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Question 1121Question →

A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving an intravenous transfusion of packed red blood cells (PRBCs). Fifteen minutes after the transfusion is initiated, the client reports severe lower back pain, chills, and shortness of breath. The nurse assesses a temperature of 38.6∘C38.6^\circ\text{C} (101.5∘F101.5^\circ\text{F}) and a heart rate of 118 beats/min118\text{ beats/min}. Which of the following actions should the nurse take? (Select all that apply.)

Select all that apply

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Stop the blood transfusion immediately.; Replace the blood administration set with new tubing primed with 0.9%0.9\% sodium chloride.; Obtain a urine specimen from the client to send to the laboratory.

Answer

The nurse should stop the blood transfusion immediately, replace the blood administration set with new tubing primed with 0.9% sodium chloride, and obtain a urine specimen from the client.
The client is exhibiting signs of an acute hemolytic transfusion reaction. The correct sequence of priority actions involves stopping the offending agent immediately, maintaining venous access with new tubing and compatible normal saline to support blood pressure and renal perfusion, and collecting a urine specimen to assess for hemoglobinuria caused by the breakdown of red blood cells.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the client's symptoms.
The client has lower back pain, fever, chills, tachycardia, and dyspnea shortly after starting a transfusion.
These are the classic hallmark signs of an acute hemolytic transfusion reaction, a life-threatening emergency.
2
Determine the most critical immediate intervention.
The transfusion must be stopped immediately.
Halting the infusion prevents any additional incompatible red blood cells from entering the client's bloodstream.
3
Determine how to safely maintain intravenous access.
The nurse must attach completely new IV tubing primed with 0.9% sodium chloride.
Flushing the existing blood tubing would dangerously push the remaining incompatible blood into the client. Normal saline is the only compatible fluid.
4
Identify required diagnostic follow-up.
A urine specimen must be collected.
A urine sample is needed to check for hemoglobinuria, which confirms the destruction of red blood cells (hemolysis) in the kidneys.

Key Concept

Management of Acute Hemolytic Transfusion Reactions
Question 1122Question →

An intensive care nurse is monitoring a client who is receiving continuous total parenteral nutrition through a right subclavian central venous access device. While assessing the client, the nurse discovers that the intravenous tubing has completely disconnected from the catheter hub. The client is acutely restless, exhibiting perioral cyanosis, and auscultation reveals a loud, churning "mill-wheel" murmur over the precordium. The client's heart rate is 138138 beats per minute and blood pressure is 82/4682/46 mmHg. To mitigate the risk of a fatal physiological outcome, which sequence of actions must the nurse execute immediately?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Clamp the open catheter hub, turn the client to a left lateral Trendelenburg position, and administer 100%100\% oxygen.

Answer

The nurse must first clamp the open catheter hub, turn the client to a left lateral Trendelenburg position, and administer 100%100\% oxygen.
The client's presentation of sudden respiratory distress, hypotension, and a "mill-wheel" murmur after a central venous catheter disconnection is the classic triad for a venous air embolism. The immediate nursing priority is to stop further air entry by clamping the catheter. Next, the client must be placed in a left lateral Trendelenburg position (Durant's maneuver). This specific positioning relies on gravity to keep the air bubble trapped in the apex of the right ventricle, preventing it from migrating into and occluding the pulmonary artery (which would cause fatal obstructive shock). Finally, administering 100%100\% oxygen promotes the diffusion and resorption of nitrogen gas from the embolus.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the complication
The disconnected central line, sudden hypoxia, hypotension, and classic "mill-wheel" murmur indicate a severe venous air embolism.
Negative intrathoracic pressure has drawn room air directly into the central venous system.
2
Stop further air entry
The nurse immediately clamps the open catheter hub.
Preventing additional air from entering the venous circulation is the absolute most critical first action.
3
Position the client appropriately
The client is placed in the left lateral Trendelenburg position (Durant's maneuver).
This specific position traps the air bubble in the apex of the right ventricle, preventing it from migrating into the pulmonary artery and causing right ventricular outflow obstruction.
4
Improve oxygenation
100%100\% oxygen is administered.
High-concentration oxygen speeds up the diffusion and resorption of nitrogen gas, which makes up the majority of the air embolus.

Key Concept

Venous Air Embolism Management and Durant's Maneuver
Estimated Time:1m 30s
Question 1123Question →

A client with type 1 diabetes mellitus is admitted to the intensive care unit with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). The client is lethargic, exhibits Kussmaul respirations, and reports severe abdominal pain. Initial laboratory results indicate a blood glucose of 610 mg/dL (33.9 mmol/L) and a serum pH of 7.15. The healthcare provider prescribes a comprehensive DKA treatment protocol. Arrange the following nursing interventions in the correct chronological order of implementation.

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Answer

The correct sequence for managing Diabetic Ketoacidosis is to first initiate fluid resuscitation with 0.9% sodium chloride, verify the potassium level is above 3.3 mEq/L, begin the regular insulin infusion, add 5% dextrose once the glucose level reaches 250 mg/dL, and finally overlap subcutaneous insulin before discontinuing the intravenous insulin infusion.
The priority sequence for diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) management addresses the most acute life threats first: hypovolemia, electrolyte disturbances, and acidosis. Fluid resuscitation (0.9% sodium chloride) is always the first intervention to restore perfusion. Next, potassium must be verified (> 3.3 mEq/L) before administering insulin to prevent fatal hypokalemia. Following this, regular IV insulin is started to stop ketogenesis and correct the acidosis. Once blood glucose drops to 250 mg/dL, dextrose must be added to IV fluids to prevent hypoglycemia and cerebral edema. Finally, subcutaneous insulin must overlap with the IV infusion to prevent rebound ketoacidosis.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Prioritize fluid resuscitation
Intravenous 0.9% sodium chloride is administered rapidly.
Severe dehydration from osmotic diuresis requires immediate intravascular volume expansion to maintain tissue perfusion and hemodynamic stability.
2
Assess electrolyte safety
Serum potassium is verified to be > 3.3 mEq/L.
Insulin therapy drives potassium into the cells; starting insulin with profound hypokalemia can cause fatal cardiac dysrhythmias.
3
Initiate insulin therapy
A continuous intravenous infusion of regular insulin is started.
Insulin is required to correct the severe hyperglycemia, stop lipolysis, and reverse the metabolic acidosis.
4
Modify fluid composition based on glucose response
5% dextrose is added when blood glucose decreases to 250 mg/dL (13.9 mmol/L).
Adding dextrose prevents a rapid decline in blood glucose (hypoglycemia) and limits sudden osmotic shifts that cause cerebral edema.
5
Transition to maintenance therapy
Subcutaneous insulin is administered prior to stopping the IV infusion.
An overlap ensures continuous insulin coverage, preventing rebound ketoacidosis when the short-acting IV insulin is discontinued.

Key Concept

Prioritization of Care in Diabetic Ketoacidosis (DKA)
Question 1124Question →

A young adult client is being monitored on the orthopedic unit 24 hours after sustaining a closed comminuted fracture of the right femur. The client abruptly becomes intensely restless and confused, with a respiratory rate of 34 breaths per minute. Upon physical assessment, the nurse observes a new onset of petechiae over the client's anterior chest and axillae. Which of the following actions is the nurse's priority?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Administer high-flow supplemental oxygen via a non-rebreather mask.

Answer

Administer high-flow supplemental oxygen via a non-rebreather mask.
The correct answer addresses the most immediate life-threatening consequence of Fat Embolism Syndrome: profound hypoxemia. The classic triad of FES includes hypoxemia, neurological abnormalities, and a petechial rash. According to the ABCs of prioritization, optimizing oxygenation with a non-rebreather mask is the initial and most critical nursing action to prevent respiratory arrest.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the client's clinical presentation and recent history.
The client has a long bone fracture, new-onset restlessness, tachypnea (RR 34), and petechiae on the chest.
Identifying this specific cluster of symptoms is required to diagnose Fat Embolism Syndrome (FES) rather than a generalized complication like hemorrhagic shock.
2
Determine the physiological priority based on the diagnosis.
The primary threat to life in FES is severe hypoxemia leading to acute respiratory failure.
Applying the ABCs (Airway, Breathing, Circulation) framework dictates that respiratory compromise must be addressed before circulation or further diagnostic testing.
3
Select the most appropriate immediate intervention.
Applying high-flow oxygen via a non-rebreather mask is the critical first action.
Supplemental oxygen directly treats the life-threatening hypoxia before other supportive therapies or assessments are initiated.

Key Concept

Fat Embolism Syndrome (FES) Recognition and Prioritization
Estimated Time:1m 30s
Question 1125Question →

A nursing supervisor is finalizing the staff allocation for a pediatric step-down unit facing a sudden influx of admissions. The available personnel include a pediatric core staff registered nurse (RN), a float RN from an adult cardiac-telemetry unit, an experienced licensed practical nurse (LPN), and an unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP). Which assignment represents the most clinically sound delegation of client care?

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Answer: Assigning the float RN from the adult cardiac-telemetry unit to care for a 15-year-old client admitted with syncope who requires continuous telemetry monitoring and routine vital signs.

Answer

Assigning the float RN from the adult cardiac-telemetry unit to care for a 15-year-old client admitted with syncope who requires continuous telemetry monitoring and routine vital signs.
The most clinically sound assignment utilizes the adult cardiac-telemetry float RN's expertise in cardiac monitoring for a client whose physiological needs and developmental stage closely mirror an adult population. A 15-year-old requiring telemetry for syncope is highly stable and falls well within the core competencies of a cardiac-telemetry RN, ensuring safe cross-population care.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the competencies and scope of practice for each available staff member.
The float RN has cardiac expertise but limited pediatric experience; the core RN handles complex pediatric cases; the LPN cares for stable clients; the UAP performs routine, non-nursing tasks.
Effective delegation requires matching staff skills with client needs.
2
Evaluate the acuity and stability of each client scenario presented in the options.
The 15-year-old with syncope is stable; the infant requires evaluation; the 4-year-old has an unstable airway; the septic client is highly unstable and requires advanced interventions.
The National Council of State Boards of Nursing (NCSBN) dictates that only stable clients with predictable outcomes should be assigned to LPNs or float staff unfamiliar with the specialty.
3
Match the most appropriate staff member to the client based on the Five Rights of Delegation.
Assigning the 15-year-old cardiac client to the adult telemetry float RN is the only safe match, as it utilizes their specific skill set on a client developmentally similar to an adult.
This maintains safety while freeing up the core pediatric RN to manage the highly unstable pediatric clients.

Key Concept

Delegation to Float Personnel and Scope of Practice
Question 1126Question →

A client recovering from an orthopedic procedure is receiving intravenous morphine via a patient-controlled analgesia (PCA) device. Upon entering the room, the nurse observes that the client is somnolent, difficult to awaken, and has shallow respirations at a rate of 8 breaths per minute. Which of the following arterial blood gas (ABG) values and clinical manifestations should the nurse anticipate? Select all that apply.

Select all that apply

Show answer & explanation

Answer: pH of 7.27; PaCO2PaCO_2 of 62 mm Hg; Lethargy and dull headache

Answer

The expected findings are a pH of 7.27, a PaCO2PaCO_2 of 62 mm Hg, and lethargy with a dull headache.
The client's hypoventilation (8 breaths/min) caused by opiate administration results in acute carbon dioxide retention. This creates uncompensated respiratory acidosis, characterized by a low pH, an elevated PaCO2PaCO_2, and normal bicarbonate levels. Systemically, hypercapnia causes cerebral vasodilation, which presents as lethargy and headaches.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the client's clinical presentation.
The client is somnolent with a respiratory rate of 8 breaths/min due to morphine administration.
Identifying severe hypoventilation is the critical first step to determining the resulting acid-base imbalance.
2
Determine the primary acid-base disturbance.
Hypoventilation directly leads to acute respiratory acidosis.
A decreased respiratory rate causes carbon dioxide to be retained in the blood rather than exhaled.
3
Predict the corresponding ABG values.
Expect a decreased pH (< 7.35), elevated PaCO2PaCO_2 (> 45 mm Hg), and normal HCO3−HCO_3^- (22-26 mEq/L).
Acute retention of CO2CO_2 drops the pH immediately, while the kidneys have not yet had time (48-72 hours) to initiate metabolic compensation by retaining bicarbonate.
4
Identify the physiological manifestations of the imbalance.
Expect lethargy and headache.
Excess CO2CO_2 acts as a potent cerebral vasodilator, increasing intracranial blood volume and causing neurological depression.

Key Concept

Uncompensated Acute Respiratory Acidosis
Question 1127Question →

A nurse evaluates a client admitted with community-acquired pneumonia and a comorbidity of heart failure. The client is receiving continuous oxygen therapy at 3 L/min3\text{ L/min} via nasal cannula. Over the past hour, the client has become increasingly restless with a respiratory rate of 32 breaths/min32\text{ breaths/min}. Arterial blood gas analysis reveals a pH value of 7.527.52, a PaCO2PaCO_2 of 28 mm Hg28\text{ mm Hg}, a PaO2PaO_2 of 58 mm Hg58\text{ mm Hg}, and a bicarbonate level of 24 mEq/L24\text{ mEq/L}. Which action should the nurse take first?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Apply a non-rebreather mask and notify the rapid response team.

Answer

The highest priority action is to apply a non-rebreather mask and immediately alert the rapid response team to aggressively manage the refractory hypoxemia.
The client's laboratory parameters indicate severe hypoxemia (PaO2PaO_2 less than 60 mm Hg60\text{ mm Hg}). The extreme tachypnea (causing uncompensated respiratory alkalosis) and restlessness are direct physiological adaptations attempting to correct the oxygen deficit. The most critical intervention is to treat the root cause by providing high-concentration oxygen via a non-rebreather mask and immediately activating the rapid response team to prevent impending respiratory failure.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the assessment data and arterial blood gas results.
The findings reveal severe hypoxemia (PaO2PaO_2 of 58 mm Hg58\text{ mm Hg}) occurring despite supplemental oxygen therapy.
Identifying the primary physiological disturbance is the first step in clinical judgment.
2
Interpret the client's presenting symptoms and acid-base imbalance in context.
The tachypnea, resulting respiratory alkalosis, and restlessness are direct physiological compensatory responses to profound tissue hypoxia.
Distinguishing between a primary disease process and a secondary compensatory mechanism ensures interventions target the root cause rather than the symptoms.
3
Determine the most critical priority based on the ABCs (Airway, Breathing, Circulation).
The underlying cause of the deterioration is a failure in oxygenation, dictating that immediate escalation of oxygen delivery and emergency medical support are paramount.
Failing to correct profound hypoxemia will rapidly lead to respiratory failure and cardiac arrest.

Key Concept

Physiological Adaptation to Hypoxemia and Prioritization
Estimated Time:1m 30s
Question 1128Question →

An adult client who underwent a percutaneous liver biopsy three hours ago is being monitored on the medical-surgical unit. The nurse compares the client's current assessment findings with the baseline data obtained immediately upon arrival to the unit.

Assessment ParameterBaseline (Arrival)Current (3 Hours Post-Biopsy)
NeurologicalAwake and alertRestless and anxious
SkinWarm and dryCool and pale
Blood Pressure134/78 mm Hg114/92 mm Hg
Heart Rate74 beats/min112 beats/min
Respiratory Rate14 breaths/min24 breaths/min
Oxygen Saturation98% on room air94% on room air

Based on these findings, which of the following is the most accurate interpretation of the client's condition?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: The client is exhibiting early compensatory signs of hemorrhagic shock, as evidenced by the narrowed pulse pressure and restlessness.

Answer

The client is exhibiting early compensatory signs of hemorrhagic shock, as evidenced by the narrowed pulse pressure and restlessness.
The client's assessment reveals a significantly narrowed pulse pressure (from 56 mm Hg to 22 mm Hg), mild tachycardia, tachypnea, and cool, pale skin. Following a highly vascular procedure like a percutaneous liver biopsy, these are definitive indicators of the compensatory stage of hemorrhagic shock. The body activates the sympathetic nervous system to maintain cardiac output and perfuse vital organs through systemic vasoconstriction (which increases diastolic pressure, narrows the pulse pressure, and cools the skin) and an increased heart rate. Restlessness is an early neurological indicator of decreased cerebral blood flow. Identifying these subtle trends is critical to intervene before the client progresses to decompensated, hypotensive shock.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the baseline and current vital signs to identify critical hemodynamic trends.
The pulse pressure has significantly narrowed from 56 mm Hg to 22 mm Hg. The heart rate increased by 38 bpm, and the respiratory rate increased by 10 breaths/min.
Calculating the pulse pressure is essential for detecting the subtle, early physiological changes of shock before profound hypotension occurs.
2
Evaluate the physical assessment findings in the context of the recent invasive procedure.
The client had a liver biopsy (a procedure with a high bleeding risk) and has transitioned from having warm, dry skin to cool, pale skin, alongside new-onset restlessness.
These assessment changes indicate activation of the sympathetic nervous system, peripheral vasoconstriction, and decreased cerebral perfusion.
3
Synthesize the data to determine the most accurate clinical interpretation and priority.
The combination of a narrowed pulse pressure, tachycardia, peripheral vasoconstriction, and altered mentation in a high-risk postoperative client points directly to early compensatory hemorrhagic shock.
Accurate interpretation prevents the dangerous error of dismissing critical deterioration as normal postoperative pain, anxiety, or primary hyperventilation.

Key Concept

Early Recognition of Compensatory Shock
Question 1129Question →

A nurse is caring for a client who is 2 hours post-procedure following a right femoral cardiac catheterization. The client suddenly reports severe right groin pain. Upon inspection, the nurse notes a rapidly expanding, firm swelling at the catheter insertion site and a heart rate of 118 beats/minute. Which action should the nurse take first?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Apply firm, continuous manual pressure directly over the femoral insertion site.

Answer

Apply firm, continuous manual pressure directly over the femoral insertion site.
The client's presentation of severe groin pain and a rapidly expanding swelling indicates a developing hematoma from active arterial bleeding at the femoral access site. In an acute bleeding scenario, the nurse's immediate priority is to address Circulation by applying firm, direct pressure to the site to achieve hemostasis and prevent hypovolemic shock.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Assess the clinical findings presented in the scenario.
The client is experiencing severe groin pain, a rapidly expanding firm swelling at the insertion site, and tachycardia.
Recognizing the signs of a specific post-procedure complication is necessary before determining the appropriate intervention.
2
Identify the underlying physiological threat.
The findings are classic indicators of a developing hematoma caused by active arterial bleeding.
Arterial hemorrhage can quickly lead to severe hypovolemia and shock if not immediately controlled.
3
Determine the priority intervention using the ABCs framework.
Direct manual pressure must be applied immediately to the femoral site.
Circulation takes precedence; stopping active blood loss is a higher priority than further diagnostic testing or delegation of duties.

Key Concept

Post-procedure hemorrhage management and prioritization
Question 1130Question →

A nurse is providing care for a client who is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN) via a central venous access device. Which of the following nursing actions are necessary to ensure the safe administration of this therapy? Select all that apply.

Select all that apply

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Monitor capillary blood glucose levels every 4 to 6 hours.; Replace the intravenous administration set and filter every 24 hours.; Hang an infusion of 10% dextrose in water if the current TPN bag empties before a replacement is available.

Answer

The correct actions include monitoring blood glucose every 4 to 6 hours, replacing the IV tubing and filter every 24 hours, and hanging 10% dextrose in water if the TPN bag runs out early.
Total parenteral nutrition requires meticulous nursing management to prevent metabolic and infectious complications. Because of the high dextrose content, routine capillary blood glucose checks (usually every 4 to 6 hours) are mandatory to monitor for hyperglycemia. If the TPN infusion is interrupted or runs dry before the pharmacy provides the next bag, the nurse must infuse 10% dextrose in water (D10W) at the prescribed TPN rate to prevent profound rebound hypoglycemia. Finally, due to the high risk of microbial growth in the nutrient-rich solution, the IV tubing and inline filter must be completely replaced every 24 hours.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Evaluate the risk of hyperglycemia and hypoglycemia associated with TPN.
Identify that blood glucose monitoring is required every 4-6 hours, and D10W must be hung if the TPN is interrupted to prevent rebound hypoglycemia.
TPN contains a high concentration of dextrose, which stresses the pancreas. Abrupt cessation removes the glucose source while insulin levels remain temporarily high.
2
Evaluate the infection risks associated with TPN administration.
Identify that the administration set and filter must be changed every 24 hours.
The nutrient-dense nature of TPN promotes rapid microbial growth, necessitating frequent tubing changes according to facility protocol and CDC guidelines.
3
Evaluate line compatibility and flow rate rules for TPN.
Identify that rates should never be sped up to catch up, and the line must remain dedicated solely to TPN.
Speeding up the rate causes hyperosmolar diuresis. Using the TPN line for other medications introduces the risk of dangerous precipitates and compromises line sterility.

Key Concept

Total Parenteral Nutrition (TPN) Safety and Administration Principles
Question 1131Question →

Following a fall from a roof, a client with a confirmed unstable pelvic fracture experiences a sudden change in condition during the afternoon shift. The client, previously calm, becomes exceedingly restless and reports an intense sensation of thirst. The bedside monitor displays a heart rate of 126 beats/min, a blood pressure reading of 90/54 mm Hg, and a respiratory rate of 26 breaths/min. The indwelling urinary catheter has drained 15 mL of dark urine in the last 60 minutes. Which of the following immediate interventions are required? Select all that apply.

Select all that apply

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Apply a supplemental oxygen delivery device.; Prepare for rapid replacement of intravascular volume using isotonic crystalloids.

Answer

The correct interventions are applying a supplemental oxygen delivery device and preparing for rapid replacement of intravascular volume using isotonic crystalloids.
The client is exhibiting classic signs of early compensatory hemorrhagic shock secondary to a pelvic fracture. Symptoms include tachycardia, hypotension, tachypnea, oliguria, intense thirst, and restlessness (a key early sign of cerebral hypoxia). The priority nursing actions are to maximize tissue oxygenation by applying supplemental oxygen and to restore circulating blood volume by preparing for rapid isotonic intravenous fluid administration.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the client's clinical presentation and vital signs.
The client exhibits tachycardia, hypotension, tachypnea, severe oliguria, thirst, and new-onset restlessness after sustaining a high-risk injury (pelvic fracture).
Identifying abnormal assessment findings is the first step in recognizing a life-threatening complication such as hemorrhagic shock.
2
Determine the priority pathophysiological needs based on the ABCs (Airway, Breathing, Circulation).
The client requires immediate interventions to support oxygenation and restore depleted intravascular volume.
Hemorrhagic shock leads to inadequate cellular perfusion. Intervening promptly prevents progression to irreversible shock and multiorgan failure.
3
Evaluate the proposed interventions against the client's physiological state.
Oxygen therapy and fluid resuscitation address the core pathophysiology. Opioids and high-Fowler's positioning are contraindicated as they exacerbate hypotension and hypoperfusion.
Nursing actions must prioritize physiological stabilization and avoid interventions that mask symptoms or mechanically decrease cardiac output.

Key Concept

Early Recognition and Management of Hypovolemic Shock
Question 1132Question →

A nurse is caring for a 74-year-old client who is 24 hours postoperative following a right-sided modified radical mastectomy with axillary lymph node dissection. The client reports mild discomfort and a feeling of heaviness in the right arm. Which of the following nursing actions is most appropriate to promote comfort and prevent complications?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Elevate the client's right arm on a pillow so it rests slightly above the level of the heart.

Answer

Elevate the client's right arm on a pillow so it rests slightly above the level of the heart.
Elevating the affected arm on a pillow above the level of the heart uses gravity to facilitate lymphatic and venous drainage. This is a primary, non-pharmacologic comfort measure that reduces postoperative edema (lymphedema) and relieves the sensation of heaviness in the extremity following an axillary lymph node dissection.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the client's postoperative status and reported symptoms.
The client is 24 hours post-mastectomy with axillary node dissection and reports arm heaviness, indicating a high risk for lymphedema and fluid accumulation.
Identifying the physiological risks associated with surgical lymphatic removal is essential for selecting appropriate comfort and preventative measures.
2
Evaluate the proposed nursing interventions against safety protocols and delegation guidelines.
Positioning on the operative side is contraindicated, initial teaching cannot be delegated to a UAP, and assuming symptoms are age-related delays necessary care.
Nursing actions must strictly adhere to scope of practice and evidence-based clinical guidelines to prevent client injury.
3
Select the intervention that safely addresses the client's discomfort.
Elevating the affected arm promotes venous and lymphatic return.
Gravity assists in draining fluid from the extremity, reducing localized edema, and relieving the feeling of heaviness without causing harm.

Key Concept

Post-mastectomy non-pharmacologic comfort and positioning
Question 1133Question →

A nurse is monitoring a client who is receiving an intravenous infusion of a prescribed antibiotic. Fifteen minutes after the infusion starts, the client becomes restless and reports a feeling of impending doom. Which assessment finding should the nurse identify as the most definitive indicator that the client is developing anaphylactic shock?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Diffuse expiratory wheezing and a heart rate of 122/min

Answer

The most definitive indicator of anaphylactic shock is diffuse expiratory wheezing combined with significant tachycardia.
Anaphylactic shock is a distributive shock characterized by sudden mast cell degranulation, leading to systemic vasodilation and profound bronchoconstriction. Diffuse expiratory wheezing directly indicates life-threatening airway compromise, while tachycardia is the rapid compensatory response to the massive drop in systemic vascular resistance. Together, these form the classic clinical presentation requiring immediate epinephrine administration.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the client's initial symptoms (restlessness, impending doom) within the context of receiving an intravenous antibiotic.
Identify that the client is at high risk for a systemic hypersensitivity reaction.
Restlessness and a feeling of impending doom are classic early, subjective signs of anaphylaxis before overt hemodynamic collapse.
2
Recall the underlying pathophysiology of anaphylactic shock.
Determine that anaphylaxis involves massive systemic vasodilation and severe bronchoconstriction.
Mast cell degranulation releases histamine, which relaxes vascular smooth muscle (distributive shock) and constricts bronchial smooth muscle.
3
Evaluate the clinical findings in each option against the expected pathophysiology of anaphylaxis.
Identify wheezing and tachycardia as the signs that directly match bronchospasm and the compensatory cardiac response to vasodilation.
Narrowing pulse pressure indicates hypovolemic or compensatory shock, while respiratory alkalosis is a non-specific anxiety or early hypoxic response.

Key Concept

Early recognition of systemic anaphylaxis requires identifying signs of distributive shock (vasodilation causing tachycardia and eventual hypotension) combined with airway compromise (bronchospasm causing wheezing).
Estimated Time:1m 0s
Question 1134Question →

A client is admitted to the medical-surgical unit immediately following a lumbar puncture. The client reports a mild, dull headache. Which of the following nursing actions is most appropriate?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Maintain the client in a flat, supine position for the prescribed duration and encourage oral fluid intake.

Answer

Maintain the client in a flat, supine position for the prescribed duration and encourage oral fluid intake.
Following a lumbar puncture, clients are at risk for developing a spinal headache due to the leakage of cerebrospinal fluid from the puncture site. Maintaining the client in a flat, supine position for several hours (usually 4 to 8 hours depending on facility policy) minimizes gravity-assisted leakage. Additionally, encouraging oral fluid intake, if not contraindicated, helps replenish the cerebrospinal fluid volume, thereby resolving the headache and promoting client comfort.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the client's recent procedure and current symptoms.
The client had a lumbar puncture and is experiencing a mild headache, a common complication known as a spinal headache.
Understanding the clinical context is essential to determine the correct nursing intervention.
2
Determine the physiological cause of a post-lumbar puncture headache.
The headache is caused by the leakage of cerebrospinal fluid through the dural puncture, which decreases fluid volume and intracranial pressure.
Identifying the cause guides the selection of interventions to restore fluid volume and prevent further leakage.
3
Select the intervention that addresses the physiological cause.
Keeping the client flat minimizes gravity-induced cerebrospinal fluid leakage, and providing oral fluids helps rapidly replenish the lost fluid.
These combined actions effectively promote comfort and resolve the headache.

Key Concept

Post-Lumbar Puncture Positioning and Hydration
Question 1135Question →

While conducting a comprehensive assessment on a client with a systemic infection, the nurse notes several physiological shifts. The nurse suspects the client is entering the early, hyperdynamic phase of septic shock. Which assessment findings indicate this specific stage of clinical deterioration? Select all that apply.

Select all that apply

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Bounding peripheral pulses; Widening pulse pressure; Laboratory results showing a serum pH of 7.487.48 and a PaCO2PaCO_2 of 2929 mm Hg

Answer

The findings indicating early (hyperdynamic) septic shock are a widening pulse pressure, bounding peripheral pulses, and laboratory results demonstrating respiratory alkalosis.
Early (hyperdynamic) septic shock is characterized by profound systemic vasodilation caused by inflammatory mediators. This vasodilation leads to a decreased diastolic blood pressure, which widens the pulse pressure. Cardiac output initially increases to compensate, resulting in bounding peripheral pulses. Additionally, the client hyperventilates in response to early hypoxia and systemic inflammation, causing respiratory alkalosis (elevated pH, decreased PaCO2).

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the pathophysiology of early septic shock.
Early septic shock is characterized by a hyperdynamic state caused by massive systemic vasodilation in response to inflammatory mediators.
Understanding the underlying vasodilation helps differentiate this initial phase from other types of shock or the late stages of septic shock.
2
Evaluate the hemodynamic and peripheral assessment options based on vasodilation.
Profound vasodilation leads to a decreased diastolic blood pressure (causing a widened pulse pressure) and an initial increase in cardiac output (presenting as bounding pulses and warm skin).
This eliminates options describing a narrowing pulse pressure and cool, mottled extremities, which are signs of vasoconstriction and decreased cardiac output seen in late shock.
3
Assess the arterial blood gas (ABG) options in the context of early shock compensation.
Early in shock, the client hyperventilates to increase oxygen delivery, leading to 'blowing off' carbon dioxide and resulting in respiratory alkalosis.
Metabolic acidosis occurs later when prolonged tissue hypoxia forces anaerobic metabolism, leading to lactic acid accumulation.

Key Concept

Differentiation between the early (hyperdynamic) and late (hypodynamic) phases of septic shock.
Question 1136Question →

A client with end-stage renal disease is brought to the emergency department with severe weakness and palpitations. The client's serum potassium level is 7.9 mEq/L7.9\text{ mEq/L} (7.9 mmol/L7.9\text{ mmol/L}), and the cardiac monitor displays widened QRS complexes. The healthcare provider prescribes STAT intravenous (IV) 10%10\% calcium gluconate, IV 8.4%8.4\% sodium bicarbonate, IV regular insulin, and IV 50%50\% dextrose. The client has a single peripheral IV line infusing 0.9%0.9\% sodium chloride. Which action by the nurse is the most appropriate?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Administer the calcium gluconate and sodium bicarbonate sequentially, flushing the IV line thoroughly with 0.9%0.9\% sodium chloride between each medication.

Answer

The most appropriate action is to administer the medications separately, ensuring the IV line is thoroughly flushed with 0.9%0.9\% sodium chloride between the calcium gluconate and the sodium bicarbonate.
Calcium gluconate and sodium bicarbonate are physically incompatible. When mixed, they react to form an insoluble precipitate (calcium carbonate, or chalk) which can cause life-threatening emboli. To safely administer both medications through a single peripheral IV line, the nurse must administer them sequentially and ensure the line is thoroughly flushed with a compatible solution, such as 0.9%0.9\% sodium chloride, between the infusions.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the client's clinical presentation and the prescribed medications.
The client has severe hyperkalemia with cardiac toxicity (widened QRS), requiring STAT administration of calcium gluconate, sodium bicarbonate, insulin, and dextrose.
Identifying the urgency and the purpose of each medication is required to prioritize safe administration.
2
Evaluate the physical compatibility of the prescribed intravenous medications.
Calcium gluconate and sodium bicarbonate are known to be highly physically incompatible when mixed together.
Mixing calcium salts with bicarbonate results in the formation of insoluble calcium carbonate precipitate.
3
Determine the safest method to administer incompatible medications through a single peripheral IV line.
The medications must be given separately, and the IV line must be flushed completely with a compatible neutral solution.
Thorough flushing prevents the incompatible medications from mixing inside the IV tubing, thereby preventing precipitation and potential embolic events.

Key Concept

Intravenous Medication Compatibility and Safe Administration Practices
Question 1137Question →

A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving continuous total parenteral nutrition (TPN) via a single-lumen peripherally inserted central catheter (PICC). The healthcare provider prescribes a scheduled dose of intravenous (IV) ceftriaxone. The drug reference guide indicates that ceftriaxone is chemically incompatible with the TPN formulation. Which of the following is the most appropriate nursing action?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Initiate a new peripheral intravenous catheter to administer the prescribed antibiotic.

Answer

The nurse must initiate a new peripheral intravenous catheter to administer the prescribed antibiotic safely.
The correct action involves establishing a new peripheral intravenous site. Total parenteral nutrition (TPN) requires a strictly dedicated IV line due to its high glucose and lipid content, which carries a substantial risk for infection. Additionally, abruptly pausing continuous TPN to administer another medication can cause sudden, severe hypoglycemia. Because ceftriaxone is chemically incompatible with TPN and can cause fatal precipitates (especially with calcium often found in TPN), and the central line must remain dedicated and uninterrupted, the nurse must establish a new peripheral IV access to safely deliver the scheduled antibiotic.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the chemical incompatibility between ceftriaxone and the total parenteral nutrition (TPN) solution.
Recognize that the two solutions cannot be mixed in the same IV tubing or catheter lumen without causing dangerous precipitation.
Mixing incompatible solutions, especially TPN which often contains calcium, with ceftriaxone can cause fatal crystalline precipitates.
2
Evaluate the current venous access and the physiological requirements of TPN administration.
Note that the client has only a single-lumen central line that must remain dedicated to continuous TPN.
TPN lines must remain strictly dedicated to prevent central line-associated bloodstream infections (CLABSI), and TPN cannot be abruptly paused due to the risk of severe reactive hypoglycemia.
3
Determine the safest method to administer the scheduled antibiotic without compromising the TPN therapy.
Select the insertion of a new peripheral IV catheter as the safest and most appropriate intervention.
A separate IV line ensures timely administration of the antibiotic while maintaining the dedicated TPN line and preventing drug incompatibilities.

Key Concept

Management of Intravenous Incompatibilities and Total Parenteral Nutrition (TPN) Safety
Question 1138Question →

While assessing a client on the first postoperative day following a total thyroidectomy, the nurse observes the client experiencing severe anxiety, visible muscle twitching, and circumoral paresthesia. The rapid response team is activated, and a stat arterial blood gas (ABG) analysis is drawn, reporting the following values: pH 7.547.54, PaCO2PaCO_2 2626 mmHgmm Hg, HCO3−HCO_3^- 2323 mEq/LmEq/L, and PaO2PaO_2 9696 mmHgmm Hg. Based on these findings, which initial action is most appropriate to mitigate the risk of impending seizures or tetany?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Instruct the client to breathe slowly and deeply into a paper bag or cupped hands.

Answer

The correct action is to instruct the client to breathe slowly into a paper bag or cupped hands to correct the respiratory alkalosis.
The client is exhibiting signs of uncompensated respiratory alkalosis (pH > 7.45 and PaCO2 < 35 mm Hg) driven by hyperventilation (anxiety/panic). In an alkalotic state, hydrogen ions dissociate from albumin molecules in the blood. This leaves empty binding sites on the albumin, which calcium ions quickly fill, sharply decreasing the amount of biologically active, free 'ionized' calcium. For a client who is already at peak risk for hypocalcemia following a total thyroidectomy (due to potential parathyroid gland injury), this sudden drop in ionized calcium rapidly precipitates acute tetany, manifesting as circumoral paresthesia and muscle twitching. Coaching the client to breathe into a paper bag allows the rebreathing of carbon dioxide. This corrects the hypocapnia and alkalosis, subsequently releasing calcium from albumin and rapidly increasing the free ionized calcium to mitigate the immediate risk of seizures.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the arterial blood gas (ABG) values to determine the primary physiological derangement.
The pH is elevated (7.547.54) and the PaCO2PaCO_2 is decreased (2626 mmHgmm Hg), indicating uncompensated respiratory alkalosis due to hyperventilation.
Accurate interpretation of diagnostic data is required to identify the root cause of the acute deterioration.
2
Correlate the acid-base imbalance with the surgical history and clinical symptoms.
Alkalosis causes hydrogen ions to dissociate from albumin, allowing more calcium to bind to these proteins. This sharply decreases active ionized calcium.
Understanding this physiological relationship explains why the hyperventilation is causing acute tetany (muscle twitching, paresthesia) in a client already at risk for hypocalcemia post-thyroidectomy.
3
Select the most appropriate immediate intervention to reverse the specific pathophysiological mechanism.
Having the client rebreathe their expired carbon dioxide corrects the hypocapnia and shifts the blood pH back toward normal, which releases calcium back into its ionized, active state.
Correcting the respiratory alkalosis is the fastest, most direct method to stabilize the ionized calcium and prevent a life-threatening seizure while pharmacological interventions are being prepared.

Key Concept

The physiological relationship between respiratory alkalosis, protein binding, and ionized hypocalcemia in post-surgical clients.
Question 1139Question →

A nurse is assessing a client who experienced an acute anterior myocardial infarction earlier in the shift. Which of the following assessment findings indicate the client is developing cardiogenic shock? Select all that apply.

Select all that apply

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Urine output of 15 mL over the past hour; Narrowing pulse pressure; New onset of restlessness and confusion

Answer

The findings indicating cardiogenic shock include a urine output of 15 mL over the past hour, narrowing pulse pressure, and a new onset of restlessness and confusion.
Cardiogenic shock occurs when the heart loses its ability to pump effectively, leading to systemic hypoperfusion. The correct assessment findings directly reflect this critical state: a urine output of 15 mL/hr demonstrates reduced renal blood flow; a narrowing pulse pressure occurs as systolic pressure falls and diastolic pressure rises from compensatory vasoconstriction; and new onset restlessness signifies decreased cerebral perfusion.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the client's underlying condition and primary risk.
The client had an anterior myocardial infarction, which significantly damages the left ventricle and severely impairs cardiac contractility, placing them at high risk for pump failure.
Understanding the primary pathology helps predict the type of physiological decompensation (cardiogenic shock).
2
Identify the physiological consequences of cardiac pump failure.
Impaired pumping leads to a dramatic drop in stroke volume and cardiac output, reducing oxygen delivery and blood flow to vital organs.
Organ hypoperfusion and the body's compensatory mechanisms create the classic clinical signs of cardiogenic shock.
3
Evaluate each assessment finding against the signs of hypoperfusion.
Oliguria reflects poor renal perfusion. A narrowing pulse pressure indicates compensatory vasoconstriction combined with falling systolic pressure. Restlessness indicates cerebral hypoxia. Weak pulses and tachycardia are the expected hemodynamic responses.
Matching the clinical signs to the pathophysiology correctly differentiates true shock from stable recovery or other complications.

Key Concept

Cardiogenic shock is characterized by severe impairment of ventricular pumping, leading to decreased cardiac output, systemic organ hypoperfusion, and compensatory sympathetic nervous system activation.
Estimated Time:1m 30s
Question 1140Question →

A nurse enters the room of a client receiving continuous intravenous fluids through a right subclavian central venous access device (CVAD). The nurse observes that the IV tubing has completely disconnected from the catheter hub. The client is suddenly tachypneic, diaphoretic, and reports severe, sharp chest pain. After immediately clamping the CVAD, which of the following is the nurse's priority action?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Place the client in a left lateral Trendelenburg position

Answer

Place the client in a left lateral Trendelenburg position
The client is exhibiting classic signs of a venous air embolism, a life-threatening complication caused by air entering the venous system through an open central line. Placing the client in the left lateral Trendelenburg position (Durant's maneuver) is the absolute priority. This position utilizes gravity to trap the air bubble in the apex of the right ventricle, preventing it from migrating into the right ventricular outflow tract and pulmonary artery, which would cause an acute obstructive shock.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the clinical scenario
The client has a disconnected CVAD with sudden onset of respiratory distress and chest pain.
These findings are classic indicators of a venous air embolism, which occurs when negative intrathoracic pressure draws room air into the open venous system.
2
Identify the immediate physiological threat
Air entering the right side of the heart can block the right ventricular outflow tract and pulmonary artery, causing acute obstructive shock.
Immediate physical intervention is required to prevent the air from migrating further into the pulmonary circulation.
3
Determine the priority intervention
Placing the client in a left lateral Trendelenburg position (Durant's maneuver) traps the air in the apex of the right ventricle.
This positional change keeps the buoyant air bubble away from the pulmonary valve, maintaining cardiac output and reducing the risk of a fatal obstruction.

Key Concept

Management of Venous Air Embolism
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