask when providing care.
Question 3218Question →

During the night shift on a medical-surgical unit, a nurse is caring for a client with hepatic encephalopathy who is experiencing escalating delirium. Despite the implementation of frequent reorientation, bed alarms, and the continuous presence of a family member, the client persistently attempts to remove a nasogastric tube and a continuous peripheral intravenous infusion. The healthcare provider evaluates the client in person and prescribes bilateral soft wrist restraints. Which of the following nursing actions are appropriate to include in the plan of care? (Select all that apply.)

Select all that apply

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Release the restraints to assess skin integrity and perform range-of-motion exercises at least every two hours.; Secure the restraint straps directly to the movable portion of the bed frame using a quick-release knot.; Verify that the healthcare provider renews the restraint prescription every 24 hours.

Answer

The appropriate actions are releasing the restraints every two hours for assessment, securing the straps to a movable portion of the bed frame with a quick-release knot, and ensuring the prescription is renewed every 24 hours.
Medical-surgical restraints used to prevent interference with life-sustaining treatments require strict safeguards. They must be secured to the movable portion of the bed frame using a quick-release knot to ensure they can be removed rapidly in an emergency and do not cause injury when the bed's position is altered. Nursing staff must release the restraints at least every 2 hours to perform range-of-motion exercises, offer toileting, and assess skin integrity. Furthermore, federal and accreditation guidelines mandate that prescriptions for non-violent medical-surgical restraints be renewed by a healthcare provider at least every 24 hours.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the clinical indication for the restraints in the scenario.
The restraints are indicated for non-violent, medical-surgical reasons (preventing the removal of a nasogastric tube and IV line) after less restrictive alternatives were documented as ineffective.
Identifying the type of restraint dictates the legal time limits and specific monitoring protocols required by regulatory agencies.
2
Evaluate the application and maintenance protocols for medical-surgical restraints.
Safe application requires a quick-release knot on a movable bed frame, and maintenance requires releasing the restraints at least every 2 hours for skin care, motion, and basic needs.
Proper application prevents injury and allows for emergency removal, while regular release prevents skin breakdown and neurovascular compromise.
3
Determine the legal and delegation boundaries for restraint management.
The nurse identifies that PRN orders are illegal, the order must be renewed every 24 hours, and assessments cannot be delegated to UAP.
Maintaining scope of practice and legal compliance is critical for client safety and avoiding professional liability.

Key Concept

Safe application, maintenance, delegation, and legal requirements for medical-surgical physical restraints.
Question 3219Question →

A nurse is preparing to perform Leopold maneuvers on a pregnant client to determine fetal presentation, lie, and position. After ensuring the client has emptied her bladder and is positioned comfortably with her knees slightly flexed, in what chronological order should the nurse perform the steps of this assessment?

Drag items to arrange them in the correct order

Show answer & explanation

Answer

The correct sequence for Leopold maneuvers is: 1) Palpate the uterine fundus, 2) Palpate the lateral aspects of the abdomen, 3) Grasp the lower uterine segment above the symphysis pubis, and 4) Face the client's feet to palpate the bilateral lower abdomen.
Leopold maneuvers must be performed in a specific, systematic four-step sequence to accurately determine fetal presentation, lie, position, and attitude. The assessment progresses logically from the top of the uterus (fundus) down to the lower segment, mapping out the large fetal parts before turning to assess the detailed flexion of the fetal head in the pelvis.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the first maneuver (Fundal Grip).
The nurse palpates the upper abdomen (fundus).
This initial step systematically determines if the fetus is in a longitudinal or transverse lie by identifying what part is at the top of the uterus.
2
Identify the second maneuver (Umbilical Grip).
The nurse palpates the sides of the abdomen.
Once the lie is established, the nurse must locate the fetal back versus the extremities (small parts) to determine the exact position.
3
Identify the third maneuver (Pawlik's Grip).
The nurse grasps the lower uterine segment above the pubic bone.
This confirms the presenting part found in the first step and assesses whether it has descended and engaged into the pelvic inlet.
4
Identify the fourth maneuver (Pelvic Grip).
The nurse turns to face the client's feet and palpates the lower abdomen bilaterally.
This final step identifies the cephalic prominence to determine the fetal attitude (flexion or extension of the head), which is only possible after establishing the other parameters.

Key Concept

Leopold Maneuvers Sequencing
Estimated Time:1m 0s
Question 3220Question →

A rapid response medical team is deployed to the site of a structural collapse at a large indoor transit hub. The nurse is performing rapid mass casualty triage using the START (Simple Triage and Rapid Treatment) algorithm. Which client should the nurse classify with a red tag (Immediate)?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: A client with a respiratory rate of 22 breaths/min, a palpable radial pulse, and who makes no purposeful movement when asked to squeeze the nurse's hand.

Answer

The client with normal respirations and perfusion but an altered mental status (unable to follow simple commands) requires an immediate (red) tag.
In the START triage algorithm, clients are assessed sequentially for Respirations, Perfusion, and Mental Status (RPM). If respirations are under 30 breaths/minute and perfusion is adequate (indicated by a palpable radial pulse or capillary refill under 2 seconds), the nurse must assess mental status. A client who cannot follow simple commands (such as squeezing a hand) is exhibiting an altered mental status. This classifies them as "Immediate" (red tag) because it indicates a potential severe head injury, severe hypoxia, or profound shock requiring immediate life-saving intervention.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Recall the parameters of the START triage algorithm used for adult clients in mass casualty incidents.
The START method assesses Respirations, Perfusion, and Mental status (RPM) sequentially to determine triage category.
Mass casualty triage prioritizes resource allocation based on physiological stability rather than visual severity of individual injuries.
2
Evaluate the client who cannot follow commands against the RPM criteria.
Respirations are normal (< 30 breaths/min) and perfusion is adequate (palpable radial pulse), but the mental status assessment is failed.
According to the START algorithm, an inability to follow simple commands indicates significant neurological compromise or impending shock, necessitating an immediate (red) classification.
3
Analyze the remaining clients to ensure they do not take higher priority.
The walking client is minor (green), the client who remains apneic after airway repositioning is expectant (black), and the alert client with femur fractures but stable RPM parameters is delayed (yellow).
Applying the strict criteria of the START algorithm prevents the misallocation of life-saving resources to clients who are physiologically stable or unsalvageable.

Key Concept

Disaster Triage Principles (START Algorithm)
Estimated Time:1m 30s
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