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Question 3241Question →

At exactly 5 minutes of life, a newborn is assessed by the delivery room team. The documented findings include: an apical pulse of 94 beats per minute, weak and irregular respirations, slight flexion of the arms and legs, a strong sneeze in response to bulb suctioning of the nares, and completely pink skin over the entire body.

Based on these findings, what is the infant's total Apgar score?

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Answer: 7

Answer

The infant's total Apgar score is 7.
The Apgar scoring system evaluates five parameters on a scale of 0 to 2. A heart rate under 100 bpm (1 point), weak respirations (1 point), and slight extremity flexion (1 point) indicate some transitional difficulty. However, a vigorous sneeze (2 points) and completely pink skin (2 points) reflect excellent reflex irritability and oxygenation. The sum of these parameters is exactly 7.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Evaluate Heart Rate
1 point
An apical pulse of 94 is less than 100 beats per minute.
2
Evaluate Respiratory Effort
1 point
Respirations are weak and irregular, rather than a robust cry.
3
Evaluate Muscle Tone
1 point
There is only slight flexion of the arms and legs, without active motion.
4
Evaluate Reflex Irritability
2 points
A strong sneeze in response to suctioning demonstrates a vigorous reflex response.
5
Evaluate Skin Color
2 points
The skin is completely pink over the entire body, with no cyanosis present.
6
Calculate total score
7 points
Summing all assigned points (1 + 1 + 1 + 2 + 2) provides the final Apgar score.

Key Concept

Apgar Score Calculation and Interpretation
Question 3242Question →

A client recovering from an ischemic stroke has residual dysphagia and requires assistance with oral intake. The nurse is planning interventions to prevent complications during feeding. Which of the following actions is the most appropriate for the nurse to implement?

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Answer: Maintain the client in a high-Fowler's position for 30 to 45 minutes following the completion of the meal.

Answer

The most appropriate action is to maintain the client in an upright, high-Fowler's position for 30 to 45 minutes after the meal.
Keeping the client in a high-Fowler's position (at least 90 degrees) for 30 to 45 minutes after eating uses gravity to facilitate the passage of food through the gastrointestinal tract and significantly reduces the risk of gastroesophageal reflux and subsequent aspiration.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the client's primary risk factor based on the clinical presentation.
The client has dysphagia following a stroke, placing them at high risk for aspiration pneumonia.
Recognizing the primary safety risk dictates which basic care and comfort interventions must be prioritized.
2
Select the intervention that directly mitigates the identified risk.
The nurse chooses to position the client upright after eating.
Maintaining a high-Fowler's position utilizes gravity to prevent the backflow of gastric contents, effectively protecting the airway.

Key Concept

Aspiration Precautions and Safe Positioning
Question 3243Question →

A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving a packed red blood cell (PRBC) transfusion. Fifteen minutes after the transfusion begins, the client reports sudden chills and lower back pain. In what order should the nurse perform the following actions to minimize the client's risk of further injury? Arrange the steps from first to last.

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Answer

The correct sequence is: Stop the transfusion, initiate a normal saline infusion with new tubing, assess vital signs, notify the provider and blood bank, and return the blood bag to the blood bank.
When a client exhibits signs of a blood transfusion reaction (such as sudden chills and lower back pain), the immediate priority is to stop the transfusion to prevent further exposure. Next, the nurse must maintain IV access by infusing normal saline through completely new tubing (to avoid flushing residual blood from the old tubing into the client). With safety measures in place, the nurse then assesses the client's vital signs and respiratory status to determine clinical stability. Following the assessment, the healthcare provider and blood bank are notified so that emergency treatments can be ordered. Finally, the blood bag and tubing are returned to the blood bank for testing.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the complication.
The client's chills and lower back pain indicate a potential acute hemolytic transfusion reaction.
Recognizing the signs of a severe reaction is necessary to initiate emergency risk reduction measures.
2
Determine the most critical immediate intervention.
The nurse must stop the blood transfusion first.
Halting the infusion of the offending agent immediately minimizes the amount of incompatible blood the client receives, directly reducing physiological risk.
3
Determine the subsequent sequence of actions to maintain safety and report the event.
The nurse changes the IV tubing to run normal saline, then assesses vital signs, notifies the provider, and sends the blood back.
New tubing prevents infusing residual blood. Vital signs guide further medical interventions ordered by the provider. Returning the blood allows for necessary laboratory analysis.

Key Concept

Blood Transfusion Reaction Protocol
Question 3244Question →

An older adult client with advanced Parkinson's disease is receiving continuous enteral nutrition via a percutaneous endoscopic gastrostomy (PEG) tube. The client has a stage 2 sacral pressure injury and is exhibiting new-onset restlessness. The nurse needs to lower the head of the bed to reposition the client to a lateral position for pressure relief. Which action is the priority for the nurse to implement?

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Answer: Pause the continuous enteral feeding pump before lowering the head of the bed.

Answer

Pause the continuous enteral feeding pump before lowering the head of the bed.
Pausing the continuous enteral feeding before lowering the head of the bed is a critical safety measure to prevent regurgitation and pulmonary aspiration. Even though the client has a percutaneous endoscopic gastrostomy (PEG) tube rather than a nasogastric tube, the risk of aspiration remains high if the client is placed in a flat position while the stomach is being filled. Furthermore, the nurse must personally assess the client's new-onset restlessness prior to proceeding with delegable basic care.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the client's current interventions and the planned procedure.
The client is receiving continuous PEG tube feeding and needs the head of the bed lowered for repositioning.
Identifying the interaction between the feeding and the flat position highlights the primary physiological risk.
2
Evaluate the risk of aspiration associated with enteral feedings.
Lowering the head of the bed while a continuous feeding is infusing significantly increases the risk of regurgitation and pulmonary aspiration.
Even with a PEG tube, gastric contents can reflux if the gastroesophageal sphincter relaxes, making the supine or flat lateral position dangerous during active feeding.
3
Determine the required nursing intervention prior to the procedure.
The nurse must pause the enteral feeding pump before lowering the bed to ensure airway safety.
Airway protection and aspiration prevention take priority in basic care and mobility procedures.

Key Concept

Aspiration Prevention during Enteral Feeding and Positioning
Question 3245Question →

A hospital's rapid response team is deactivated after stabilizing a client, and the primary nurse returns to the general care environment where several safety-related events are occurring simultaneously. Which event represents the greatest immediate threat to client safety and dictates the nurse's immediate priority?

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Answer: An unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) is actively feeding a client who sustained a severe ischemic stroke and is now exhibiting a wet, gurgling voice.

Answer

The nurse must first intervene with the unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) who is feeding the stroke client with a wet, gurgling voice.
The situation involving the UAP feeding the stroke client represents an active, immediate threat to the client's airway. A brainstem infarction carries a high risk of dysphagia, and a wet, gurgling voice is a cardinal sign of aspiration. According to the ABCs (Airway, Breathing, Circulation) of prioritization, an active airway threat takes absolute precedence over infection control breaches, restraint protocols, or fall risks. Furthermore, initial feeding and swallowing assessments must be performed by a registered nurse or speech-language pathologist, making this a dangerous, improper delegation.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the core safety hazard or protocol breach occurring in each of the four simultaneous scenarios.
Scenario 1: Airway threat and improper delegation. Scenario 2: Violation of restraint protocols. Scenario 3: Breach of airborne infection isolation precautions. Scenario 4: Immediate fall risk.
Understanding the nature and physiological impact of each error is the first step in clinical prioritization.
2
Apply the ABCs (Airway, Breathing, Circulation) framework and Maslow's Hierarchy of Needs to rank the hazards.
The stroke client being fed has a wet, gurgling voice, which is a cardinal sign of active aspiration (Airway). The bed exit alarm is a safety/circulation risk (Falls). The isolation breach is an infection risk. The restraint issue is a legal/protocol violation.
Prioritization frameworks dictate that immediate physiological threats to life, specifically airway compromises, must be addressed before safety, infection control, or procedural issues.
3
Select the intervention that addresses the highest-ranked hazard.
The nurse must immediately stop the UAP from feeding the stroke client to clear the airway and prevent fatal aspiration or respiratory failure.
Stopping an active aspiration event takes precedence over responding to a potential fall, correcting PPE usage, or enforcing restraint documentation.

Key Concept

Prioritization of Safety Hazards (ABCs and Delegation)
Question 3246Question →

Match each clinical scenario with the most appropriate primary transmission-based or standard precaution category required for the client's safe care.

Click a left item, then click its matching right item

Items

A client admitted with severe coughing and a confirmed diagnosis of Mycoplasma pneumoniae.
A client with a draining surgical wound that has cultured positive for Vancomycin-resistant enterococcus (VRE).
A client presenting with a high fever, Koplik spots, and a confirmed diagnosis of Rubeola (measles).
A client with a history of chronic Hepatitis C admitted for a routine laparoscopic cholecystectomy.

Matches

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Answer

Mycoplasma pneumoniae matches with Droplet Precautions; VRE in a draining wound matches with Contact Precautions; Rubeola matches with Airborne Precautions; and Hepatitis C matches with Standard Precautions.
Each precaution category perfectly aligns with the pathogen's mode of transmission. Mycoplasma is droplet-based, VRE is contact-based, Measles is airborne, and Hepatitis C is a bloodborne illness requiring only standard safeguards during routine care.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the transmission mode of Mycoplasma pneumoniae.
Identified as a pathogen transmitted via large respiratory droplets.
Large droplets do not remain suspended in the air, meaning Droplet Precautions (surgical mask) are appropriate.
2
Analyze the transmission mode of Vancomycin-resistant enterococcus (VRE) in a draining wound.
Identified as a multi-drug resistant organism transmitted by direct physical contact or contact with contaminated surfaces.
Direct contact with the client or their immediate environment requires Contact Precautions (gown and gloves).
3
Analyze the transmission mode of Rubeola (measles).
Identified as a pathogen transmitted via airborne aerosolized nuclei.
Aerosolized particles remain suspended in the air over long distances, requiring a negative-pressure room and an N95 respirator (Airborne Precautions).
4
Analyze the transmission mode of Hepatitis C.
Identified as a bloodborne pathogen.
Bloodborne pathogens are not transmitted through casual contact or respiratory droplets. Standard precautions apply for routine care.

Key Concept

Standard and Transmission-Based Precautions
Question 3247Question →

A nurse is performing a 1-hour postpartum assessment on a client who had a spontaneous vaginal delivery. The nurse notes heavy vaginal bleeding, and the uterine fundus is palpated as soft, boggy, and displaced to the right of the umbilicus. Arrange the following nursing actions in the correct priority sequence from first to last.

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Answer

The correct priority sequence is to first massage the uterine fundus, then assist the client to empty her bladder, administer a prescribed uterotonic medication, notify the healthcare provider, and finally document the findings.
In the setting of a boggy and deviated fundus, the nurse must prioritize immediate physiological stabilization. The first action is always to perform fundal massage to stimulate contraction and slow active hemorrhage. Next, the underlying cause of the deviation (a distended bladder) must be addressed by assisting the client to void or catheterizing. If these non-pharmacological measures are insufficient, administering a prescribed uterotonic is the next logical step to ensure sustained contraction. Escalation to the healthcare provider follows if the client remains unstable, and documentation is completed once the clinical emergency is managed.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Massage the uterine fundus.
Stimulates the uterine muscle fibers to contract.
The most common cause of postpartum hemorrhage is uterine atony. Direct physical stimulation through massage is the most immediate and effective way to initiate contraction and slow bleeding.
2
Assist the client to empty her bladder.
Allows the uterus to return to its midline position and contract fully.
A fundus displaced to the right indicates a distended bladder. A full bladder physically prevents the uterus from contracting, contributing to ongoing atony.
3
Administer a prescribed as-needed uterotonic medication.
Provides pharmacological support for uterine contraction.
If mechanical stimulation and bladder emptying are insufficient to maintain uterine tone, medications are necessary to control the bleeding.
4
Notify the healthcare provider.
Escalates the level of care.
If the client's bleeding is not controlled by standard nursing interventions, medical evaluation is required for potential surgical or advanced medical management.
5
Document the assessment findings and interventions.
Creates a legal and medical record of the event.
Accurate documentation ensures continuity of care but is a lower priority than direct client stabilization.

Key Concept

Management of Postpartum Hemorrhage and Uterine Atony
Question 3248Question →

A rapid response team transfers an adult client with severe sepsis to the critical care unit. The client has a newly established multilumen central venous catheter (CVC) and is receiving a continuous intravenous (IV) infusion of norepinephrine. To safely manage this pharmacological therapy and the client's hemodynamic status, which interventions should the nurse implement? (Select all that apply.)

Select all that apply

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Answer: Titrate the continuous infusion rate to maintain a mean arterial pressure (MAP) of at least 65 mm Hg.; Evaluate the client's distal extremities frequently for changes in capillary refill, pulse quality, and skin temperature.; Monitor the client's electrocardiogram (ECG) continuously for the development of medication-induced tachyarrhythmias.

Answer

The correct interventions are titrating the infusion to maintain a MAP of at least 65 mm Hg, evaluating distal extremities for adequate perfusion, and continuously monitoring the ECG for tachyarrhythmias.
Norepinephrine is a potent alpha- and beta-adrenergic agonist used in distributive shock to increase systemic vascular resistance and cardiac output. The therapeutic goal is to maintain a mean arterial pressure (MAP) of 65 mm Hg or greater to ensure adequate perfusion of vital organs. Because of its potent vasoconstrictive effects, peripheral ischemia is a significant risk, necessitating frequent evaluation of capillary refill, pulses, and skin temperature. Additionally, its beta-1 stimulating properties increase myocardial oxygen demand and the risk of potentially life-threatening tachyarrhythmias, making continuous ECG monitoring essential.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the primary therapeutic goal of the norepinephrine infusion.
The goal is to increase systemic vascular resistance and cardiac output.
Maintaining a MAP of at least 65 mm Hg is the established standard to ensure blood flow reaches vital organs during distributive shock states.
2
Assess potential adverse physiological effects of the pharmacological therapy.
Norepinephrine's alpha-1 and beta-1 agonism causes intense peripheral vasoconstriction and cardiac stimulation.
This necessitates frequent monitoring of peripheral extremities for ischemia and continuous ECG monitoring for tachyarrhythmias to prevent severe complications.
3
Evaluate the incorrect interventions against principles of safe parenteral therapy and shock management.
Decreased urine output, unverified IV co-administration, and high Fowler's positioning are identified as unsafe or incorrect.
Inadequate urine output indicates worsening shock. Co-administration of IV meds requires compatibility verification to prevent precipitation or bolusing of the pressor. High Fowler's positioning exacerbates hypotension by reducing venous return.

Key Concept

Safe administration, hemodynamic targeting, and continuous monitoring of vasoactive parenteral therapies in the critically ill client.
Question 3249Question →

A nurse is preparing to collect a blood specimen for a comprehensive metabolic panel (CMP) from a patient's multi-lumen central venous catheter (CVC). The patient is currently receiving continuous total parenteral nutrition (TPN) through the distal lumen, and the nurse plans to use the proximal lumen for the blood draw. Arrange the following actions in the correct sequential order to ensure accurate laboratory results and maintain catheter patency.

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Answer

The correct sequence is: Pause the TPN infusion, scrub the hub, flush and withdraw the waste sample, draw the required specimen, flush the line vigorously, and finally restart the TPN infusion.
Accurate blood sampling from a multi-lumen central venous catheter requires a strict aseptic and procedural sequence to prevent diagnostic contamination and line occlusion. Pausing continuous infusions (like TPN) prevents false lab alterations. Scrubbing the hub ensures asepsis. Wasting the initial blood clears the catheter dead space. Drawing the sample provides the clean specimen. Vigorously flushing clears viscous red blood cells to prevent clotting. Finally, restarting the TPN ensures therapeutic continuity.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Pause continuous infusions
TPN is temporarily stopped
Prevents artificial elevation of lab values (e.g., severe hyperglycemia in the sample) due to contamination from the infusing solution.
2
Scrub the hub
Needleless connector is disinfected
Reduces the risk of Central Line-Associated Bloodstream Infections (CLABSI).
3
Flush and discard waste
Catheter dead space is cleared
Removes residual flush fluid and medication that would otherwise dilute or contaminate the diagnostic sample.
4
Draw required specimen
Pure blood sample is obtained
Provides the laboratory with an accurate, systemic blood sample for the CMP.
5
Flush with pulsatile technique
Blood is completely cleared from the lumen
Creates turbulence to prevent fibrin buildup, clotting, and long-term catheter occlusion.
6
Restart infusions
TPN therapy resumes
Ensures the patient continues to receive their prescribed, necessary parenteral nutrition without prolonged interruption.

Key Concept

Central Venous Catheter Blood Draw and Parenteral Nutrition Management
Estimated Time:2m 0s
Question 3250Question →

Appropriate client positioning is crucial for minimizing physiological risks during and after clinical interventions. Which clinical situations are correctly paired with their required therapeutic position? Select all that apply.

Select all that apply

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Answer: Administering a cleansing enema: Left lateral Sims position.; Assisting during a thoracentesis procedure: Sitting upright while leaning forward over a supported bedside table.; Monitoring immediately after a thyroidectomy: Semi-Fowler's alignment avoiding neck hyperextension.

Answer

The correctly paired interventions are placing the client in a left lateral Sims position for an enema, sitting upright and leaning forward for a thoracentesis, and maintaining a semi-Fowler's position after a thyroidectomy.
The left lateral Sims position optimally utilizes gravity for enema administration. Sitting upright and leaning forward widens the intercostal spaces to facilitate a safe thoracentesis and prevent lung puncture. A semi-Fowler's position after a thyroidectomy promotes venous return to decrease edema around the airway while keeping the neck neutral to avoid straining the suture line.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the goal of minimizing physiological risks during clinical interventions.
Recognize that the question requires identifying which client positions are therapeutically correct and safe for the given procedures.
Correct positioning prevents severe complications such as aspiration, shock exacerbation, or respiratory distress.
2
Evaluate the correctness of the safe positions.
Identify that the Sims position for an enema, sitting forward for thoracentesis, and semi-Fowler's for thyroidectomy are all standard, safe practices.
These positions align with anatomical needs, such as expanding intercostal spaces or promoting venous return without straining surgical incisions.
3
Identify the contraindicated positions.
Determine that a high Fowler's position worsens hypovolemic shock and a flat supine position increases aspiration risk during tube feedings.
Recognizing unsafe practices is essential for the reduction of risk potential and ensuring patient safety.

Key Concept

Therapeutic Client Positioning for Risk Reduction
Question 3251Question →

A medical-surgical nurse discovers that a client with a history of hypertension mistakenly received another client's prescribed dose of oral metoprolol. Arrange the following nursing actions in the correct sequence from highest to lowest priority.

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Answer

The correct sequence is to first assess the client's vital signs, then notify the healthcare provider, implement any new orders, inform the client of the error, and finally complete the internal incident report.
In the event of a medication error, the absolute first priority is patient safety, which requires immediate physical assessment (vital signs). Armed with this data, the nurse contacts the healthcare provider to report the error and receive corrective orders. Those orders are then implemented. Once the client's safety is managed, ethical disclosure to the client occurs. Finally, an incident report is filed for the facility's risk management protocols, making it the lowest priority.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Assess the client's apical heart rate and blood pressure.
Establishes the client's baseline physiological status.
The nurse must immediately determine if the client is experiencing adverse clinical effects from the unintended beta-blocker, such as severe bradycardia or hypotension.
2
Notify the primary healthcare provider of the incorrect medication administration.
Informs the provider of the error alongside the client's current vital signs.
The provider needs accurate, current assessment data to make informed decisions about necessary medical interventions.
3
Implement any newly prescribed corrective interventions or monitoring.
Provides immediate medical treatment or heightened surveillance.
Prompt execution of the provider's new orders (such as initiating continuous cardiac monitoring or administering an antidote) is critical to mitigate the effects of the error.
4
Disclose the occurrence of the medication error to the client.
Fulfills ethical and legal obligations for transparency in patient care.
After physiological safety is secured, the nurse (often in collaboration with the provider or charge nurse) must honestly inform the client about the error.
5
Submit an objective variance report to the risk management department.
Documents the error for institutional quality improvement purposes.
Filing an incident report helps the facility identify systemic flaws to prevent future errors, but this administrative task should never delay direct patient care.

Key Concept

Nursing priorities following a medication error follow a strict sequence: Assessment, Provider Notification, Corrective Intervention, Client Disclosure, and Administrative Documentation.
Question 3252Question →

A nurse is establishing the infection control plan for a client admitted with confirmed seasonal influenza. Which of the following transmission-based precautions should the nurse implement? (Select all that apply.)

Select all that apply

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Answer: Don a surgical mask immediately upon entering the client's room.; Place a surgical mask on the client if transport to the radiology department is necessary.; Wear an N95 respirator and eye protection if assisting with endotracheal intubation.

Answer

The correct interventions are to don a surgical mask upon room entry, place a surgical mask on the client during transport, and use an N95 respirator with eye protection during aerosol-generating procedures.
Influenza requires droplet precautions. Essential actions include wearing a surgical mask upon room entry and applying a mask to the client during transport for source control. Furthermore, standard protocols must be escalated during aerosol-generating procedures (like intubation) by utilizing an N95 respirator and eye protection to prevent inhalation of aerosolized viral particles.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the transmission route for the pathogen.
Seasonal influenza is transmitted via large respiratory droplets, requiring Droplet Precautions.
Determining the correct category of precautions dictates the required personal protective equipment (PPE) and environmental controls.
2
Determine the standard protocols for Droplet Precautions.
Droplet precautions mandate a private room (or cohorting with the exact same infection) and wearing a surgical mask upon room entry.
Large droplets typically travel 3 to 6 feet before falling to surfaces, so a mask is required immediately upon entering the space.
3
Evaluate transport and cohorting protocols.
The client must wear a standard surgical mask when leaving the room. The client cannot be cohorted with a client who has a different infection.
Source control (masking the client) prevents environmental contamination. Cohorting different pathogens causes healthcare-associated infections.
4
Assess exceptions for high-risk procedures.
Aerosol-generating procedures (like intubation) turn large droplets into small aerosols, requiring an upgrade to Airborne Precautions (N95 respirator).
Standard surgical masks do not filter out small aerosolized particles.

Key Concept

Droplet Precautions and Aerosol-Generating Exceptions
Question 3253Question →

A 45-year-old client arrives at the surgical step-down unit directly from the post-anesthesia care unit following a total thyroidectomy for hyperthyroidism. To effectively reduce the risk of postoperative complications, which actions are essential for the nurse to implement? Select all that apply.

Select all that apply

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Answer: Ensure a tracheostomy tray and functioning suction equipment are immediately accessible at the bedside.; Assess for reports of numbness around the mouth and check for a positive Chvostek's sign.; Promptly report the development of high-pitched, harsh inspiratory sounds to the healthcare provider.

Answer

The essential actions are to ensure emergency airway equipment is at the bedside, assess for hypocalcemia (circumoral numbness and Chvostek's sign), and immediately report any signs of stridor (harsh inspiratory sounds) to the healthcare provider.
The correct interventions directly target the most severe and common risks following a total thyroidectomy: airway compromise and hypocalcemia. Because postoperative swelling or a rapidly expanding hematoma can quickly occlude the airway, having suction and an emergency tracheostomy tray readily available is mandatory. Furthermore, the development of stridor indicates critical airway narrowing and demands immediate reporting. Finally, because the parathyroid glands regulate calcium and are anatomically adjacent to the thyroid, they are vulnerable to injury or accidental excision, making frequent assessments for hypocalcemia (e.g., Chvostek's sign, perioral numbness) essential.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the anatomical risks associated with the surgical procedure.
A total thyroidectomy involves the neck, creating high risks for airway compression from edema or bleeding, and accidental parathyroid gland removal.
Identifying the physiological structures involved dictates the priority complications to monitor.
2
Identify interventions that protect the respiratory system.
Maintaining bedside tracheostomy/suction equipment and vigilantly monitoring for stridor are selected as correct actions.
Airway patency is the highest priority (ABCs). Stridor is a late and dangerous sign of obstruction.
3
Determine the metabolic risks and corresponding assessments.
Assessing for hypocalcemia via perioral tingling and Chvostek's sign is selected as a correct action.
Parathyroid injury leads to rapid calcium depletion, risking tetany and seizures.
4
Evaluate the remaining options against safety and delegation standards.
Supine positioning and delegating post-operative complication assessments to UAP are identified as unsafe practices.
Supine positioning exacerbates airway edema, and assessing for hemorrhage requires an RN's clinical judgment.

Key Concept

Postoperative Thyroidectomy Complication Management
Estimated Time:1m 0s
Question 3254Question →

The nurse is assisting a client with a known seizure disorder to ambulate down the unit hallway. Suddenly, the client loses consciousness, their body stiffens, and they begin to experience a generalized tonic-clonic seizure. Which of the following is the nurse's immediate priority action to prevent client injury?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Ease the client safely to the floor and place a soft cushion or rolled blanket under their head.

Answer

The correct action is to ease the client safely to the floor and place a soft cushion or rolled blanket under their head.
The immediate priority during a tonic-clonic seizure, especially when the client is standing or walking, is to prevent trauma from a fall. Easing the client to the floor and protecting their head from striking hard surfaces directly mitigates the highest risk of acute injury.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Assess the immediate environment and the client's current position.
The client is standing in a hallway and actively beginning a tonic-clonic seizure.
Recognizing the risk of an uncontrolled fall helps prioritize immediate physical safety interventions.
2
Guide the client to the lowest possible surface (the floor).
The client is safely positioned supine or lateral on the floor.
Preventing a high-impact fall from a standing position mitigates the risk of traumatic brain injury or fractures.
3
Protect the client's head and clear the immediate area of hard objects.
A rolled blanket is placed under the head.
Rhythmic tonic-clonic movements can cause repeated blunt trauma to the head if it strikes the hard floor.

Key Concept

During an active seizure, nursing priorities focus on injury prevention by clearing the environment, safely lowering the client to the floor, protecting the head, and avoiding any physical restraint or insertion of objects into the mouth.
Estimated Time:1m 0s
Question 3255Question →

A multiparous client at 41 weeks gestation is receiving a continuous intravenous oxytocin infusion for labor induction. External monitoring reveals a fetal heart rate baseline of 135 beats per minute with minimal variability. During the past 15 minutes, the nurse observes recurrent, uniform drops in the fetal heart rate that begin after the acme of each contraction and do not recover to baseline until the contraction has entirely finished. What is the priority nursing action at this time?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Stop the continuous intravenous oxytocin infusion immediately.

Answer

Stop the continuous intravenous oxytocin infusion immediately.
The scenario describes late decelerations, which occur when fetal heart rate drops begin after the peak of a contraction and recover after the contraction ends. This indicates uteroplacental insufficiency, a potentially life-threatening condition for the fetus. The immediate priority is intrauterine resuscitation. Because oxytocin strongly stimulates uterine contractions and restricts placental blood flow, stopping the infusion is the most direct and crucial first step to improve fetal oxygenation.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the fetal heart rate tracing described in the clinical scenario.
The fetal heart rate drops initiate after the peak (acme) of the contraction and do not recover until after the contraction is over.
Identifying the timing of decelerations relative to the uterine contraction cycle is essential to determine the physiological cause.
2
Correlate the observed pattern with its clinical significance.
The pattern indicates late decelerations, which signify uteroplacental insufficiency and potential fetal hypoxemia.
Late decelerations are non-reassuring indicators that placental perfusion is inadequate during contractions.
3
Determine the highest priority nursing intervention for this acute complication.
The first step in intrauterine resuscitation is to stop the oxytocin infusion.
Oxytocin stimulates uterine contractions, which compress maternal blood vessels and decrease blood flow to the fetus. Discontinuing the infusion directly mitigates the underlying cause of the compromised blood flow.

Key Concept

Intrauterine Resuscitation and Fetal Heart Rate Interpretation
Question 3256Question →

A nurse is instructing a client with left-sided hemiparesis on how to safely descend stairs using a quad cane. The client holds the cane in the right hand. In what order should the nurse instruct the client to perform the following actions to step down?

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Answer

The correct sequence for descending stairs with a cane is to first stabilize weight on the strong leg, lower the cane, move the weak leg down to the cane, shift weight to the cane and weak leg, and finally bring the strong leg down to join them.
The correct sequence follows the standard principle of 'down with the bad' for descending stairs with an assistive device. The sequence prioritizes stability by shifting weight to the strong side and moving the cane first to establish a new base of support. The affected (weak) leg is then lowered while the unaffected (strong) leg remains safely on the upper step to bear the body weight. Only after the weight is safely distributed between the cane and the affected leg on the lower step does the unaffected leg step down. This sequence minimizes the risk of the weak leg buckling under the full body weight.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Shift body weight entirely to the unaffected right leg.
The body is stabilized, allowing movement of the cane and affected leg.
Ensures a secure base of support before initiating the transfer of assistive devices.
2
Advance the quad cane down to the next step.
The cane is securely positioned on the lower level.
Provides a wide base of support on the new level before any vulnerable movement occurs.
3
Lower the affected left leg down to the step with the cane.
The weak leg is safely moved to the lower step.
The weak leg is moved while maximum support is provided by the strong leg (above) and the cane (below).
4
Transfer body weight to the cane and the affected left leg.
The strong leg is freed to move.
The weight must be shifted forward and down onto the established supports to allow the final step.
5
Step down with the unaffected right leg to the same lower step.
Both feet and the cane are now secure on the lower step.
Completes the descent of one step while minimizing the time the weak leg bears independent weight.

Key Concept

Safe stair descent using a cane ('Down with the bad' principle)
Estimated Time:1m 30s
Question 3257Question →

During the admission assessment of a client with severe gastroenteritis, the laboratory reports a critically low serum potassium level of 2.2 mEq/L2.2\text{ mEq/L}. The electronic health record displays a stat prescription for 40 mEq40\text{ mEq} of potassium chloride in 100 mL100\text{ mL} of 0.9%0.9\% sodium chloride, to be infused intravenously over 60 minutes60\text{ minutes}. The client is connected to continuous cardiac monitoring and has a 20-gauge peripheral intravenous catheter in the right forearm. Which clinical action should the nurse take next?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Contact the prescribing provider to request a central venous access device or a reduced infusion rate.

Answer

The nurse must contact the prescribing provider to question the prescription because infusing 40 mEq/hr40\text{ mEq/hr} of potassium chloride through a peripheral line is unsafe and requires central venous access.
Intravenous potassium chloride is a high-alert vesicant medication. To prevent severe vein irritation, phlebitis, and cardiac arrhythmias, the maximum recommended peripheral infusion rate is 10 mEq/hr10\text{ mEq/hr} (up to 20 mEq/hr20\text{ mEq/hr} in some facilities with central monitoring, but rarely higher peripherally). Rates of 40 mEq/hr40\text{ mEq/hr} require administration through a central venous catheter alongside continuous cardiac monitoring. Because the client only has a 20-gauge peripheral line, the nurse must intervene and question the order to prevent patient harm.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the prescribed medication dose, route, and rate against established safety parameters for the drug.
The prescription is for 40 mEq40\text{ mEq} of potassium chloride to infuse over 1 hour (40 mEq/hr40\text{ mEq/hr}) via a peripheral intravenous line.
Intravenous potassium chloride is a high-alert medication with strict administration guidelines to prevent tissue damage and cardiac arrest.
2
Evaluate the risks associated with the prescribed peripheral infusion rate.
Infusing potassium chloride at 40 mEq/hr40\text{ mEq/hr} through a peripheral vein exceeds the maximum safe peripheral rate of 10 mEq/hr10\text{ mEq/hr}.
Potassium chloride is a severe vesicant. High concentrations require larger central vessels with rapid blood flow to ensure immediate hemodilution and prevent chemical phlebitis or necrosis.
3
Determine the priority nursing intervention based on the identified safety risk.
The nurse must withhold the infusion and advocate for the client by requesting either a central venous catheter or a slower infusion rate.
Nurses have a legal and ethical duty to question and halt unsafe medication orders before administration.

Key Concept

Safe administration parameters and vascular access requirements for high-alert parenteral medications (Potassium Chloride)
Question 3258Question →

A healthcare provider is preparing to enter the negative-pressure isolation room of a client with suspected severe acute respiratory syndrome (SARS). The client requires airborne and contact precautions, along with standard precautions and eye protection. Arrange the following steps for donning personal protective equipment (PPE) in the correct chronological sequence according to Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) guidelines.

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Answer

The correct sequence is: perform hand hygiene, put on the isolation gown, apply the N95 respirator, place the eye protection, and finally don the gloves.
The correct sequence (Hand hygiene, Gown, Respirator, Eye protection, Gloves) strictly follows established CDC infection control guidelines designed to ensure healthcare worker safety, maintain the integrity of the PPE barrier, and prevent contamination.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Determine the starting action required for any aseptic or clean procedural protocol.
Perform hand hygiene.
Hands must be clean before touching and applying clean PPE to prevent transfer of pathogens.
2
Sequence the primary body coverage layer.
Put on the isolation gown.
The gown covers the torso and arms, creating the primary barrier that other items will overlap.
3
Sequence the respiratory and facial protection.
Apply the N95 respirator first, followed by eye protection.
The respirator must secure tightly to the face for an effective seal; applying eye protection first would disrupt the respirator straps and seal.
4
Determine the final step to secure the extremity barrier.
Don gloves and pull them over the gown cuffs.
Applying gloves last allows them to overlap the gown cuffs, creating a seamless seal at the wrists.

Key Concept

The CDC standardized sequence for donning PPE is: Hand Hygiene -> Gown -> Mask/Respirator -> Goggles/Face Shield -> Gloves. This sequence maximizes barrier efficacy and prevents contamination of the equipment.
Estimated Time:1m 15s
Question 3259Question →

A nurse is continuously monitoring a client who is receiving an intravenous infusion of doxorubicin, a known vesicant, via a peripheral catheter. The client suddenly reports severe burning pain at the insertion site, and the nurse observes localized swelling and erythema. To reduce the risk of severe tissue necrosis, in what order should the nurse perform the following interventions?

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Answer

The correct sequence is to first stop the infusion, then disconnect the IV tubing, aspirate residual medication from the catheter, remove the IV catheter, and finally elevate the extremity and apply a cold compress.
The sequence follows the standard oncology protocol for vesicant extravasation: immediately stop the infusion to prevent further harm, disconnect the line, leave the cannula in place temporarily to aspirate residual drug from the subcutaneous pocket, remove the cannula, and apply appropriate thermal therapy (cold for doxorubicin) to localize the drug.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Stop the vesicant infusion immediately.
Halts further exposure of the subcutaneous tissue to the cytotoxic agent.
The priority in any extravasation event is to mitigate further physiological harm by stopping the source.
2
Disconnect the IV tubing from the catheter.
Separates the primary medication bag and tubing from the client.
Prevents accidental delivery of additional medication remaining in the administration set.
3
Attach a syringe and aspirate blood/medication from the hub.
Extracts residual doxorubicin from the catheter and the immediate subcutaneous pocket.
Reduces the total vesicant volume in the localized tissue, which directly reduces the extent of subsequent necrosis.
4
Remove the peripheral IV catheter.
Discontinues the compromised access site.
The cannula is removed only after aspiration to prevent tracking the vesicant upward through the tissue layers upon removal.
5
Elevate the extremity and apply a cold compress.
Causes local vasoconstriction.
Cold therapy localizes the doxorubicin (an anthracycline) and reduces cellular uptake, containing tissue damage.

Key Concept

Management of Vesicant Extravasation to Reduce Tissue Necrosis Risk
Question 3260Question →

A nurse is assessing a client who is 4 hours postoperative following an abdominal hysterectomy. Which of the following findings is the earliest indicator that the client may be developing hemorrhagic shock?

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Answer: An increase in heart rate from 78 to 114 beats per minute

Answer

An increase in heart rate from 78 to 114 beats per minute is the earliest indicator of hemorrhagic shock.
An increasing heart rate (tachycardia) is the body's initial compensatory response to a decrease in intravascular volume. It is the most reliable early indicator of impending hemorrhagic shock, occurring before a drop in blood pressure or changes in mental status.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the client's clinical context and postoperative risk factors.
The client recently underwent major abdominal surgery and is at risk for internal bleeding and hypovolemia.
Identifying the primary risk guides the nurse's focused assessment for potential complications.
2
Recall the physiological progression of hypovolemic shock.
In the early stages, the sympathetic nervous system activates compensatory mechanisms to maintain adequate tissue perfusion before blood pressure drops.
Understanding the timeline of shock helps distinguish early warning signs from late, decompensated signs.
3
Identify the earliest measurable compensatory sign from the given options.
An increased heart rate (tachycardia) is the initial cardiovascular response to decreased blood volume.
The heart beats faster to compensate for the lower stroke volume in an attempt to maintain an adequate cardiac output.

Key Concept

Early Indicators of Hypovolemic Shock
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