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Question 3221Question →

A triage nurse in the emergency department is evaluating four newly arrived clients in the waiting area. Which client requires the most immediate implementation of transmission-based precautions and placement in an isolation room?

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Answer: A client presenting with a high fever, coryza, conjunctivitis, and an undiagnosed maculopapular rash.

Answer

The client presenting with a high fever, coryza, conjunctivitis, and an undiagnosed maculopapular rash requires the most immediate isolation due to suspected measles (an airborne pathogen).
The correct answer describes a client with classic symptoms of rubeola (measles): high fever, the '3 Cs' (coryza, cough, conjunctivitis), and a maculopapular rash. Measles is a highly contagious airborne pathogen. Airborne particles are small (< 5 microns), remain suspended in the air for prolonged periods, and can travel through the facility's ventilation system. This client poses the greatest immediate risk to everyone in the shared waiting area and requires emergency placement in an Airborne Infection Isolation Room (AIIR).

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Evaluate the mode of transmission and isolation requirement for each client.
The rash client needs Airborne, the flu client needs Droplet, the MRSA client needs Contact, and the latent TB client needs Standard precautions.
Accurate identification of precaution tiers is the critical first step in determining triage isolation priority.
2
Assess the immediate environmental risk each client poses to the shared triage waiting area.
Airborne pathogens (measles suspect) remain suspended in the air and travel widely. Droplets (flu) fall within 3 to 6 feet. The MRSA wound is contained by a dressing, and latent TB is non-infectious.
Pathogens that spread via air currents pose the highest risk of exposing the entire facility, requiring immediate removal from shared airspaces.
3
Determine the highest priority for immediate room isolation.
The client with the suspected airborne infection must be isolated first in a negative-pressure Airborne Infection Isolation Room (AIIR).
Providing a standard mask to the flu client provides adequate temporary source control in the waiting room, whereas the airborne client requires immediate negative-pressure isolation to prevent facility-wide exposure.

Key Concept

Prioritizing transmission-based precautions in triage based on the mode of transmission, with airborne threats requiring immediate negative-pressure isolation.
Question 3222Question →

A nurse is preparing to draw a blood specimen from a client's multi-lumen central venous catheter (CVC). A continuous intravenous infusion of 0.9% sodium chloride is currently running through a different lumen of the catheter. Arrange the following steps in the correct chronological order to obtain the blood sample safely and prevent laboratory result contamination.

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Answer

The correct sequence is to first pause the active infusion, then scrub the hub, verify patency and discard the dead space fluid, draw the actual sample, and finally flush the line and restart the infusion.
The correct sequence ensures patient safety, prevents central line-associated bloodstream infections (CLABSI), and guarantees the integrity of the laboratory specimen. Pausing other infusions is the critical first step to prevent hemodilution. Aseptic technique (scrubbing the hub) must precede any line access. A discard sample is necessary to remove the fluid sitting in the catheter's dead space before obtaining the actual diagnostic sample. Finally, the line must be flushed to prevent clotting, and the paused infusion must be restarted.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Pause the continuous intravenous infusion on the other lumen for at least 1 to 2 minutes.
The flow of intravenous fluids into the central circulation is temporarily halted.
This prevents hemodilution and ensures the drawn blood sample is not contaminated by the infusing fluids.
2
Scrub the needleless connector of the designated sampling lumen with an antiseptic swab.
The entry point for the syringe is disinfected.
Strict asepsis prevents the introduction of pathogens into the client's central bloodstream, preventing infection.
3
Flush the sampling lumen to verify patency, then withdraw and discard 5 to 10 mL of blood.
The catheter is confirmed to be patent, and the dead space is cleared of residual fluids.
Discarding the initial blood volume ensures that the subsequent sample consists of pure circulating blood rather than flush solution or residual fluids.
4
Attach a new sterile syringe and withdraw the required volume of blood for the laboratory specimen.
An uncontaminated diagnostic sample is successfully collected.
Using a fresh syringe ensures the actual specimen is accurately obtained for laboratory analysis.
5
Flush the sampling lumen with 10 to 20 mL of 0.9% sodium chloride and restart the paused infusion.
The catheter lumen is cleared of residual blood, and the client's continuous therapy is resumed.
A thorough flush prevents fibrin buildup and catheter occlusion, while restarting the infusion ensures therapeutic continuity.

Key Concept

Central Venous Catheter (CVC) Blood Specimen Collection (Discard Method)
Question 3223Question →

A nurse is evaluating the electronic fetal monitor tracing for a client in active labor. The nurse notes recurrent, abrupt decreases in the fetal heart rate that drop below the baseline and have no consistent relationship with the onset of uterine contractions. Which of the following actions should the nurse perform? Select all that apply.

Select all that apply

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Answer: Assist the client into a lateral or knee-chest position; Administer supplemental oxygen via a non-rebreather mask; Stop the continuous intravenous oxytocin infusion if it is running

Answer

The correct actions are to assist the client into a lateral or knee-chest position, administer supplemental oxygen, and stop the oxytocin infusion.
The monitor tracing describes variable decelerations, which indicate umbilical cord compression. The correct nursing interventions are aimed at relieving pressure on the cord and improving fetal oxygenation. These necessary actions include repositioning the client (such as a lateral or knee-chest position), administering supplemental oxygen, and discontinuing uterine stimulants like oxytocin to reduce uterine workload.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the fetal heart rate pattern described in the scenario.
The abrupt decreases that are unrelated to contractions indicate variable decelerations.
Accurate interpretation of the fetal monitor tracing is required to determine the underlying cause, which in this case is umbilical cord compression.
2
Determine the appropriate interventions for umbilical cord compression.
Interventions must focus on relieving pressure on the cord and optimizing fetal oxygenation.
Variable decelerations are a sign of fetal stress requiring immediate intrauterine resuscitation measures.
3
Select the nursing actions that match the goals of intrauterine resuscitation.
Repositioning the client, applying oxygen, and stopping oxytocin are the appropriate actions.
These specific actions directly address the physiological cause of the decelerations and support fetal recovery.

Key Concept

Variable Decelerations and Intrauterine Resuscitation
Question 3224Question →

A registered nurse is providing care for a group of clients on a medical-surgical unit, including an older adult client experiencing acute delirium who is receiving continuous intravenous (IV) therapy. Which of the following actions by the nurse demonstrate appropriate accident, error, and injury prevention? (Select all that apply.)

Select all that apply

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Answer: Positioning the delirious client's IV tubing and medical devices out of their direct visual field.; Activating a bed alarm and maintaining the delirious client's bed in the lowest locked position.

Answer

The correct actions include positioning the IV tubing out of the client's visual field and activating the bed alarm with the bed in the lowest locked position.
Positioning medical devices out of the visual field reduces sensory stimulation and the temptation for a delirious client to pull at them, acting as an effective non-restrictive safety measure. Additionally, maintaining the bed in the lowest locked position with an active bed alarm mitigates fall risk and alerts staff immediately if the client attempts to ambulate unsafely.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the primary safety risks for the delirious client.
The client is at high risk for falls and pulling out necessary medical devices due to altered mental status.
Understanding specific risks guides the selection of appropriate, individualized safety interventions.
2
Evaluate each intervention against established safety protocols and the principle of least restrictive interventions.
Concealing tubing and using bed alarms are appropriate first-line measures. Restraints are a last resort and should not be applied immediately.
Safety must be maintained while preserving the client's dignity and avoiding unnecessary restriction that can worsen agitation.
3
Apply prioritization and delegation rules to the remaining scenarios on the unit.
Assessments cannot be delegated to UAP, ABCs always take priority over routine tasks, and hand hygiene for C. difficile requires soap and water.
Strict adherence to scope of practice, the nursing process, and infection control standards prevents systemic errors and patient harm.

Key Concept

Client safety requires prioritizing non-restrictive interventions, adhering to infection control and delegation standards, and always addressing unstable clients (ABCs) first.
Question 3225Question →

A charge nurse at a medical center receives a telephone call from an individual claiming that an explosive device has been placed in the facility. Arrange the following actions the nurse should take in the correct chronological sequence. All options must be used.

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Answer

The correct sequence for managing a telephone bomb threat is to first keep the caller on the line, quietly signal a colleague to notify security, record the exact wording of the threat, conduct a visual sweep of the immediate area, and finally prepare the unit while awaiting further directives.
The standard protocol for a telephone bomb threat dictates that the receiver must first try to keep the caller engaged to gather information. Simultaneously, they should signal a coworker to activate the emergency response. Documenting the specific details occurs continuously but is finalized as the primary data collection phase. After the call concludes, the immediate environment is visually swept for obvious threats. Finally, the unit must wait for incident command to determine if evacuation is safe and necessary.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Keep the caller on the telephone as long as possible to gather details and listen to background noises.
The connection is maintained, allowing for maximum intelligence gathering.
The caller is the primary source of information. Prolonging the call increases the chances of identifying background noises, caller demographics, or the exact location of the device.
2
Quietly signal a colleague to contact hospital security and activate the emergency operations plan.
Security and administration are alerted while the call is still active.
Early activation of the facility's emergency response is critical. Using a colleague prevents the nurse from having to disconnect the call to seek help.
3
Record the exact wording of the threat, the characteristics of the caller's voice, and any specified detonation times.
Crucial evidence is preserved accurately.
Human memory is fallible under stress. Documenting the caller's precise phrasing, accent, state of mind, and specific threats provides essential evidence for law enforcement.
4
Conduct a visual sweep of the nursing station and surrounding client areas for suspicious or out-of-place objects.
The immediate clinical environment is assessed for localized threats.
Once the initial threat communication is managed, staff must check their own area for immediate danger. Suspicious items should be reported but never touched.
5
Prepare clients and staff for possible evacuation while awaiting directives from the incident commander.
The unit is ready to mobilize safely if required.
Self-evacuating during a bomb threat is dangerous because the device may be located along evacuation routes. The unit must wait for clearance from the incident command center.

Key Concept

During a bomb threat, the primary nursing priorities are maintaining communication to gather intelligence, discreetly activating the emergency response, preserving evidence, assessing the immediate area, and preventing premature evacuation that could endanger clients.
Question 3226Question →

A nurse is preparing to transfer a client with right-sided hemiparesis from the bed to a wheelchair. To prevent falls and ensure client safety, arrange the following nursing actions in the correct sequence.

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Answer

The correct sequence prioritizes environmental preparation and securing equipment, followed by client physiological preparation, applying safety devices, and executing the physical transfer.
To ensure client safety and prevent falls during a transfer, the nurse must follow a systematic approach. First, the environment must be prepared by positioning the wheelchair optimally on the client's strong (unaffected) side. Next, the equipment must be secured by locking all wheels. Once the environment is safe, the nurse prepares the client by assisting them to sit on the edge of the bed, allowing time to assess for dizziness or orthostatic hypotension. After the client is stable, a transfer belt is applied to provide a secure handhold. Finally, the physical transfer is executed by having the client bear weight on their strong leg and pivot into the wheelchair.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Position the wheelchair at a 45-degree angle to the bed on the client's left side.
The equipment is placed in the optimal location for a safe transfer.
The wheelchair must be placed on the client's unaffected (strong) side before proceeding so the client can bear weight appropriately.
2
Engage the wheel locks on both the hospital bed and the wheelchair.
The environment is completely secured.
Locking the wheels prevents the bed or chair from rolling away while the client is attempting to stand or pivot, effectively preventing falls.
3
Assist the client to sit on the edge of the bed and allow their legs to dangle for a few minutes.
The client is upright and hemodynamically stable.
Allowing the client to dangle helps prevent orthostatic hypotension and dizziness, which are major risk factors for falls during transfers.
4
Fasten a transfer belt securely around the client's waist.
A safety device is applied to the client.
The transfer belt provides an ergonomic and secure way for the nurse to support the client in case their weak side gives out.
5
Instruct the client to bear weight on their left leg and pivot into the wheelchair.
The client safely completes the transfer to the wheelchair.
Bearing weight on the unaffected (left) side ensures stability during the physical movement from the bed to the chair.

Key Concept

Safe client transfer techniques and fall prevention.
Question 3227Question →

A client arrives unannounced at a community health clinic after being heavily splashed with organophosphate pesticides at a local agricultural site. The client is exhibiting excessive salivation, diaphoresis, and severe muscle twitching. Arrange the following emergency response actions in the correct sequential order from first to last.

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Answer

The correct sequence prioritizes responder safety, facility containment, gross physical decontamination, thorough skin decontamination, and finally medical treatment.
In any hazardous materials (hazmat) emergency, the absolute first priority is the safety of the responders. Therefore, donning PPE is the initial action. Next, the facility must be protected by isolating the client in an external or designated decontamination area. Decontamination then proceeds in a specific sequence: removing clothing first (which eliminates the bulk of the contaminant) followed by washing with copious amounts of water and soap. Only after the client is completely decontaminated is it safe for healthcare personnel to provide direct medical interventions, such as administering antidotes.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Prioritize responder safety.
The nurse dons appropriate PPE.
Healthcare workers must protect themselves first to avoid becoming secondary casualties.
2
Secure the facility.
The client is directed to an outdoor or isolated decontamination area.
This prevents the chemical from spreading inside the clinic and exposing others.
3
Perform gross decontamination.
Contaminated clothing is removed.
Clothing traps the chemical; removing it eliminates the majority of the exposure source.
4
Perform thorough skin decontamination.
The client is washed with copious amounts of soap and water.
Washing removes residual chemicals from the skin, halting further systemic absorption.
5
Initiate medical treatment.
The nurse administers the prescribed antidote.
Once the client is safe to handle without risk of secondary exposure, life-saving medical interventions can begin.

Key Concept

Chemical Exposure Emergency Response and Decontamination Sequence
Question 3228Question →

A nurse is developing a plan of care for a client who recently sustained a severe traumatic brain injury and is at high risk for increased intracranial pressure (ICP). Which of the following basic care and comfort interventions should the nurse include? Select all that apply.

Select all that apply

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Answer: Maintain the head of the bed elevated at 30 degrees.; Align the client's head and neck in a neutral, midline position.; Maintain a quiet, dimly lit environment to reduce sensory stimulation.

Answer

The correct interventions are maintaining the head of the bed at 30 degrees, aligning the head and neck in a neutral position, and providing a quiet, dimly lit environment.
For a client at risk of increased intracranial pressure (ICP), basic care and comfort measures must focus on optimizing cerebral perfusion and minimizing metabolic demand. Maintaining the head of the bed at 30 degrees and keeping the head and neck in a neutral, midline position facilitates optimal venous drainage from the brain via the jugular veins. Providing a quiet, dimly lit environment reduces sensory stimulation, which helps decrease metabolic demand and prevents spikes in ICP.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the client's clinical condition and risk factors.
The client has a traumatic brain injury and is at high risk for increased intracranial pressure (ICP).
Identifying the primary physiological risk dictates which basic care and comfort interventions are safe to implement.
2
Evaluate mobility and positioning interventions for their effect on venous return.
Elevating the head of the bed to 30 degrees and keeping the neck neutral promotes jugular venous drainage. Flexing the hips to 90 degrees is contraindicated.
Proper positioning is a critical basic care measure to prevent spikes in ICP; extreme hip flexion increases intra-abdominal pressure, which indirectly raises ICP.
3
Review comfort and safety interventions against nursing scope of practice and safety protocols.
A quiet environment safely promotes comfort. However, delegating a swallowing evaluation to a UAP is unsafe, and applying restraints without trying alternatives violates safety protocols.
Basic care measures must align with legal delegation standards and the principle of using the least restrictive safety measures.

Key Concept

Basic care and comfort for clients with or at risk for increased intracranial pressure must prioritize interventions that promote cerebral venous drainage (e.g., proper positioning) and reduce metabolic demand (e.g., controlling sensory stimuli), while avoiding actions that increase intra-abdominal or intrathoracic pressure.
Question 3229Question →

A critical care nurse is preparing to initiate a continuous IV infusion of dobutamine for a client with severe heart failure. The healthcare provider has prescribed dobutamine at 5 mcg/kg/min5 \text{ mcg/kg/min}. The client weighs 198 lb198 \text{ lb}. The medication is supplied as dobutamine 500 mg500 \text{ mg} in 250 mL250 \text{ mL} of 5% dextrose in water (D5W). At what rate, in mL/hr\text{mL/hr}, should the nurse set the IV infusion pump? (Record your answer using one decimal place.)

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Answer: 13.5

Answer

13.5
To determine the correct IV pump rate, first convert the weight to kilograms (198 lb÷2.2=90 kg198 \text{ lb} \div 2.2 = 90 \text{ kg}). Then, calculate the total dose in mcg/min (5 mcg/kg/min×90 kg=450 mcg/min5 \text{ mcg/kg/min} \times 90 \text{ kg} = 450 \text{ mcg/min}). Next, convert to an hourly dose (450 mcg/min×60 min/hr=27,000 mcg/hr450 \text{ mcg/min} \times 60 \text{ min/hr} = 27,000 \text{ mcg/hr}), and then to milligrams (27,000 mcg÷1,000=27 mg/hr27,000 \text{ mcg} \div 1,000 = 27 \text{ mg/hr}). Finally, divide the hourly dose by the concentration of the IV bag (500 mg÷250 mL=2 mg/mL500 \text{ mg} \div 250 \text{ mL} = 2 \text{ mg/mL}) to find the rate in mL/hr: 27 mg/hr÷2 mg/mL=13.5 mL/hr27 \text{ mg/hr} \div 2 \text{ mg/mL} = 13.5 \text{ mL/hr}.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Convert the client's weight from pounds (lb) to kilograms (kg).
198 lb÷2.2 lb/kg=90 kg198 \text{ lb} \div 2.2 \text{ lb/kg} = 90 \text{ kg}
The prescribed dose is weight-based in kilograms, so the client's weight must first be converted into the correct unit.
2
Calculate the total required dose per minute.
5 mcg/kg/min×90 kg=450 mcg/min5 \text{ mcg/kg/min} \times 90 \text{ kg} = 450 \text{ mcg/min}
Multiplying the prescribed weight-based dose by the client's weight determines the exact dose the client needs each minute.
3
Convert the per-minute dose to an hourly dose.
450 mcg/min×60 min/hr=27,000 mcg/hr450 \text{ mcg/min} \times 60 \text{ min/hr} = 27,000 \text{ mcg/hr}
IV infusion pumps are set in milliliters per hour (mL/hr), so the required medication dose must be calculated on an hourly basis.
4
Convert the hourly dose from micrograms (mcg) to milligrams (mg).
27,000 mcg/hr÷1,000 mcg/mg=27 mg/hr27,000 \text{ mcg/hr} \div 1,000 \text{ mcg/mg} = 27 \text{ mg/hr}
The supplied medication concentration is provided in milligrams, so the requested dose must be converted to match the supplied unit.
5
Calculate the required volume to infuse per hour.
27 mg/hr÷(500 mg/250 mL)=27 mg/hr÷2 mg/mL=13.5 mL/hr27 \text{ mg/hr} \div (500 \text{ mg} / 250 \text{ mL}) = 27 \text{ mg/hr} \div 2 \text{ mg/mL} = 13.5 \text{ mL/hr}
Dividing the desired hourly dose by the medication concentration determines the final infusion pump rate in mL/hr.

Key Concept

Weight-Based Intravenous Medication Dosage Calculation
Question 3230Question →

A 68-year-old client is 24 hours post-operative following an open cholecystectomy. The client has been guarding the abdomen and is reluctant to use the incentive spirometer due to incisional pain. The nurse notes shallow respirations at 2626 breaths/min and an oxygen saturation (SpO2SpO_2) of 89%89\% on room air. A newly drawn arterial blood gas (ABG) reveals the following: pH 7.297.29, PaCO2PaCO_2 5656 mmHg, HCO3−HCO_3^- 2424 mEq/L, and PaO2PaO_2 6262 mmHg. Which immediate action should the nurse implement to reduce the risk of further physiological deterioration?

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Answer: Elevate the head of the bed to at least 45 degrees and guide the client through deep breathing exercises.

Answer

The correct action is to elevate the head of the bed to at least 45 degrees (semi-Fowler's position) and assist the client with deep breathing exercises.
The client is experiencing uncompensated respiratory acidosis (pH 7.297.29, PaCO2PaCO_2 5656 mmHg) and hypoxemia due to shallow breathing (hypoventilation) from post-operative incisional splinting. Elevating the head of the bed promotes optimal lung expansion by allowing the diaphragm to drop, which improves ventilation and gas exchange. Deep breathing exercises directly address the root cause by increasing alveolar ventilation and blowing off the retained carbon dioxide.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the client's clinical presentation and arterial blood gas (ABG) values.
The ABG indicates uncompensated respiratory acidosis (low pH, high PaCO2PaCO_2, normal HCO3−HCO_3^-) accompanied by hypoxemia (low PaO2PaO_2 and SpO2SpO_2).
Identifying the specific physiological derangement is the critical first step in prioritizing appropriate nursing care.
2
Determine the root cause of the acid-base imbalance.
The respiratory acidosis is caused by hypoventilation (shallow breathing at 26 breaths/min) secondary to incisional splinting and guarding from the open abdominal surgery.
Interventions must target the underlying cause to effectively reverse the client's physiological decline.
3
Select the safest and most direct nursing intervention to resolve the hypoventilation.
Elevating the head of the bed maximizes diaphragmatic excursion, while deep breathing exercises directly increase alveolar ventilation.
Non-pharmacological positioning and respiratory exercises are the immediate priority to restore adequate gas exchange without risking further central nervous system depression.

Key Concept

Recognition and immediate non-pharmacological management of post-operative respiratory acidosis.
Question 3231Question →

During morning rounds, a nurse notes that a client has an active peripheral venous catheter infusing lactated Ringer's solution at 100 mL/hr100\text{ mL/hr}. The pharmacy has just delivered a newly prescribed dose of intravenous ceftriaxone. Which action represents the most critical safety step the nurse must perform prior to connecting the medication?

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Answer: Verify the compatibility of the antibiotic and the lactated Ringer's solution using a standard drug reference.

Answer

The nurse must verify the compatibility of the antibiotic and the lactated Ringer's solution using a standard drug reference.
The correct action ensures patient safety by preventing a potentially fatal chemical reaction. Ceftriaxone can bind with the calcium present in lactated Ringer's solution to form solid particulate matter (precipitate) in the IV line or bloodstream. Therefore, verifying compatibility is an absolute priority before mixing any IV medications or fluids.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the planned clinical intervention.
The nurse is preparing to administer a secondary intravenous medication into a primary line that is actively infusing a different solution.
Recognizing multiple intravenous substances will mix in the tubing is the first step in medication safety.
2
Recall the fundamental safety principles of parenteral therapies.
When two different intravenous solutions or medications meet, there is a high risk for physical or chemical incompatibility.
Preventing adverse reactions, such as the formation of micro-crystals or precipitate, protects the client from emboli and vein irritation.
3
Determine the priority nursing action based on these principles.
The nurse must consult a drug reference guide to ensure ceftriaxone and lactated Ringer's solution can safely mix.
Compatibility verification must always occur before connecting and infusing a new medication.

Key Concept

Intravenous Compatibility and Medication Safety
Question 3232Question →

A client is admitted to the emergency department in status epilepticus. The healthcare provider prescribes a loading dose of phenytoin 1,000 mg intravenously STAT. The client has a single 20-gauge peripheral intravenous (IV) catheter, which is currently infusing a primary solution of 5% Dextrose in Water (D5W) at 100 mL/hr. Which sequence of actions by the nurse demonstrates safe administration of this medication?

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Answer: Pause the primary D5W infusion, flush the IV catheter with 0.9% sodium chloride, and administer the medication using an infusion pump over 20 minutes.

Answer

The correct action is to pause the primary D5W infusion, thoroughly flush the intravenous catheter with 0.9% sodium chloride, and administer the phenytoin over at least 20 minutes.
Phenytoin is chemically incompatible with all dextrose-containing solutions and will immediately form a solid crystal precipitate if mixed. The nurse must pause the D5W and thoroughly flush the line with 0.9% sodium chloride (normal saline) before and after administration. Additionally, intravenous phenytoin carries a critical warning for severe hypotension and cardiac arrhythmias if administered too rapidly. The absolute maximum safe infusion rate is 50 mg/min. For a 1,000 mg loading dose, the minimum administration time must be calculated: 1,000 mg ÷ 50 mg/min = 20 minutes. The use of an electronic infusion pump ensures this safe rate is strictly maintained.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the chemical compatibility between the prescribed medication (phenytoin) and the infusing primary fluid (D5W).
Phenytoin is highly alkaline and completely incompatible with dextrose. It will instantly precipitate.
To determine if the medication can be administered concurrently or if the line must be cleared with a compatible solution.
2
Determine the appropriate diluent or flush solution required to safely administer phenytoin.
0.9% sodium chloride (normal saline) is the only compatible crystalloid solution for phenytoin administration.
To clear the IV catheter of any dextrose and provide a safe, compatible medium for the anticonvulsant.
3
Calculate the minimum safe administration time based on the maximum allowable intravenous infusion rate for phenytoin.
Maximum rate is 50 mg/min. For a 1,000 mg dose: 1,000 mg ÷ 50 mg/min = 20 minutes.
Intravenous phenytoin carries a black box warning for severe hypotension and life-threatening cardiac arrhythmias if infused too rapidly.
4
Select the option that correctly combines flushing the incompatible D5W with normal saline and administering the medication over the required minimum time.
The option stating to pause D5W, flush with normal saline, and infuse over 20 minutes is the only safe clinical action.
It successfully prevents chemical precipitation and avoids life-threatening rate-related cardiovascular adverse effects.

Key Concept

Safe parenteral administration of phenytoin requires avoiding all dextrose-containing solutions due to chemical precipitation, and strictly limiting the intravenous infusion rate to a maximum of 50 mg/min to prevent cardiovascular toxicity.
Question 3233Question →

An electrical fire erupts in the main supply room of a busy telemetry unit. The staff has already rescued the clients in immediate danger and contained the fire by closing the heavy fire doors. The incident commander now orders a complete horizontal evacuation of the remaining unit. To ensure the safest and most efficient clearance of the area, which client should the nursing staff evacuate NEXT?

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Answer: A client recovering from an open appendectomy who is receiving intravenous antibiotics and can walk independently.

Answer

The client recovering from an open appendectomy who can walk independently should be evacuated next.
During a facility fire or internal disaster, evacuation must follow a specific sequence to prevent physical bottlenecks and maximize the number of lives saved with available resources. After clients in immediate danger are rescued, ambulatory clients are evacuated first because they require minimal staff assistance and can move quickly. This clears the hallways and allows staff to then focus on wheelchair-bound clients, leaving bedbound and critically ill clients for last.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the disaster context.
The scenario involves an internal hospital disaster (fire) requiring a horizontal evacuation of the unit. The clients in immediate danger have already been rescued.
Establishing the phase of the disaster determines which prioritization framework to apply.
2
Recall the standard facility evacuation protocol.
The sequence is: 1) Clients in immediate danger, 2) Ambulatory clients, 3) Wheelchair-bound/semi-ambulatory clients, 4) Bedbound/critical clients.
This protocol ensures the greatest number of people are moved to safety in the shortest amount of time without causing hallway bottlenecks.
3
Evaluate the mobility and resource needs of each client in the options.
The client with the appendectomy is ambulatory. The client with angina requires a wheelchair. The clients with skeletal traction and on a ventilator are bedbound and require heavy equipment.
Identifying mobility status allows for proper sequencing according to the evacuation protocol.
4
Select the highest priority client based on the protocol.
The ambulatory client with the appendectomy requires the least staff assistance and can move quickly.
Evacuating ambulatory clients first clears the area rapidly, freeing up physical space and staff to subsequently assist the non-ambulatory and critical clients.

Key Concept

Facility Evacuation Prioritization during Internal Disasters
Question 3234Question →

A registered nurse is coordinating the care of a critically ill client who was just admitted with suspected bacterial meningitis and septic shock. The client is confused, hemodynamically unstable, and receiving a continuous intravenous (IV) infusion of norepinephrine via a central venous catheter. Which of the following actions should the nurse implement to prevent accidents, errors, and injuries? (Select all that apply.)

Select all that apply

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Verify the physical and chemical compatibility of all intermittent intravenous (IV) medications with the continuous vasoactive infusion prior to administration.; Maintain the head of the bed elevated at 30 degrees to promote cerebral venous drainage and mitigate aspiration risk.; Utilize a barcode medication administration (BCMA) system and verify two unique client identifiers before delivering any therapeutic agents.

Answer

The appropriate safety actions are verifying IV medication compatibility, maintaining the head of the bed elevated at 30 degrees, and utilizing barcode scanning with two unique identifiers.
Safe and effective care for a critically ill, hemodynamically unstable client requires rigorous error prevention strategies. Verifying IV compatibility prevents dangerous chemical reactions or line occlusions when administering multiple medications. Utilizing a barcode medication administration system alongside two unique identifiers is a non-negotiable standard for preventing wrong-client or wrong-drug errors. Additionally, maintaining the head of the bed at 30 degrees is an essential physical safety measure that prevents aspiration and promotes cerebral venous return, which mitigates dangerous increases in intracranial pressure associated with meningitis.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Evaluate the risk of medication errors in a critically ill client receiving continuous vasoactive infusions.
Identified the need to verify IV compatibility and use two unique identifiers via a barcode system.
High-alert medications require strict adherence to administration protocols to prevent fatal adverse events.
2
Determine the appropriate physical positioning for a client with suspected meningitis and confusion.
Identified that elevating the head of the bed to 30 degrees is necessary.
This position facilitates cerebral venous drainage to prevent increased intracranial pressure and reduces the risk of aspiration.
3
Assess the appropriateness of isolation precautions, delegation, and restraint use.
Determined that airborne precautions, delegating GCS assessments, and immediately applying restraints are unsafe actions.
Meningitis requires droplet precautions; UAPs cannot perform clinical assessments on unstable clients; and restraints require prior failure of less restrictive alternatives.

Key Concept

Prioritization of patient safety through adherence to medication administration protocols, appropriate delegation, and implementation of least restrictive alternatives.
Question 3235Question →

A nurse is planning care for a client who sustained deep partial-thickness burns to the anterior neck, bilateral axillae, and chest 24 hours ago. The client is experiencing severe discomfort and persistently requests to rest in a curled, fetal position with multiple pillows placed under the head and knees. Which nursing action is the most appropriate to ensure physiological integrity while managing the client's basic care?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Omit pillows under the head, place a rolled towel beneath the shoulders to extend the neck, and support the arms in 90-degree abduction.

Answer

Omit pillows under the head, place a rolled towel beneath the shoulders to extend the neck, and support the arms in 90-degree abduction.
In burn management, the position of comfort is highly destructive because it is often the position of contracture. For burns involving the anterior neck and axillae, the nurse must actively prevent flexion and tissue webbing. Removing the head pillow and placing a rolled towel beneath the shoulders hyperextends the neck, preventing severe chin-to-chest contractures. Abducting the arms to 90 degrees prevents the axillary tissue from webbing. While this positioning may cause temporary discomfort, it is a critical, standard basic care intervention required to preserve joint function and mobility.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the locations of the deep partial-thickness burns.
The injuries are located on the anterior neck, bilateral axillae, and chest.
Burn wounds naturally contract as they heal, pulling surrounding healthy tissue inward toward the center of the wound.
2
Evaluate the client's requested fetal position.
The requested position promotes flexion of the neck, hips, and knees.
In burn care management, a 'position of comfort' usually equates to a 'position of contracture', which must be avoided.
3
Determine the appropriate therapeutic positioning to counteract contractures.
The neck must be maintained in extension and the arms must be abducted.
Therapeutic positioning actively opposes the physiological direction of potential contractures, which is critical for preserving long-term functional mobility.

Key Concept

Therapeutic Positioning for Burn Clients (Anti-Contracture)
Question 3236Question →

A registered nurse is directing care for a client who is actively symptomatic with a Clostridioides difficile infection. Which instruction is most appropriate for the nurse to give to the unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) assigned to help with the client's morning care?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Perform hand hygiene using only soap and water after removing gloves and leaving the room.

Answer

Perform hand hygiene using only soap and water after removing gloves and leaving the room.
The correct answer identifies the crucial distinction in hand hygiene for spore-forming organisms. Clostridioides difficile spores are not killed by alcohol. Therefore, the mechanical action of washing hands with soap and water is the required method to physically remove the spores from the hands after care.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the specific pathogen and its mode of transmission.
The client has Clostridioides difficile, a spore-forming bacterium transmitted via the fecal-oral route through contact.
Different pathogens require specific variations of isolation precautions.
2
Determine the appropriate transmission-based precautions for this pathogen.
Contact Precautions (specifically Enteric Precautions) are required, which mandate gowns, gloves, and specific hand hygiene protocols.
Standard alcohol-based protocols are insufficient for spore-forming organisms.
3
Evaluate each instruction for clinical accuracy and scope of practice.
Only the soap and water hand hygiene instruction is clinically correct and within the UAP's scope of practice.
Delegated tasks must be safe, correct, and legally permissible for the UAP to perform.

Key Concept

Contact (Enteric) Precautions for spore-forming pathogens and appropriate delegation.
Estimated Time:1m 0s
Question 3237Question →

A nurse is performing an initial assessment on a neonate exactly 1 minute after birth. The neonate presents with a heart rate of 142 beats per minute, a vigorous cry, active spontaneous movement of all extremities, a strong cough and sneeze during nasal suctioning, and a completely pink trunk with blue hands and feet. Calculate the neonate's 1-minute Apgar score.

Show answer & explanation

Answer: 9

Answer

9
The Apgar score consists of five parameters evaluated at 1 and 5 minutes of life, each scored from 0 to 2. A heart rate over 100 beats per minute (2 points), a strong respiratory effort or cry (2 points), active muscle tone (2 points), vigorous reflex irritability (2 points), and acrocyanosis (1 point) yield a total score of 9.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Evaluate the neonate's pulse (Heart Rate).
2 points
A heart rate of 142 beats per minute is greater than 100 beats per minute, earning the maximum score for this category.
2
Evaluate the neonate's respiratory effort.
2 points
A vigorous cry indicates excellent respiratory effort, warranting full points.
3
Evaluate the neonate's activity (Muscle Tone).
2 points
Active spontaneous movement of all extremities demonstrates optimal muscle tone.
4
Evaluate the neonate's grimace (Reflex Irritability).
2 points
A strong cough and sneeze in response to stimulation (nasal suctioning) is a normal, robust reflex response.
5
Evaluate the neonate's appearance (Color).
1 point
A completely pink trunk with blue hands and feet describes acrocyanosis, which is a normal finding but only receives a partial score. A score of 2 requires the entire body to be pink.
6
Sum the individual component scores to determine the final Apgar score.
9
Adding the components together (2 + 2 + 2 + 2 + 1) provides the comprehensive 1-minute assessment value.

Key Concept

Apgar scoring system for newborn assessment
Question 3238Question →

A client with a deep vein thrombosis is receiving a continuous intravenous (IV) infusion of heparin through a single-lumen peripheral IV catheter. The healthcare provider prescribes a new order for intermittent IV vancomycin to treat a concurrent soft tissue infection. Which action by the nurse is most appropriate?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Insert a second peripheral IV catheter to administer the vancomycin infusion.

Answer

The most appropriate action is to insert a second peripheral IV catheter to administer the vancomycin infusion.
The most appropriate action is to establish a second peripheral IV site. Heparin and vancomycin are physically incompatible and cannot be administered through the same tubing or Y-site, as they will form a visible precipitate. Furthermore, heparin is a critical, high-alert continuous infusion with a very short half-life. Pausing the heparin infusion for the 60 minutes required to safely administer vancomycin would cause the client's anticoagulation levels to drop into a subtherapeutic range, significantly increasing the risk of thrombus extension or pulmonary embolism. Therefore, a separate, dedicated intravenous line is the only safe solution.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the prescribed therapies.
The client requires a continuous heparin infusion for a blood clot and an intermittent vancomycin infusion for an infection.
To identify potential conflicts in medication administration schedules or routes.
2
Evaluate intravenous access and medication compatibility.
The client has a single-lumen line. Heparin and vancomycin are physically incompatible at the Y-site.
To ensure safe administration and prevent potentially fatal precipitation in the IV tubing.
3
Determine the physiological impact of pausing the continuous therapy.
Pausing a continuous heparin drip for the duration of a vancomycin infusion (60+ minutes) is clinically unsafe.
Heparin has a short half-life; interrupting the infusion rapidly lowers therapeutic anticoagulation levels, risking clot expansion.
4
Select the safest nursing intervention.
Establishing a second peripheral IV site is required.
It allows simultaneous, safe administration of both medications without interruption or incompatibility issues.

Key Concept

Intravenous Medication Compatibility and Continuous Infusion Safety
Question 3239Question →

A massive derailment of a high-speed commuter train has resulted in a surge of critically injured casualties arriving at the emergency department. The hospital has activated its emergency operations plan to manage the sudden influx of victims. The charge nurse on a medical-surgical unit is instructed to evaluate current inpatients for safe, early discharge to rapidly expand bed capacity. Which of the following clients should the nurse recommend for immediate discharge? Select all that apply.

Select all that apply

Show answer & explanation

Answer: A client admitted 3 days ago for an asthma exacerbation who has maintained an oxygen saturation of 97% on room air for the past 24 hours.; A client who underwent an uncomplicated laparoscopic appendectomy 24 hours ago, has successfully voided, and is tolerating a regular diet.; A client with lower extremity cellulitis whose intravenous antibiotic therapy was successfully transitioned to an oral regimen this morning.

Answer

The clients who should be recommended for immediate discharge are the client with asthma on room air, the client recovering from a laparoscopic appendectomy, and the client with cellulitis who was transitioned to oral antibiotics.
During a mass casualty incident, the hospital emergency operations plan requires rapidly expanding bed capacity by discharging the most stable clients. Clients who are hemodynamically stable, do not require continuous intravenous medications, are tolerating oral intake, and can safely continue their recovery at home are prioritized for early discharge. The client with asthma (stable on room air), the client recovering from a laparoscopic appendectomy (eating and voiding), and the client with cellulitis (transitioned to oral antibiotics) all meet these criteria.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the primary objective of the scenario.
The goal is to safely discharge the most stable clients to create bed capacity for incoming mass casualty victims.
During an internal or external disaster, hospital emergency operations plans prioritize expanding resources by discharging clients who no longer require acute inpatient care.
2
Evaluate each client's clinical stability and ongoing treatment needs.
Three clients require continuous monitoring or IV therapies, while three are stable on room air or oral medications.
Clients who are hemodynamically stable, eating, voiding, and transitioned to oral medications are the safest candidates for early discharge.
3
Select the appropriate clients for discharge.
The asthma client, the appendectomy client, and the cellulitis client are selected.
These clients have resolving conditions and do not require continuous nursing interventions or life-sustaining therapies.

Key Concept

Discharge Prioritization During a Mass Casualty Incident
Question 3240Question →

A staff nurse is caring for a client with acute delirium who is continuously attempting to pull out their continuous bladder irrigation (CBI) catheter. The nurse determines that physical safety devices may be necessary to prevent injury. Which action must the nurse take first before applying physical restraints?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Implement and document the failure of less restrictive interventions, such as concealing the catheter tubing or providing a distraction device.

Answer

The nurse must first implement and document the failure of less restrictive interventions, such as concealing the catheter tubing or providing a distraction device.
According to standard nursing guidelines and healthcare regulations, physical restraints are an intervention of last resort. The nurse must first attempt, evaluate, and thoroughly document the failure of less restrictive alternatives (such as reorientation, hiding lines, utilizing sitters, or providing diversionary activities) before initiating restraints.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the client's clinical presentation and the immediate risk to their safety.
The client is at risk for injury by attempting to remove the continuous bladder irrigation catheter, prompting the nurse to consider protective measures.
Maintaining client safety and preventing the disruption of essential medical treatments is a high priority.
2
Evaluate the proposed intervention (physical restraints) against standard legal and ethical guidelines.
Restraints are identified as an intervention of last resort with strict regulatory requirements.
CMS and NCLEX standards require that less restrictive alternatives must be attempted and proven ineffective before any restraint is applied.
3
Select the most appropriate initial nursing action based on the requirement for least restrictive measures.
The nurse must trial and document alternatives like concealing the tube, reorientation, or using distraction items.
This complies with safety protocols and protects the client from the potential physical and psychological harm of unnecessary restraint.

Key Concept

Least Restrictive Environment and Restraint Alternatives
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