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Question 3261Question →

A nurse is receiving handoff report for a client admitted with severe dehydration secondary to confirmed *Clostridioides difficile* (*C. diff*) colitis. The client has experienced six episodes of profuse, watery diarrhea in the past 4 hours. Which transmission-based precautions and nursing interventions should the nurse implement? Select all that apply.

Select all that apply

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Answer: Don a clean isolation gown and nonsterile gloves before entering the client's room.; Place the client in a private room or cohort with another client who has an active *Clostridioides difficile* infection.; Ensure all reusable medical equipment dedicated to the client is disinfected with a bleach-based solution.

Answer

The correct interventions for a client with *Clostridioides difficile* include donning a gown and gloves prior to room entry, placing the client in a private room (or cohorting with another *C. diff* client), and using sporicidal disinfectants like bleach for equipment.
Clients diagnosed with *Clostridioides difficile* require strict contact and enteric precautions. This involves assigning the client to a private room (or cohorting with a client who has the same active infection) and donning an isolation gown and nonsterile gloves before entering the room. Furthermore, because *C. diff* produces highly resilient spores, standard cleaning protocols are inadequate; specialized sporicidal agents, such as bleach-based solutions, must be utilized for disinfecting dedicated medical equipment and environmental surfaces.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the pathogen and its mode of transmission from the clinical vignette.
*C. diff* is transmitted via the contact route through hardy spores found in feces.
Accurate identification of the transmission mode determines the correct tier of isolation precautions required.
2
Select the appropriate personal protective equipment (PPE) and environmental controls for contact precautions.
Contact precautions require wearing a gown and gloves upon entry, assigning a private room, and utilizing dedicated client equipment.
These measures create a physical barrier preventing cross-contamination to healthcare workers and other vulnerable clients.
3
Determine the specific hygiene and cleaning protocols necessary for spore-forming bacteria.
Soap and water must be used for hand hygiene instead of alcohol rubs, and sporicidal agents like bleach must be used for environmental cleaning.
Spores are highly resistant to standard chemical disinfectants and alcohol, requiring physical removal (friction with soap) and specialized sporicides.

Key Concept

Contact and Enteric Precautions for Spore-Forming Pathogens
Question 3262Question →

An emergency pediatric nurse is assigned to perform field triage at the scene of a severe multi-vehicle collision involving a school bus. Utilizing the JumpSTART pediatric mass casualty algorithm, the nurse assesses a 6-year-old victim who is unresponsive and not breathing. After the nurse manually opens the airway, the child remains apneic. Which action should the nurse take next?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Check for a palpable pulse and, if present, administer five rescue breaths.

Answer

Check for a palpable pulse and, if present, administer five rescue breaths.
In the pediatric JumpSTART mass casualty algorithm, children who remain apneic after manual airway positioning are not immediately classified as expectant. Because pediatric cardiac arrest is usually secondary to primary respiratory failure, the nurse must next check for a palpable pulse. If a pulse is present, the nurse delivers 5 rescue breaths. If the child begins breathing, they are tagged RED (immediate); if they remain apneic, or if no pulse is present, they are tagged BLACK (expectant).

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Assess the pediatric victim's initial respiratory status.
The victim is found to be unresponsive and apneic.
Spontaneous breathing is the first physiological parameter assessed in non-ambulatory mass casualty victims.
2
Perform a manual airway maneuver (such as a jaw thrust or head tilt-chin lift).
The victim remains apneic after the airway is opened and cleared.
Positional airway obstruction must be ruled out before determining if the apnea is due to a primary physiological failure.
3
Apply the rules specific to the pediatric JumpSTART algorithm rather than the adult START algorithm.
Unlike adults, children who remain apneic after airway positioning are not immediately categorized as expectant (unsalvageable).
Children often experience primary respiratory arrest that can rapidly respond to brief ventilatory support, whereas adults in trauma-induced cardiac arrest are generally considered unsalvageable in an MCI.
4
Palpate for a peripheral or central pulse to determine the next intervention.
If a pulse is felt, the nurse delivers 5 rescue breaths. If the child begins breathing, they are tagged RED. If they remain apneic after the breaths, or if no pulse was present initially, they are tagged BLACK.
This critical step maximizes pediatric survival rates without committing to full, resource-draining CPR.

Key Concept

Pediatric Mass Casualty Triage (JumpSTART Algorithm)
Question 3263Question →

A nurse is planning care for a client who is 22 days postoperative following a right total hip arthroplasty (posterior approach). Which positioning intervention should the nurse implement to prevent surgical complications?

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Answer: Maintain an abductor pillow between the client's legs while the client is supine.

Answer

Maintain an abductor pillow between the client's legs while the client is supine.
Following a total hip arthroplasty with a posterior approach, the client is at high risk for prosthetic dislocation if the hip is placed in adduction, internal rotation, or flexion of 90∘90^\circ or greater. Maintaining an abductor pillow between the legs while supine or turning effectively prevents adduction and internal rotation, thereby protecting the surgical joint.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the surgical procedure and approach.
The client had a right total hip arthroplasty using a posterior approach.
The surgical approach determines the specific movement restrictions needed to prevent joint dislocation.
2
Recall the standard hip precautions for a posterior approach.
Precautions include avoiding hip flexion of 90∘90^\circ or greater, avoiding adduction across the midline, and avoiding internal rotation.
These positions place extreme stress on the posterior capsule and can cause the new femoral head to dislocate posteriorly.
3
Evaluate the given positioning interventions against the precautions.
Using an abductor pillow prevents adduction and internal rotation, which correctly aligns with the precautions.
The other options involve hip flexion of 90∘90^\circ or more (elevating the head of the bed, bending to put on socks) or internal rotation, all of which are strictly contraindicated.

Key Concept

Total Hip Arthroplasty (Posterior Approach) Precautions
Question 3264Question →

A nurse is preparing to obtain a sterile urine specimen for culture and sensitivity from a client who has a continuous indwelling urinary catheter. Arrange the following steps in the correct order to minimize the risk of infection and ensure an accurate sample.

Drag items to arrange them in the correct order

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Answer

The correct sequence is: Clamp the drainage tubing, cleanse the aspiration port, attach a syringe to aspirate urine, transfer the urine to a sterile container, and finally unclamp the drainage tubing.
To obtain a sterile urine specimen from a closed indwelling catheter system, the nurse must first clamp the tubing below the port to allow fresh urine to collect. Next, the port must be cleansed with an antiseptic to maintain sterility. The nurse then uses a sterile syringe to aspirate the urine, transfers it to a sterile container, and finally unclamps the tubing to allow continuous drainage to resume.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Clamp the drainage tubing below the aspiration port
Fresh urine accumulates in the tubing above the clamp.
Urine in the drainage bag is not sterile and may have been sitting for hours. Clamping ensures a fresh sample is collected from the bladder.
2
Cleanse the aspiration port with an antiseptic wipe
The surface of the port is disinfected.
This prevents the introduction of microorganisms from the port surface into the closed drainage system.
3
Attach a sterile syringe and withdraw the urine sample
A sterile sample of fresh urine is obtained.
Using a sterile syringe maintains the sterility of both the closed catheter system and the urine specimen.
4
Transfer the urine into a sterile specimen container
The sample is secured for laboratory transport.
A sterile container is required for a culture and sensitivity test to accurately identify any urinary pathogens.
5
Unclamp the drainage tubing
Continuous urinary drainage is restored.
Failing to unclamp the tubing can cause bladder distention, discomfort, and potentially harmful retrograde flow of urine.

Key Concept

Maintaining a sterile closed drainage system when obtaining a urine culture from an indwelling catheter reduces the risk of catheter-associated urinary tract infections (CAUTI) and ensures diagnostic accuracy.
Question 3265Question →

A patient with septic shock, weighing 165 lbs165\text{ lbs}, is receiving a continuous intravenous infusion of norepinephrine via a dedicated central venous catheter to minimize the risk of extravasation. The current infusion rate delivers 0.05 mcg/kg/min0.05\text{ mcg/kg/min}. The patient's mean arterial pressure (MAP) is currently 58 mmHg58\text{ mmHg}. The hemodynamic titration protocol prescribes increasing the dose by 0.02 mcg/kg/min0.02\text{ mcg/kg/min} every 5 minutes5\text{ minutes} until the MAP is ≥65 mmHg\ge 65\text{ mmHg}. The medication is supplied as 4 mg4\text{ mg} of norepinephrine in 250 mL250\text{ mL} of 5% dextrose in water (D5W). The nurse prepares to initiate the first titration increment. What should the new infusion pump rate be set at in mL/hr\text{mL/hr}? (Round to the nearest tenth)

Show answer & explanation

Answer: 19.7

Answer

19.7
To find the correct infusion rate, the nurse must first convert the patient's weight to kilograms (75 kg75\text{ kg}) and determine the new dose rate (0.07 mcg/kg/min0.07\text{ mcg/kg/min}). By multiplying the dose by the weight and 60 minutes60\text{ minutes}, the total hourly requirement is found (315 mcg/hr315\text{ mcg/hr}). Dividing this by the medication concentration (16 mcg/mL16\text{ mcg/mL}) yields 19.6875 mL/hr19.6875\text{ mL/hr}, correctly rounded to 19.7 mL/hr19.7\text{ mL/hr}.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Convert the patient's weight from pounds to kilograms.
165÷2.2=75 kg165 \div 2.2 = 75\text{ kg}
Weight-based critical care medication dosing requires metric units.
2
Calculate the new required dose according to the titration protocol.
0.05 mcg/kg/min+0.02 mcg/kg/min=0.07 mcg/kg/min0.05\text{ mcg/kg/min} + 0.02\text{ mcg/kg/min} = 0.07\text{ mcg/kg/min}
The MAP is subtherapeutic (58 mmHg58\text{ mmHg}), so the infusion must be increased by the specified increment.
3
Calculate the total required micrograms per hour.
0.07 mcg/kg/min×75 kg×60 min/hr=315 mcg/hr0.07\text{ mcg/kg/min} \times 75\text{ kg} \times 60\text{ min/hr} = 315\text{ mcg/hr}
Infusion pumps are programmed in mL/hr\text{mL/hr}, so the time unit must be converted from minutes to hours, and the weight factored in.
4
Determine the concentration of the supplied medication in mcg/mL\text{mcg/mL}.
4 mg=4000 mcg4\text{ mg} = 4000\text{ mcg}; 4000 mcg÷250 mL=16 mcg/mL4000\text{ mcg} \div 250\text{ mL} = 16\text{ mcg/mL}
The prescribed dose is in micrograms, so the medication supply must be converted to matching units to find the volume.
5
Calculate the final infusion rate in mL/hr\text{mL/hr} and round to the nearest tenth.
315 mcg/hr÷16 mcg/mL=19.6875 mL/hr315\text{ mcg/hr} \div 16\text{ mcg/mL} = 19.6875\text{ mL/hr}, which rounds to 19.7 mL/hr19.7\text{ mL/hr}
Dividing the hourly dose by the concentration yields the volume per hour required for the pump setting.

Key Concept

Weight-Based Continuous IV Infusion Titration
Question 3266Question →

A nurse is caring for a client with decompensated heart failure who weighs 187 lb187\text{ lb}. The healthcare provider prescribes a continuous IV infusion of dobutamine at 7.5 mcg/kg/min7.5\text{ mcg/kg/min}. The pharmacy dispenses a premixed IV bag containing dobutamine 500 mg500\text{ mg} in 250 mL250\text{ mL} of 5% dextrose in water5\%\text{ dextrose in water}. At what rate, in mL/hr\text{mL/hr}, should the nurse set the IV infusion pump? (Record your answer to the nearest tenth.)

Show answer & explanation

Answer: 19.1

Answer

19.1
The correct pump rate is determined by first calculating the client's total hourly medication requirement in milligrams, and then dividing that amount by the concentration of the prepared intravenous solution to find the volume needed per hour.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Convert the client's weight to kilograms
85 kg85\text{ kg}
Weight-based dosing formulas require the weight in kilograms (187÷2.2=85187 \div 2.2 = 85)
2
Calculate the total dose per minute
637.5 mcg/min637.5\text{ mcg/min}
Multiply the client's weight by the prescribed dose (85×7.5=637.585 \times 7.5 = 637.5)
3
Convert the minute dose to an hourly dose
38,250 mcg/hr38,250\text{ mcg/hr}
Infusion pumps are programmed in mL/hr, so the dose must be per hour (637.5×60=38,250637.5 \times 60 = 38,250)
4
Convert micrograms to milligrams
38.25 mg/hr38.25\text{ mg/hr}
The dispensed medication is measured in milligrams, so units must match (38,250÷1,000=38.2538,250 \div 1,000 = 38.25)
5
Determine the concentration of the IV solution
2 mg/mL2\text{ mg/mL}
Divide the total milligrams by the total volume in the bag (500÷250=2500 \div 250 = 2)
6
Calculate the final infusion rate
19.125 mL/hr19.125\text{ mL/hr}
Divide the hourly dose by the fluid concentration (38.25÷2=19.12538.25 \div 2 = 19.125)
7
Round the final answer
19.1 mL/hr19.1\text{ mL/hr}
The question requires rounding to the nearest tenth

Key Concept

Weight-based continuous intravenous infusion rate calculation
Estimated Time:2m 0s
Question 3267Question →

A client receiving a transfusion of packed red blood cells (PRBCs) suddenly reports severe lower back pain, chills, and shortness of breath. Suspecting an acute hemolytic transfusion reaction, the nurse must intervene immediately. Arrange the following nursing actions in the correct chronological sequence.

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Answer

The correct chronological sequence is to first stop the transfusion, then maintain IV access with normal saline using new tubing, assess the client's current status, notify the healthcare provider and blood bank, and finally return the blood products for analysis.
In the event of a transfusion reaction, the absolute highest priority is to stop the offending agent (the blood product). Second, IV access must be maintained for emergency interventions, but this MUST be done with completely new tubing to avoid flushing residual blood into the client. Once the client is protected from further immediate harm, the nurse assesses vital signs and cardiopulmonary status to provide accurate data to the healthcare provider. With assessment findings ready, the provider and blood bank are notified. Finally, the remaining blood product and tubing are sent to the laboratory for investigation.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Stop the blood transfusion immediately.
The client receives no further incompatible or reactive blood product.
Halting the infusion is the most critical initial action to minimize the severity of a hemolytic or allergic reaction.
2
Disconnect the blood administration set and maintain IV access with 0.9% sodium chloride through new IV tubing.
A patent intravenous line is secured for administering emergency medications.
Flushing the existing tubing would force more incompatible blood into the client; therefore, a completely new fluid administration set must be attached to the catheter hub.
3
Assess the client's vital signs and cardiopulmonary status.
The nurse obtains essential clinical data reflecting the severity of the transfusion reaction.
Immediate assessment provides the baseline data necessary for the healthcare provider to prescribe targeted emergency interventions.
4
Notify the healthcare provider and the blood bank.
The medical team is alerted, and emergency medical orders are obtained.
The provider needs the assessment data to order necessary treatments (e.g., vasopressors, antihistamines, fluids), and the blood bank must initiate their formal investigation.
5
Return the blood bag, tubing, and labels to the blood bank.
The blood bank receives the physical evidence of the transfusion.
Laboratory analysis of the returned product helps determine the definitive cause of the adverse reaction.

Key Concept

Nursing Management of Acute Transfusion Reactions
Question 3268Question →

A nurse is conducting a physical assessment on a client who is 2 hours postpartum following a spontaneous vaginal delivery. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as expected physiological adaptations during this period? Select all that apply.

Select all that apply

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Answer: Maternal temperature of 100.2°F (37.9°C); Reports of strong uterine cramping while breastfeeding; Maternal resting heart rate of 62 beats per minute

Answer

The expected physiological adaptations are a slightly elevated maternal temperature (100.2°F or 37.9°C), strong uterine cramping while breastfeeding, and puerperal bradycardia (62 beats per minute).
During the first 24 hours postpartum, a maternal temperature up to 100.4°F (38.0°C) is an expected physiological response to the physical exertion and mild dehydration of labor. Puerperal bradycardia (a resting heart rate of 50 to 70 beats per minute) is also a normal adaptation due to the increased stroke volume resulting from the elimination of placental blood flow. Additionally, uterine cramping, known as afterpains, is expected and often intensifies during breastfeeding because nipple stimulation triggers the release of oxytocin, which promotes uterine involution.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the client's clinical timeline.
The client is 2 hours postpartum, meaning the assessment focuses on the immediate transition and early physiological adaptations.
Expected findings change depending on the time elapsed since delivery.
2
Evaluate the vital signs and symptoms for normal physiological responses.
A temperature of 100.2°F (37.9°C), a heart rate of 62 bpm, and cramping during breastfeeding are identified as normal.
Labor exertion causes mild hyperthermia, fluid shifts increase stroke volume leading to bradycardia, and breastfeeding releases oxytocin which causes cramping.
3
Identify findings that indicate potential complications.
Saturating a pad in 30 minutes and a deviated fundus are identified as abnormal findings.
These findings are key warning signs of excessive bleeding and a distended bladder, which increase the risk for postpartum hemorrhage.

Key Concept

Expected Postpartum Physiological Adaptations
Estimated Time:1m 30s
Question 3269Question →

A registered nurse is planning care for a client admitted with meningococcal meningitis and a stage 3 pressure injury colonized with methicillin-resistant *Staphylococcus aureus* (MRSA). The nurse is reviewing the daily care plan with an unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP). Which of the following statements by the UAP indicate a correct understanding of the required transmission-based precautions and scope of practice? Select all that apply.

Select all that apply

Show answer & explanation

Answer: I will wear a surgical mask, an isolation gown, and clean gloves when entering the client's room to provide care.; I will perform hand hygiene using an alcohol-based hand rub or soap and water immediately after removing my personal protective equipment.; I will use the blood pressure cuff and thermometer that are dedicated specifically to this client's room.

Answer

The correct statements are that the UAP will wear a surgical mask, isolation gown, and gloves; perform hand hygiene using an alcohol-based hand rub or soap and water after removing PPE; and use dedicated vital signs equipment for the client.
The client requires a combination of Droplet precautions (for meningococcal meningitis) and Contact precautions (for MRSA). Proper adherence involves wearing a surgical mask, gown, and gloves upon entry; using dedicated patient equipment to prevent cross-contamination; and performing standard hand hygiene with soap and water or alcohol-based rub upon exiting. Hand hygiene with alcohol-based rub is fully acceptable because neither of these organisms forms spores.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the transmission routes for the client's specific pathogens.
Meningococcal meningitis requires Droplet Precautions. MRSA requires Contact Precautions.
Determining the correct isolation category is the first step in identifying appropriate PPE and room assignment requirements.
2
Determine the necessary personal protective equipment (PPE) and environmental controls for the combined Droplet and Contact precautions.
Droplet precautions require a surgical mask when within 3 feet of the client and a standard private room. Contact precautions require a gown, gloves, and dedicated room equipment.
Combining the requirements ensures both pathogens are safely contained during routine care.
3
Evaluate the UAP's role boundaries and delegation principles.
The UAP can assist with basic care and use dedicated equipment but cannot perform clinical assessments, such as evaluating a wound.
Ensuring safe delegation is a critical nursing responsibility to prevent patient harm.

Key Concept

Dual Isolation Precautions (Droplet and Contact) and Safe Delegation
Question 3270Question →

An older adult client with advanced Alzheimer's disease is receiving acute care for pneumonia. The client becomes intensely agitated and physically combative during attempts to provide morning hygiene. Which actions should the nurse include in the client's care plan to safely promote basic hygiene and comfort? (Select all that apply.)

Select all that apply

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Keep the client covered with a warm bath blanket and expose only the specific body part being washed; Introduce a calm environment by playing the client's favorite soothing music during the procedure; Delay washing the client's hair until the end of the bath or schedule it for a completely separate time

Answer

The correct actions are keeping the client covered with a warm bath blanket, playing soothing music, and delaying hair washing until the end of the bath or a separate time.
Clients with advanced dementia often experience sensory overload and fear during personal care. Promoting basic care and comfort involves reducing these stressors. Using a warm bath blanket and exposing only one area at a time prevents chilling and preserves dignity. Washing the hair is often highly distressing due to water on the face and manipulation of the head, so it should be done last or at a separate time to avoid escalating agitation early in the process. Playing familiar, soothing music provides a non-pharmacologic calming effect, distracting the client and creating a more therapeutic environment.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the primary clinical problem and goal.
The client has advanced dementia and experiences severe agitation during hygiene care. The goal is to provide basic care and comfort using safe, non-pharmacological interventions.
Understanding the root cause of the agitation (sensory overload, fear) dictates which nursing interventions will be effective.
2
Evaluate the proposed comfort and hygiene interventions.
Covering the client with a bath blanket, delaying hair washing, and playing soothing music are selected as appropriate measures.
These interventions minimize sensory overload, preserve dignity, and provide non-pharmacological comfort without violating safety protocols.
3
Identify and reject unsafe or inappropriate actions.
Restraints for routine care, delegating assessments to UAP, and dismissing pathological agitation as normal aging are rejected.
These actions violate safety guidelines, scope of practice rules, and fundamental gerontological nursing principles.

Key Concept

Basic Care and Comfort for clients with cognitive impairment focuses on non-pharmacological interventions to reduce sensory overload, preserve dignity, and prevent defensive behaviors.
Question 3271Question →

A charge nurse is conducting environmental safety rounds on a medical-surgical unit. Which observation involving a client with severe cognitive impairment and a high risk for falls requires immediate intervention to prevent injury?

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Answer: All four side rails on the client's bed are elevated while the client is resting unsupervised.

Answer

The observation requiring immediate intervention is the elevation of all four side rails on the client's bed.
The correct answer highlights an unsafe practice. Elevating all four side rails on a bed without a specific medical indication (such as seizure precautions) constitutes a physical restraint. For a client with severe cognitive impairment who is prone to wandering, this creates a high risk of injury. The client may attempt to climb over the rails, which increases the fall height and the severity of potential trauma, or they may become entrapped between the rails.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Evaluate each observation to determine if it represents a safety hazard or an appropriate injury prevention strategy.
Three options represent appropriate safety interventions, while one represents a physical restraint.
Identifying the unsafe practice is necessary to determine which action requires immediate intervention by the charge nurse.
2
Analyze the impact of elevating all four side rails on a cognitively impaired client.
It is identified as a physical restraint that increases the risk of entrapment or a severe fall if the client attempts to climb over them.
Cognitively impaired clients may not understand the purpose of the rails and can sustain worse injuries attempting to bypass them.

Key Concept

Accident, Error, and Injury Prevention: Restraint Alternatives and Fall Precautions
Question 3272Question →

An older adult client with a history of mild dementia has just returned to the unit following a diagnostic lumbar puncture. The client is restless, repeatedly attempts to sit up in bed, and verbally reports a throbbing headache. Which of the following basic care and comfort interventions should the nurse implement? (Select all that apply.)

Select all that apply

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Maintain the client in a flat, supine position for the prescribed duration of 4 to 6 hours.; Encourage liberal oral intake of fluids, specifically offering caffeinated beverages if not contraindicated.

Answer

The appropriate interventions are to maintain the client in a flat, supine position and to encourage oral fluid intake, particularly caffeinated beverages.
Following a lumbar puncture, maintaining a flat, supine position minimizes cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) leakage from the dural puncture site, which is the primary cause of a post-dural puncture headache. Additionally, encouraging fluid intake helps replenish CSF volume. Caffeine is particularly effective as a non-pharmacologic intervention because its cerebral vasoconstrictive properties help relieve the vascular component of the headache.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the primary complication the client is experiencing.
The client has a post-dural puncture headache, evidenced by the throbbing pain and the recent lumbar puncture.
Understanding the pathology of the headache (CSF leakage) dictates the appropriate comfort and positioning measures.
2
Select appropriate positioning interventions to minimize complications.
The client must remain flat and supine.
A flat position reduces gravitational pressure on the dural tear, limiting further CSF leakage.
3
Select appropriate dietary and hydration comfort measures.
Oral hydration and caffeine administration should be encouraged.
Fluids help replace lost CSF, while caffeine promotes cerebral vasoconstriction, directly counteracting the vasodilation that causes the headache.
4
Eliminate inappropriate or unsafe nursing actions.
Avoid elevating the head, inappropriately delegating assessments, applying unjustified restraints, or ignoring acute behavioral changes.
These actions represent critical safety violations in basic care, delegation, and restraint protocols.

Key Concept

Basic care and comfort following a lumbar puncture require maintaining a flat position to prevent CSF leakage, promoting hydration (often with caffeine) to manage headaches, and ensuring rigorous safety monitoring without relying on inappropriate delegation or premature restraints.
Question 3273Question →

A nurse is establishing a basic care regimen for an older adult client who is bedbound with right-sided flaccid paralysis and altered sensory perception due to a recent traumatic brain injury. To optimize comfort, prevent contractures, and protect skin integrity, which combination of nursing actions is most appropriate?

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Answer: Position the client in a 30-degree lateral incline, support the paralyzed right arm on a pillow, and place a trochanter roll alongside the right thigh.

Answer

The most appropriate combination is positioning the client in a 30-degree lateral incline, supporting the paralyzed arm on a pillow, and utilizing a trochanter roll alongside the thigh.
The 30-degree lateral position is the evidence-based standard for offloading pressure from the sacrum and greater trochanter, minimizing the risk of pressure injuries. Supporting the flaccid arm on a pillow maintains joint alignment and prevents shoulder subluxation, which is a significant risk due to the lack of muscle tone. A trochanter roll placed alongside the outer thigh prevents external rotation of the hip joint, maintaining functional anatomical alignment.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Evaluate the risks associated with right-sided flaccid paralysis and immobility.
Identified high risk for pressure injuries, shoulder subluxation, and external hip rotation.
Flaccid muscles cannot provide structural support to joints, and immobility creates localized pressure points.
2
Determine the optimal position for pressure relief and joint alignment.
Selected the 30-degree lateral incline over a 90-degree side-lying or strict supine position.
The 30-degree lateral position avoids placing the client's body weight directly on the bony prominence of the greater trochanter or sacrum.
3
Identify specific supportive devices needed for the flaccid extremities.
Incorporated a pillow for the right arm and a trochanter roll for the right leg.
The pillow prevents gravity from dislocating the shoulder joint, and the trochanter roll prevents the weakened leg from rolling outward.

Key Concept

Basic Care and Comfort: Safe Positioning and Assistive Devices
Question 3274Question →

A charge nurse on a medical-surgical unit is evaluating a client with advanced Parkinson's disease who is experiencing acute confusion. The client repeatedly attempts to stand up and walk unassisted, demonstrating an unsteady gait and a high risk for falls. What is the most appropriate initial intervention by the nurse?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Relocate the client to a room close to the nurses' station and provide a purposeful diversionary activity.

Answer

The most appropriate initial action is to relocate the client to a room close to the nurses' station and provide a purposeful diversionary activity.
The correct intervention prioritizes client safety by utilizing the least restrictive alternative first. Relocating the client closer to the nurses' station enhances visual monitoring, and providing a purposeful diversionary activity channels the client's restlessness safely without restricting their movement. This approach complies with national safety standards regarding restraint avoidance.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the primary safety risk and the clinical need for intervention.
The client is experiencing acute confusion, has an unsteady gait, and is exhibiting wandering behavior, which creates a high risk for falls and injury.
Recognizing the specific safety threat helps the nurse prioritize the most appropriate and least restrictive intervention.
2
Evaluate the appropriateness of restraint use based on regulatory guidelines.
Determine that physical restraints are interventions of last resort and must be preceded by documented non-pharmacological alternative measures.
Nursing standards mandate that less restrictive measures must be exhausted before applying any restraints to preserve client dignity and prevent restraint-related injuries.
3
Select the most appropriate least restrictive alternative.
Choose to relocate the client for closer visual observation and provide a safe, distracting activity (like folding washcloths).
These interventions directly address the restless behavior while maximizing client safety, maintaining mobility, and adhering to standard care protocols.

Key Concept

Implementation of least restrictive alternatives prior to restraint application
Estimated Time:1m 0s
Question 3275Question →

A clinical nurse is evaluating a client who underwent an open bowel resection with a temporary colostomy formation 4848 hours ago. The client has a nasogastric (NG) tube connected to low intermittent suction, which has drained 950950 mL of fluid over the past 1212 hours. Which cluster of clinical data indicates the highest risk for a physiological crisis and requires the most immediate intervention?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Serum potassium of 2.72.7 mEq/L (2.72.7 mmol/L), flattened T waves on the electrocardiogram, and generalized muscle weakness

Answer

The cluster of clinical data indicating severe hypokalemia, specifically the serum potassium of 2.7 mEq/L combined with flattened T waves and muscle weakness, requires the most immediate intervention.
Prolonged gastric suctioning removes significant amounts of potassium-rich gastric fluids, placing the client at extremely high risk for severe hypokalemia. A serum potassium level of 2.72.7 mEq/L is critically low (normal range is 3.53.5 to 5.05.0 mEq/L). The presence of flattened T waves and generalized muscle weakness are classic, active manifestations of hypokalemia that can rapidly deteriorate into lethal cardiac dysrhythmias (such as ventricular tachycardia or fibrillation), making this the highest priority for life-saving intervention.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the client's current treatments and risk factors.
The client has a nasogastric tube draining large amounts of gastric fluid (950 mL in 12 hours), placing them at high risk for electrolyte imbalances, specifically hypokalemia and metabolic alkalosis.
Gastric fluid is rich in potassium, hydrogen, and chloride ions; excessive loss directly disrupts physiological integrity.
2
Evaluate the arterial blood gas (ABG) values and respiratory status.
The ABG reveals mild, uncompensated respiratory acidosis (low pH, elevated PaCO2, normal HCO3-) typical of post-operative pain causing shallow breathing. This requires nursing intervention (incentive spirometry) but is not an immediate lethal crisis.
Distinguishing between expected post-operative alterations and critical emergencies is essential for prioritization.
3
Assess the hemodynamic parameters for signs of shock.
The slight decrease in blood pressure, heart rate of 94, and 2-second capillary refill indicate normal compensatory fluid shifts post-surgery, maintaining adequate perfusion.
Early hypovolemic shock would present with more profound tachycardia, narrowing pulse pressure, and delayed capillary refill.
4
Assess the colostomy and positioning data.
An edematous, dark pink stoma with minimal output is perfectly normal 48 hours after creation.
Recognizing expected post-operative stoma maturation prevents unnecessary escalation of care.
5
Evaluate the electrolyte and electrocardiogram (ECG) data.
A potassium level of 2.7 mEq/L is critically low. The flattened T waves and muscle weakness are active physiological manifestations of this deficit, signaling an impending lethal cardiac dysrhythmia.
Active cardiac involvement from severe electrolyte depletion represents the highest, most immediate risk to the client's life.

Key Concept

Reduction of Risk Potential: Complications of Gastrointestinal Suctioning and Severe Hypokalemia
Question 3276Question →

A nurse is preparing to administer intravenous (IV) ceftazidime to a pediatric client who weighs 24 kg24\text{ kg}. The healthcare provider's prescription is for 50 mg/kg/day50\text{ mg/kg/day} administered in 44 equally divided doses. How many milligrams (mg) should the nurse administer for one single dose?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: 300

Answer

The nurse should administer 300 mg per dose.
To find the correct single dose, first determine the total daily dose by multiplying the weight by the dose parameter (24 kg×50 mg/kg=1,200 mg24\text{ kg} \times 50\text{ mg/kg} = 1,200\text{ mg}). Next, divide that total amount by the frequency of doses per day (1,200 mg÷4=300 mg1,200\text{ mg} \div 4 = 300\text{ mg}).

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Calculate the total daily dose by multiplying the client's weight in kilograms by the prescribed daily dose per kilogram.
24 kg×50 mg/kg/day=1,200 mg/day24\text{ kg} \times 50\text{ mg/kg/day} = 1,200\text{ mg/day}
This establishes the total amount of medication the client requires over a full 24-hour period.
2
Calculate the single dose amount by dividing the total daily dose by the number of doses prescribed per day.
1,200 mg/day÷4 doses=300 mg/dose1,200\text{ mg/day} \div 4\text{ doses} = 300\text{ mg/dose}
The prescription explicitly requires the total daily amount to be split into 4 equal, separate administrations.

Key Concept

Pediatric weight-based dosage calculation
Question 3277Question →

A radiological dispersion device has detonated at a crowded outdoor festival, causing a mass casualty incident. Numerous victims are arriving at the hospital, prompting the activation of the emergency operations plan for a radiological event. Which of the following actions by the nursing staff are appropriate? Select all that apply.

Select all that apply

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Stabilize clients presenting with life-threatening airway compromise or massive hemorrhage prior to initiating full decontamination procedures.; Set up the primary decontamination area external to the emergency department to maintain the safety of the hospital environment.; Carefully remove the victims' clothing and seal it in double-bagged, labeled hazardous waste containers to reduce exposure.

Answer

The correct actions include stabilizing critical airway and hemorrhage issues before full decontamination, establishing the decontamination area outside the facility, and removing and safely bagging victims' clothing.
In a radiological mass casualty event, the primary goals are to save salvageable lives and prevent secondary contamination. Stabilizing critical airway and hemorrhage issues takes precedence over complete decontamination. Establishing an external decontamination zone protects the hospital's operational integrity. Finally, removing and securing clothing eliminates the majority of external radioactive contamination.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the disaster context
The scenario is an external radiological mass casualty incident requiring facility protection, triage, and hazmat principles.
Understanding the type of disaster dictates the specific emergency operations plan protocols to apply.
2
Evaluate each action against mass casualty triage principles
Victims with unsurvivable injuries (agonal breathing, severe head trauma) are categorized as Expectant to conserve resources. Life-saving stabilization always precedes full decontamination.
Mass casualty triage requires doing the greatest good for the greatest number, prioritizing salvageable clients.
3
Evaluate each action against safety and delegation standards
Decontamination must occur outside to prevent secondary facility contamination. Clothing removal is highly effective for radiation. RNs must perform all triage; it cannot be delegated.
Maintaining a safe environment and adhering to the RN scope of practice are absolute requirements, even during a disaster.

Key Concept

Radiological Mass Casualty Incident Response and Triage
Question 3278Question →

A nurse is caring for a client with a history of severe chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) who was admitted for community-acquired pneumonia. The client is currently receiving oxygen at 2 L/min2 \text{ L/min} via nasal cannula. The most recent arterial blood gas (ABG) results reveal a pHpH of 7.287.28, PaCO2PaCO_2 of 64 mm Hg64 \text{ mm Hg}, HCO3−HCO_3^- of 30 mEq/L30 \text{ mEq/L}, and PaO2PaO_2 of 56 mm Hg56 \text{ mm Hg}. The client's vital signs are blood pressure 86/54 mm Hg86/54 \text{ mm Hg}, heart rate 118 bpm118 \text{ bpm}, and respiratory rate 28 breaths/min28 \text{ breaths/min}. Which of the following actions should the nurse prioritize to reduce the risk of further physiological decompensation? Select all that apply.

Select all that apply

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Prepare the client for potential endotracheal intubation and mechanical ventilation.; Administer a prescribed intravenous fluid bolus to address the vital sign abnormalities.; Perform a focused neurological assessment to evaluate for carbon dioxide narcosis.

Answer

The correct actions are preparing for potential intubation, administering a prescribed fluid bolus, and performing a focused neurological assessment.
The client is experiencing acute-on-chronic respiratory failure with respiratory acidosis and signs of early shock. Preparing for intubation directly addresses the respiratory failure. Administering an intravenous fluid bolus addresses the hypotension and tachycardia indicative of shock. Performing a neurological assessment monitors for life-threatening complications of severe hypercapnia, such as CO2CO_2 narcosis.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the ABG results.
The pHpH of 7.287.28 indicates acidosis. The elevated PaCO2PaCO_2 (64 mm Hg64 \text{ mm Hg}) indicates a respiratory origin. This acute-on-chronic respiratory failure requires immediate advanced airway preparation.
Identifying the primary physiological derangement guides initial life-saving interventions.
2
Analyze the vital signs.
A blood pressure of 86/54 mm Hg86/54 \text{ mm Hg} and a heart rate of 118 bpm118 \text{ bpm} indicate impending shock, requiring immediate volume resuscitation.
Hypotension and tachycardia in the presence of an infection (pneumonia) suggest sepsis and inadequate tissue perfusion.
3
Evaluate the proposed positioning intervention.
Placing the client supine is contraindicated.
While leg elevation helps hypotension, the supine position restricts diaphragmatic excursion and worsens gas exchange in a client already in respiratory failure.
4
Evaluate the proposed pharmacological intervention.
Sodium bicarbonate is contraindicated.
The client has respiratory acidosis. Administering bicarbonate generates additional CO2CO_2, which the client cannot exhale, thus worsening the acidosis.
5
Evaluate the delegation task.
The sputum collection cannot be delegated.
The client is hemodynamically and physically unstable; the RN must perform or directly oversee all care to monitor for sudden clinical changes.

Key Concept

Reduction of risk potential in a hemodynamically unstable client with acute respiratory failure involves prioritizing airway management, fluid resuscitation, and continuous RN assessment while avoiding contraindicated interventions.
Question 3279Question →

Four clients arrive simultaneously at the emergency department triage desk. Based on the presenting clinical manifestations, which client requires the highest priority for immediate placement in an airborne infection isolation (negative-pressure) room?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: A client presenting with a generalized maculopapular rash, high fever, and coryza

Answer

The client presenting with a generalized maculopapular rash, high fever, and coryza.
The correct answer identifies the client exhibiting symptoms of rubeola (measles): a generalized maculopapular rash, high fever, and coryza. Measles is a highly contagious disease transmitted via airborne droplet nuclei. Because these particles remain infectious and suspended in the air over long distances, this client MUST be placed in an airborne infection isolation room (negative-pressure room) to prevent facility-wide transmission.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the facility requirement specified in the question.
The prompt asks which client requires an airborne infection isolation room, which features negative air pressure.
Identifying the required isolation tier is the first step in matching a client to the correct room.
2
Evaluate the clinical manifestations of each client to suspect the underlying pathogen and its transmission route.
The maculopapular rash and coryza indicate measles (airborne); nuchal rigidity indicates meningitis (droplet); paroxysmal cough indicates pertussis (droplet); foul-smelling liquid stools indicate C. difficile (contact).
Nurses must use clinical judgment during triage to initiate presumptive isolation precautions before a definitive medical diagnosis is made.
3
Prioritize the client who requires the negative-pressure room based on the transmission route.
The client with suspected measles must be prioritized for the negative-pressure room to prevent airborne transmission.
Airborne pathogens can remain suspended in the air over long distances and require specialized room exhaust systems to protect the facility.

Key Concept

Airborne precautions are required for illnesses transmitted by small droplet nuclei that remain suspended in the air (e.g., rubeola/measles, varicella, tuberculosis), necessitating placement in a negative-pressure room.
Question 3280Question →

A nurse in an outpatient obstetric clinic is evaluating the electronic fetal monitoring tracing of a nonstress test (NST) for a client at 38 weeks of gestation. Over a 20-minute monitoring period, the baseline fetal heart rate is 135 beats per minute. The nurse observes two fetal heart rate accelerations that peak at 155 beats per minute and last for 15 seconds each. There are no decelerations present on the tracing. Which of the following actions should the nurse take based on these findings?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Document the findings as a reactive nonstress test.

Answer

The correct action is to document the findings as a reactive nonstress test because the criteria of two accelerations (at least 15 beats per minute above baseline lasting 15 seconds) within 20 minutes have been met.
The correct answer is to document the findings as a reactive nonstress test. For a fetus at 32 weeks of gestation or older, a reactive (normal) NST is defined by a baseline heart rate between 110 and 160 beats per minute, accompanied by at least two accelerations of 15 beats per minute or more above the baseline, lasting at least 15 seconds each, within a 20-minute window. Since this client's tracing perfectly matches these criteria and lacks decelerations, it is reassuring and requires only standard documentation.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the baseline fetal heart rate from the clinical data.
The baseline fetal heart rate is 135 beats per minute.
Establishing the baseline is necessary to determine if the heart rate is within the normal range of 110 to 160 beats per minute.
2
Analyze the characteristics of the observed accelerations.
There are two accelerations peaking at 155 beats per minute (which is 20 beats above the baseline) and lasting 15 seconds each.
To determine reactivity, accelerations must be quantified by their height above the baseline and their duration.
3
Compare the findings against the criteria for a reactive nonstress test (NST) in a term fetus.
The findings meet the "15 by 15" rule (at least two accelerations of at least 15 beats per minute lasting at least 15 seconds within a 20-minute period).
Meeting these standard criteria confirms that the fetus is well-oxygenated and the central nervous system is intact.
4
Determine the appropriate nursing intervention for a normal assessment.
The nurse should document the reassuring findings.
Because the tracing is normal and reactive, emergency interventions and further diagnostic testing are unnecessary.

Key Concept

Interpretation of Antepartum Nonstress Test (NST) Reactivity Criteria
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