Examkin

All practice questions

4581 questions

All types4,581Multiple choice2,372Multiple select712True / False174Numeric188Matching670Ordering415Fill in the blank20Short answer30
Question 2021Question →

Which economic curve graphically represents the cumulative distribution of income or wealth in a population to measure inequality?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Lorenz Curve

Answer

The Lorenz Curve is the graphical representation of income or wealth inequality within a population.
The Lorenz Curve is the standard graphical representation of wealth or income distribution. Developed by Max O. Lorenz in 1905, it plots population percentiles against cumulative income. The area between the line of perfect equality and the Lorenz curve determines the Gini coefficient.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the core subject of the question
The question asks for the specific graph used to visually depict income distribution and inequality.
Different economic curves illustrate distinct macro and microeconomic relationships.
2
Evaluate the definition of the Lorenz Curve
The Lorenz curve compares the cumulative percentage of population (x-axis) with the cumulative percentage of income earned (y-axis). A line of perfect equality (45-degree line) serves as the baseline.
The deviation of the Lorenz curve from the 45-degree line measures the degree of income inequality, which forms the basis for calculating the Gini Coefficient.

Key Concept

Lorenz Curve and Inequality Measurement
Estimated Time:45s
Question 2022Question →

With reference to the constitutional authority and obligations of the Governor, Chief Minister, and State Legislature in an Indian State, which of the following statements are correct?

Select all that apply

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Before giving a decision on the disqualification of a member of the State Legislature under Article 192, the Governor is constitutionally bound to obtain and act according to the opinion of the Election Commission.; The Chief Minister is constitutionally required under Article 167 to communicate all decisions of the Council of Ministers relating to state administration and legislative proposals to the Governor.

Answer

The statement regarding the Governor being bound by the opinion of the Election Commission on member disqualification under Article 192 and the statement regarding the Chief Minister's duty under Article 167 to furnish Council of Ministers decisions to the Governor are both correct.
The correct options are the statement regarding Article 192 (where the Governor is bound by the Election Commission's opinion on disqualification questions) and the statement regarding Article 167 (which details the Chief Minister's constitutional obligation to communicate Council of Ministers decisions to the Governor). Both statements accurately state the constitutional law.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the constitutional mechanism for member disqualifications under Article 192.
Confirm that for disqualifications under Article 191(1), the Governor decides after obtaining the opinion of the Election Commission of India and must act strictly according to such opinion.
Article 192(2) explicitly mandates that the Governor act according to the opinion of the Election Commission.
2
Examine the constitutional duties of the Chief Minister towards the Governor under Article 167.
Confirm that the Chief Minister is duty-bound to communicate cabinet decisions and legislative proposals to the Governor.
Article 167 establishes the Chief Minister as the primary channel of communication between the Council of Ministers and the Governor.
3
Evaluate the limitation on the Governor's pardoning powers regarding death sentences under Article 161.
Identify that while the Governor can suspend, remit, or commute a death sentence, the power to pardon a death sentence belongs solely to the President under Article 72.
Attributing complete pardoning power for death sentences to the Governor conflates Presidential and Gubernatorial prerogatives.
4
Verify the adjudicating authority for disqualification under the Anti-Defection Law (Tenth Schedule).
Confirm that the Presiding Officer of the Legislative House (Speaker/Chairman) holds the power to decide defection cases, not the Governor.
The Tenth Schedule places the power of deciding disqualifications due to defection with the Presiding Officer of the House concerned.

Key Concept

Constitutional Roles, Duties, and Disqualification Mechanisms of the Governor, Chief Minister, and State Legislature
Question 2023Question →

Match the Constitutional Provisions listed under List-I with their corresponding Objectives or Scope described under List-II:

Click a left item, then click its matching right item

Items

Article 20(3)
Article 38(2)
Article 48A
Article 51A(f)

Matches

Show answer & explanation

Answer

Article 20(3) corresponds to protection against self-incrimination; Article 38(2) corresponds to the directive to minimize inequalities in income, status, facilities, and opportunities; Article 48A corresponds to the mandate for the State to protect the environment, forests, and wildlife; and Article 51A(f) corresponds to the duty of citizens to value and preserve the rich heritage of composite culture.
Article 20(3) provides fundamental right protection against self-incrimination. Article 38(2) is a DPSP introduced by the 44th Amendment requiring the State to minimize inequalities in income, status, facilities, and opportunities. Article 48A is a DPSP introduced by the 42nd Amendment requiring the State to protect the environment, forests, and wildlife. Article 51A(f) is a Fundamental Duty under Part IVA obligating citizens to preserve composite culture.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the Fundamental Right provision under Part III
Article 20(3) explicitly protects an accused person from being compelled to testify against themselves (protection against self-incrimination).
Part III provisions constitute justiciable Fundamental Rights protecting personal liberties.
2
Identify the Directive Principles of State Policy under Part IV
Article 38(2) directs the State to minimize economic and social inequalities, whereas Article 48A mandates the protection of environment, forests, and wildlife by the State.
Part IV sets out non-justiciable constitutional directives guiding State policymaking and governance.
3
Identify the Fundamental Duty under Part IVA
Article 51A(f) articulates the moral obligation of citizens to value and preserve the nation's composite cultural heritage.
Part IVA enumerates duties expected from citizens to uphold national ethos and unity.

Key Concept

Constitutional classification and provisions across Part III (Fundamental Rights), Part IV (Directive Principles of State Policy), and Part IVA (Fundamental Duties).
Question 2024Question →

With reference to the constitutional provisions governing the State Executive and State Legislature in India, which of the following statements are correct?

Select all that apply

Show answer & explanation

Answer: The Governor is constitutionally required to reserve a bill passed by the State Legislature for the consideration of the President if it endangers the constitutional position of the High Court.; A resolution passed by a Legislative Assembly for the creation or abolition of a Legislative Council under Article 169 requires a special majority of total membership and two-thirds of members present and voting.

Answer

The correct statements are the mandatory reservation of High Court-affecting bills under Article 200 and the special majority requirement for Legislative Council creation or abolition under Article 169.
The statement regarding High Court powers is correct because Article 200 makes reservation of such bills mandatory to maintain judicial independence. The statement regarding Article 169 is correct because creating or abolishing a State Legislative Council requires an Assembly resolution passed by a special majority before Parliament can enact relevant legislation.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Evaluate the Governor's mandatory reservation powers under Article 200
Confirm that bills derogating from High Court powers must be reserved for the President
Article 200 explicitly mandates reservation if a bill endangers the constitutional position of the High Court.
2
Analyze the scope of pardoning power under Article 161 versus Article 72
Identify that only the President can grant a pardon for death sentences
While the Governor can commute or suspend a death sentence, the power to grant a complete pardon for death sentences is reserved exclusively for the President.
3
Examine the legislative procedure under Article 169 for State Legislative Councils
Confirm the requirement of a special majority in the Legislative Assembly
Creation or abolition of a Legislative Council requires an Assembly resolution supported by a majority of total membership and at least two-thirds of members present and voting.
4
Verify presidential timelines under Article 201 regarding reserved state bills
Confirm there is no six-month time limit in the Constitution
The Constitution specifies no time limit for the President's action on reserved bills.

Key Concept

Constitutional Prerogatives and Legislative Procedures of State Executive and Legislature
Question 2025Question →

Which of the following represents the correct sequential order of the procedural stages involved in the presentation and enactment of the Annual Financial Statement (Budget) in the Indian Parliament, from commencement to completion?

Drag items to arrange them in the correct order

Show answer & explanation

Answer

The correct chronological sequence for the enactment of the Budget in Parliament is: Presentation of the Budget → General Discussion → Scrutiny by Departmentally Related Standing Committees → Voting on Demands for Grants → Passing of the Appropriation Bill → Passing of the Finance Bill.
The enactment of the Budget (Annual Financial Statement under Article 112) follows a strict six-stage constitutional procedure in the Indian Parliament: 1. Presentation of Budget in Lok Sabha, 2. General Discussion in both Houses, 3. Scrutiny of Demands for Grants by Departmentally Related Standing Committees (DRSCs) during recess, 4. Voting on Demands for Grants exclusively in the Lok Sabha (Article 113), 5. Passing of the Appropriation Bill (Article 114) to authorize withdrawal from the Consolidated Fund of India, and 6. Passing of the Finance Bill to legalize taxation proposals.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the initial legislative act of the financial year.
The process begins with the presentation of the Annual Financial Statement under Article 112.
The executive must lay the budget estimates before Parliament prior to any legislative deliberation.
2
Trace the initial legislative discussion and committee referral stages.
General Discussion occurs first, followed by the recess period where Departmentally Related Standing Committees scrutinize individual ministry demands.
General discussion sets the macro-economic context before committee-level micro-examination of specific grants.
3
Differentiate the voting stage and financial authorization legislation.
Lok Sabha votes on Demands for Grants, followed immediately by the passage of the Appropriation Bill, and concluding with the Finance Bill.
Expenditure authorization (Appropriation Bill under Article 114) must precede tax enactment (Finance Bill) to finalize budget completion.

Key Concept

Procedural Stages of Budget Enactment in Indian Parliament
Estimated Time:2m 0s
Question 2026Question →

Inland water transport is a vital component of India's multimodal transportation architecture. Which of the following statements regarding Inland Waterways and river transport infrastructure in India are correct?

Select all that apply

Show answer & explanation

Answer: National Waterway-2 (NW-2) stretches along the Brahmaputra River between Sadiya and Dhubri in Assam.; National Waterway-3 (NW-3) incorporates the West Coast Canal along with the Champakara and Udyogmandal canals in Kerala.

Answer

The correct statements are that National Waterway-2 stretches along the Brahmaputra River between Sadiya and Dhubri in Assam, and National Waterway-3 incorporates the West Coast Canal along with the Champakara and Udyogmandal canals in Kerala.
National Waterway-2 (Sadiya to Dhubri on the Brahmaputra River) and National Waterway-3 (Kottapuram to Kollam including Champakara and Udyogmandal canals in Kerala) are correctly described in terms of their geographical extent and connected canal networks.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Evaluate the statement concerning National Waterway-2 (NW-2)
NW-2 spans 891 km on the Brahmaputra River from Sadiya to Dhubri in Assam. The statement is correct.
It correctly identifies the river system, state, and terminal locations for NW-2.
2
Evaluate the statement concerning National Waterway-3 (NW-3)
NW-3 spans 205 km along Kerala's West Coast Canal (Kottapuram to Kollam) plus the Champakara and Udyogmandal canals. The statement is correct.
It accurately states the navigational canal network constituting NW-3.
3
Evaluate the administration and headquarters location of IWAI
IWAI was set up under the IWAI Act, 1985, and functions under the Ministry of Ports, Shipping and Waterways with headquarters in Noida, UP. The statement mentioning Mumbai is incorrect.
IWAI headquarters is located in Noida, Uttar Pradesh, not Mumbai.
4
Evaluate the governance mechanism for National Waterways
The National Waterways Act, 2016 empowers the Union Government through IWAI to develop, regulate, and maintain declared National Waterways. The statement claiming exclusive state board control is incorrect.
Central authority and funding drive National Waterways development.

Key Concept

Inland Waterways Network and Administrative Structure in India
Question 2027Question →

Under Part IX of the Constitution of India (73rd Constitutional Amendment Act), which of the following provisions correctly governs the tenure and election requirements of a Panchayat constituted upon the premature dissolution of an existing Panchayat?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: The newly constituted Panchayat continues only for the remainder of the period for which the dissolved Panchayat would have continued.

Answer

A Panchayat constituted upon the dissolution of a Panchayat before the expiration of its duration continues only for the remainder of the period for which the dissolved Panchayat would have continued.
According to Article 243E(4) of Part IX of the Constitution, a Panchayat constituted upon the dissolution of a Panchayat before the expiration of its duration shall continue only for the remainder of the period for which the dissolved Panchayat would have continued had it not been so dissolved.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the constitutional tenure provision under Article 243E of the Constitution of India.
Article 243E(1) sets the standard duration of every Panchayat at five years from the date appointed for its first meeting.
Establishing the normal baseline duration of a local self-government body.
2
Examine the rules for premature dissolution under Article 243E(3) and Article 243E(4).
Elections following dissolution must be completed within six months. Furthermore, Article 243E(4) specifies that the newly elected body serves only the remainder of the original five-year period.
Determining the exact constitutional rule governing reconstituted bodies.
3
Evaluate the proviso concerning short remaining tenures.
If the unexpired period is less than six months, holding fresh elections for the remaining duration is not mandatory.
Verifying edge-case conditions regarding elections after dissolution.

Key Concept

Duration of Panchayats and rules governing premature dissolution under Article 243E of the 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act
Estimated Time:1m 15s
Question 2028Question →

Arrange the following National Waterways (NW) of India in the correct geographical sequence from North to South based on the location of their northernmost terminals.

Drag items to arrange them in the correct order

Show answer & explanation

Answer

The correct North to South sequence is National Waterway 2, followed by National Waterway 1, National Waterway 4, and finally National Waterway 3.
The correct geographical sequence from North to South is determined by comparing the northern latitudes of each waterway's terminals: National Waterway 2 in Assam (~27.8° N) is northernmost, followed by National Waterway 1 along the Ganga system (~25.4° N), National Waterway 4 along the East Coast/Godavari-Krishna (~16.9° N), and National Waterway 3 along Kerala's West Coast (~10.2° N).

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the latitude of the northernmost terminal of National Waterway 2.
NW-2 covers the Brahmaputra River between Sadiya and Dhubri in Assam. Sadiya is located at ~27.8° N latitude.
This establishes the starting point for the northernmost waterway in the list.
2
Identify the latitude of the northernmost terminal of National Waterway 1.
NW-1 covers the Ganga-Bhagirathi-Hooghly river system from Prayagraj to Haldia. Prayagraj is located at ~25.4° N latitude.
NW-1 lies immediately south of NW-2.
3
Identify the latitude of the northernmost terminal of National Waterway 4.
NW-4 stretches along canals and the Godavari-Krishna rivers between Kakinada and Puducherry. Kakinada is located at ~16.9° N latitude.
NW-4 is positioned south of NW-1 in peninsular India.
4
Identify the latitude of the northernmost terminal of National Waterway 3.
NW-3 consists of the West Coast Canal from Kottapuram to Kollam in Kerala. Kottapuram is located at ~10.2° N latitude.
NW-3 is the southernmost waterway listed.

Key Concept

Geographical distribution and spatial orientation of National Waterways in India
Estimated Time:1m 15s
Question 2029Question →

Match the central administrative officials of the Delhi Sultanate listed in List-I with their corresponding administrative functions listed in List-II:

Click a left item, then click its matching right item

Items

Barid-i-Mamalik
Amir-i-Hajib
Mustaufi-i-Mamalik
Mushrif-i-Mamalik

Matches

Show answer & explanation

Answer

Barid-i-Mamalik corresponds to the head of state intelligence; Amir-i-Hajib corresponds to the master of royal court ceremonies; Mustaufi-i-Mamalik corresponds to the Auditor-General for state expenditure; and Mushrif-i-Mamalik corresponds to the Accountant-General for revenue records.
In the central administrative structure of the Delhi Sultanate, specialized ministers and officers assisted the Sultan: Barid-i-Mamalik managed the state news and intelligence department; Amir-i-Hajib oversaw royal court ceremonies and access protocol; Mustaufi-i-Mamalik served as Auditor-General of expenditure; and Mushrif-i-Mamalik served as Accountant-General of income records.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the responsibility of Barid-i-Mamalik
Barid-i-Mamalik supervised news writers (barids) and state intelligence gathering.
This establishes the match between Barid-i-Mamalik and state intelligence.
2
Identify the duty of Amir-i-Hajib
Amir-i-Hajib maintained royal protocol, handled petitions, and arranged court ceremonies.
This matches Amir-i-Hajib with master of ceremonies at the royal court.
3
Distinguish between Mustaufi-i-Mamalik and Mushrif-i-Mamalik
Mustaufi-i-Mamalik audited state expenditure while Mushrif-i-Mamalik kept income and revenue accounting books.
This pairs Mustaufi-i-Mamalik with Auditor-General and Mushrif-i-Mamalik with Accountant-General.

Key Concept

Delhi Sultanate Central Administration and Official Roles
Question 2030Question →

Arrange the following major soil groups of India in decreasing order of their percentage contribution to the total geographical area of the country:

Drag items to arrange them in the correct order

Show answer & explanation

Answer

The correct decreasing order of major soil groups by geographical area coverage in India is: Alluvial Soil, followed by Red Soil, Black Soil, and Laterite Soil.
According to the Indian Council of Agricultural Research (ICAR), the correct decreasing order of major soils by share of total geographical area is Alluvial Soil (~43%43\%), Red Soil (~18.5%18.5\%), Black Soil (~15%15\%), and Laterite Soil (~4.3%4.3\%).

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Assess the coverage of Alluvial Soil in India.
Alluvial soil covers approximately 43%43\% of India's land surface.
Deposition by major river networks (Indo-Gangetic-Brahmaputra system and eastern coastal rivers) makes it the most widespread soil.
2
Compare the spatial coverage of Red Soil and Black Soil.
Red soil covers about 18.5%18.5\% of the geographical area, while Black soil (Regur) covers about 15%15\%.
Weathering of crystalline metamorphic rocks creates extensive red soil tracts across Tamil Nadu, Karnataka, Andhra Pradesh, and Odisha, surpassing the extent of black volcanic soils.
3
Identify the geographical extent of Laterite Soil.
Laterite soil accounts for approximately 4.3%4.3\% of the total area.
Intense leaching under high rainfall conditions restricts laterite soils to specific highland regions.
4
Arrange the soils in decreasing order of area.
Alluvial Soil (43%43\%) > Red Soil (18.5%18.5\%) > Black Soil (15%15\%) > Laterite Soil (4.3%4.3\%).
This matches the official Indian Council of Agricultural Research (ICAR) land area classification.

Key Concept

Geographical Distribution and Area Share of Indian Soil Types
Question 2031Question →

Regarding the statutory mandate, organizational structure, and operational framework of the Central Vigilance Commission (CVC) in India, which of the following statements are correct?

Select all that apply

Show answer & explanation

Answer: The Central Vigilance Commission was originally established by an executive resolution in 1964 on the recommendations of the Santhanam Committee and was subsequently granted statutory status by an Act of Parliament in 2003.; The Central Vigilance Commissioner holds office for a term of four years from the date of entering office or until attaining the age of sixty-five years, whichever is earlier, and is ineligible for re-employment under the Central or State government.

Answer

The correct statements are that the Central Vigilance Commission was initially set up by executive resolution in 1964 on Santhanam Committee recommendations before gaining statutory status in 2003, and that the Central Vigilance Commissioner serves a four-year tenure (or up to age 65) with a bar on subsequent government employment.
The statements highlighting the CVC's establishment in 1964 via the Santhanam Committee recommendations followed by statutory status in 2003, along with its designated 4-year / 65-year age limit tenure and prohibition on further government employment, accurately reflect the provisions of the Central Vigilance Commission Act, 2003.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the historical origin and statutory evolution of the Central Vigilance Commission.
The CVC was established via an executive resolution in 1964 following the recommendations of the K. Santhanam Committee on Prevention of Corruption, and Parliament later enacted the Central Vigilance Commission Act, 2003, making it a statutory body.
Verifies the accurate historical sequence and legislative foundation of the body.
2
Evaluate the composition of the Selection Committee for the appointment of the Central Vigilance Commissioner.
The statutory selection committee consists of three members: the Prime Minister (Chairperson), the Minister of Home Affairs, and the Leader of the Opposition in the Lok Sabha. The Chief Justice of India is not part of this selection panel.
Distinguishes CVC appointment mechanisms from other bodies like Lokpal or the National Human Rights Commission where judicial officers serve on selection panels.
3
Examine the tenure, age limit, and post-tenure eligibility provisions of the Central Vigilance Commissioner.
Under Section 5 of the CVC Act, 2003, the Commissioner holds office for 4 years or until reaching 65 years of age (whichever is earlier) and cannot accept further employment under the Union or State governments.
Confirms statutory tenure limits and post-retirement disqualification rules.
4
Assess the administrative status and reporting authority of the Commission.
The CVC is an autonomous body not subordinate to the Ministry of Law and Justice or any executive department; it submits its annual report to the President of India.
Ensures proper understanding of institutional independence and reporting hierarchy.

Key Concept

Statutory framework, appointment procedure, tenure, and autonomy of the Central Vigilance Commission under the CVC Act, 2003.
Question 2032Question →

Chronologically arrange the following historical committees, policy initiatives, and institutional developments in Indian economic planning and structural reforms, from the earliest to the latest:

Drag items to arrange them in the correct order

Show answer & explanation

Answer

The correct chronological order from earliest to latest is: (1) Constitution of the P. C. Mahalanobis Committee on Income Distribution (October 1960), (2) Launch of the original Twenty Point Programme (July 1975), (3) Appointment of the Sukhamoy Chakravarty Committee to Review the Working of the Monetary System (December 1982), (4) Submission of the C. Rangarajan Committee Report on Disinvestment of Shares in Public Sector Enterprises (April 1993), and (5) Release of NITI Aayog's Three-Year Action Agenda (August 2017).
The correct sequence chronologically traces key stages of economic governance in India: the P. C. Mahalanobis Committee on Income Distribution (October 1960), the Twenty Point Programme (July 1975), the Sukhamoy Chakravarty Monetary Committee (December 1982), the C. Rangarajan PSE Disinvestment Report (April 1993), and NITI Aayog's Three-Year Action Agenda (August 2017).

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Determine the date of the P. C. Mahalanobis Committee on Income Distribution and Levels of Living.
Established in October 1960.
This represents the earliest planning milestone among the given items, formed post-Second Five-Year Plan.
2
Determine the date of the original Twenty Point Programme launch.
Launched in July 1975.
It was launched during the Fifth Five-Year Plan to target poverty and social welfare.
3
Determine the date of the Sukhamoy Chakravarty Committee appointment.
Appointed in December 1982.
This landmark RBI monetary committee preceded the 1991 structural reforms.
4
Determine the date of the C. Rangarajan Committee Report on Disinvestment.
Submitted in April 1993.
It was set up in the early phase of post-1991 structural reforms to guide public enterprise disinvestment.
5
Determine the date of NITI Aayog's Three-Year Action Agenda release.
Released in August 2017.
This is the most recent initiative, marking the replacement of traditional Five-Year Plans.

Key Concept

Chronology of Economic Planning History, Monetary and Structural Reforms, and NITI Aayog Framework
Estimated Time:2m 30s
Question 2033Question →

Regarding the physiographic sub-divisions and alluvial relief characteristics of the Northern Plains of India, which of the following statements are correct?

Select all that apply

Show answer & explanation

Answer: The Bhabar tract is a narrow belt of pebble deposits running parallel to the Shiwalik foothills where river streams disappear due to high porosity.; The Terai zone lies south of the Bhabar belt, where underground streams re-emerge to create a marshy and ill-drained forested tract.

Answer

The correct statements are that the Bhabar tract is a narrow belt of pebble deposits along the Shiwalik foothills where streams disappear, and the Terai zone lies south of the Bhabar belt where re-emerging streams form a marshy, ill-drained tract.
The Bhabar and Terai descriptions accurately reflect the North-to-South physiographic zonation at the base of the Shiwalik range. Streams lose surface expression in the pebble-rich Bhabar and re-emerge to create the marshy Terai tract.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the Bhabar belt characteristics
Confirm that the Bhabar belt lies along the Shiwalik foothills, composed of unassorted boulders and pebbles causing stream sinking.
Verify structural sequence from North to South in the Northern Plains.
2
Evaluate the Terai zone features
Confirm that re-emergence of streams south of Bhabar creates the damp, swampy Terai region.
Ensure correct physical transition between relief zones.
3
Differentiate between Bhangar and Khadar alluvial deposits
Recognize that Bhangar is the older higher-terraced alluvium (often with Kankar nodules), whereas Khadar is the newer, fertile floodplain alluvium.
Identify inversions in soil age and flood deposition definitions.

Key Concept

Physiographic Zoning of the Northern Plains of India (Bhabar, Terai, Bhangar, Khadar)
Question 2034Question →

During a financial year, a state government records a total Revenue Expenditure of ₹85,000 crore and total Revenue Receipts of ₹70,000 crore. If grants-in-aid released by the state for the creation of capital assets total ₹5,000 crore, what is the Effective Revenue Deficit of the state in ₹ crore?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: 10000

Answer

The Effective Revenue Deficit of the state is ₹10,000 crore.
The Effective Revenue Deficit measures the difference between Revenue Deficit and grants-in-aid used for generating capital assets. First, find the Revenue Deficit (85,000−70,000=15,00085,000 - 70,000 = 15,000 crore). Subtracting the grants for capital assets (15,000−5,00015,000 - 5,000) yields an Effective Revenue Deficit of ₹10,000 crore.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Calculate the standard Revenue Deficit.
Revenue Deficit = ₹15,000 crore.
Revenue Deficit represents the excess of total revenue expenditure over total revenue receipts: 85,000−70,000=15,00085,000 - 70,000 = 15,000.
2
Deduct the grants-in-aid earmarked for the creation of capital assets from the Revenue Deficit.
Effective Revenue Deficit = ₹10,000 crore.
Effective Revenue Deficit excludes grants given for capital asset formation as they lead to asset creation rather than pure consumption: 15,000−5,000=10,00015,000 - 5,000 = 10,000.

Key Concept

Effective Revenue Deficit
Question 2035Question →

Match the Emergency provisions and related grounds under the Constitution of India in List-I with their corresponding Articles in List-II:

Click a left item, then click its matching right item

Items

National Emergency (War, External Aggression, or Armed Rebellion)
President's Rule (Failure of Constitutional Machinery in States)
Financial Emergency (Threat to Financial Stability or Credit of India)
Failure of a State to comply with directions given by the Union

Matches

Show answer & explanation

Answer

National Emergency matches Article 352, President's Rule matches Article 356, Financial Emergency matches Article 360, and Failure of a State to comply with Union directions matches Article 365.
The correct pairing aligns each constitutional provision directly with its specific article: National Emergency with Article 352, President's Rule with Article 356, Financial Emergency with Article 360, and Union directive non-compliance consequences with Article 365.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Match National Emergency with its governing Article
National Emergency maps to Article 352.
Article 352 empowers the President to proclaim a National Emergency during external aggression, war, or armed rebellion.
2
Match President's Rule with its governing Article
President's Rule maps to Article 356.
Article 356 deals with the failure of constitutional machinery in a State.
3
Match Financial Emergency with its governing Article
Financial Emergency maps to Article 360.
Article 360 authorizes the proclamation of Financial Emergency when the financial stability of India is threatened.
4
Match Non-compliance with Union directives with its sanctioning Article
Failure to comply with Union directions maps to Article 365.
Article 365 establishes the legal basis to invoke Article 356 if a State fails to comply with Union directives.

Key Concept

Constitutional Articles governing Emergency Provisions and Centre-State Relations
Question 2036Question →

Match the economic planning milestones and institutional frameworks in List-I with their corresponding features or objectives in List-II:

Click a left item, then click its matching right item

Items

Fifth Five-Year Plan
National Development Council (NDC)
Team India Hub (NITI Aayog)
Rangarajan Committee (1993)

Matches

Show answer & explanation

Answer

The correct pairings are: the Fifth Five-Year Plan matches with poverty alleviation ('Garibi Hatao') and self-reliance; the National Development Council matches with the apex body established in 1952 for reviewing Five-Year Plans; the Team India Hub matches with the dedicated division facilitating state-centre engagement within NITI Aayog; and the Rangarajan Committee (1993) matches with the formulation of criteria for disinvestment in Public Sector Enterprises.
Each item in List-I directly corresponds to its correct historical objective or institutional role in List-II: the Fifth Plan targeted poverty removal; the NDC approved planning drafts; the Team India Hub handles state-centre coordination; and the Rangarajan Committee specified disinvestment norms for PSEs.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the primary objective of the Fifth Five-Year Plan
The Fifth Plan (1974–1978) prioritized 'Garibi Hatao' (Poverty Removal) and self-reliance.
This establishes the match for the Fifth Five-Year Plan.
2
Examine the role of the National Development Council (NDC)
Set up in 1952, the NDC was presided over by the Prime Minister to approve national Five-Year Plans drafted by the Planning Commission.
This establishes the match for the National Development Council.
3
Analyze the operational setup of NITI Aayog
NITI Aayog features the Team India Hub, which coordinates between central ministries and state governments to foster cooperative federalism.
This establishes the match for the Team India Hub.
4
Determine the mandate of the 1993 Rangarajan Committee
Formed as part of early post-1991 structural reforms, the committee laid down procedures for public sector equity disinvestment.
This establishes the match for the Rangarajan Committee.

Key Concept

History of Economic Planning, NITI Aayog Architecture, and Post-1991 Structural Reform Committees
Question 2037Question →

Which of the following Standing Committees of the Indian Parliament consists exclusively of members drawn from the Lok Sabha?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Committee on Estimates

Answer

The Committee on Estimates consists exclusively of 30 members elected solely from among the members of the Lok Sabha.
The Committee on Estimates is the largest committee of Parliament, consisting of 30 members who are exclusively elected from the Lok Sabha every year. Rajya Sabha members are not represented on this committee at all because it scrutinizes budget estimates prepared by government departments.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Examine the membership structure of Financial Standing Committees in the Indian Parliament.
Identify that while most financial committees draw members from both Houses, the Committee on Estimates is unique.
Lok Sabha exercises primary authority over financial matters, budget examination, and expenditure estimates.
2
Verify the exact numerical composition of the Committee on Estimates.
It has 30 members, and all 30 are elected from the Lok Sabha annually using single transferable vote.
Rajya Sabha has no representation in the Estimates Committee.

Key Concept

Composition of Parliamentary Financial Committees
Question 2038Question →

Match the Articles under Part IX of the Constitution of India in List I with their corresponding constitutional provisions in List II.

Click a left item, then click its matching right item

Items

Article 243D
Article 243G
Article 243I
Article 243K

Matches

Show answer & explanation

Answer

Article 243D matches with Reservation of seats for Scheduled Castes, Scheduled Tribes, and Women; Article 243G matches with Powers, authority, and responsibilities of Panchayats; Article 243I matches with Constitution of State Finance Commission to review financial position; Article 243K matches with Superintendence, direction, and control of elections by State Election Commission.
Article 243D governs the reservation of seats for vulnerable categories and women; Article 243G relates to the powers, authority, and functions of Panchayats; Article 243I details the State Finance Commission; and Article 243K establishes the State Election Commission.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Determine the constitutional scope of Article 243D
Article 243D specifically provides for mandatory seat reservations for SCs, STs, and women at all three levels of Panchayati Raj institutions.
Ensures social inclusion and political representation of vulnerable groups.
2
Determine the constitutional scope of Article 243G
Article 243G outlines the legislative framework for devolving powers and responsibilities to Panchayats regarding matters listed in the Eleventh Schedule.
Establishes Panchayats as functional units of self-governance.
3
Determine the constitutional scope of Article 243I
Article 243I mandates the periodic constitution of a State Finance Commission by the Governor every five years.
Secures fiscal devolution, grants-in-aid, and financial autonomy for local bodies.
4
Determine the constitutional scope of Article 243K
Article 243K establishes an independent State Election Commission headed by a State Election Commissioner to conduct elections to Panchayats.
Guarantees free, fair, and regular elections at the local level.

Key Concept

Constitutional Provisions of Part IX under the 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992
Question 2039Question →

Under Article 280 of the Constitution of India, which body is constituted by the President of India to recommend the distribution of net tax proceeds between the Union and the States?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: The Finance Commission

Answer

The Finance Commission is the constitutional body mandated under Article 280 of the Constitution of India.
Article 280 of the Constitution of India mandates the President to constitute a Finance Commission every five years. Its main duty is to recommend the distribution of divisible tax proceeds between the Union and the States (vertical devolution) and among the States (horizontal devolution).

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the constitutional provisions governing Centre-State fiscal relations
Article 280 specifies the creation of a Finance Commission.
The Constitution requires an independent quasi-judicial body to recommend fair revenue sharing between the Union and the States.
2
Verify the role and appointing authority of the body
The President of India constitutes the Finance Commission every five years (or earlier).
This guarantees periodic review of vertical and horizontal fiscal imbalances in Indian public finance.

Key Concept

Constitutional provisions for public finance and revenue distribution in India (Article 280).
Question 2040Question →

Match the prominent Bhakti movement saint-poets listed under List I with their characteristic regional devotional literary compositions listed under List II.

Click a left item, then click its matching right item

Items

Basavanna
Lal Ded
Sankaradeva
Chandidas

Matches

Show answer & explanation

Answer

Basavanna corresponds to Vachanas in Kannada, Lal Ded corresponds to Vakhs in Kashmiri, Sankaradeva corresponds to Borgeet and Kirtana-ghosha in Assamese, and Chandidas corresponds to Srikrishna Kirtana in Early Bengali.
The correct pairings align each Bhakti saint with their respective regional language and devotional poetic form: Basavanna composed Kannada Vachanas, Lal Ded composed Kashmiri Vakhs, Sankaradeva authored Assamese Borgeets and Kirtana-ghosha, and Chandidas authored early Bengali Radha-Krishna lyrics including Srikrishna Kirtana.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the literary genre of Basavanna
Basavanna is paired with Kannada Vachanas.
Basavanna led the Sharana movement in Karnataka and used simple Kannada prose-poetry (Vachanas) to critique social hierarchies and reject complex ritualism.
2
Identify the literary genre of Lal Ded
Lal Ded is paired with Kashmiri Vakhs.
Lal Ded's four-line poetic utterances called Vakhs formed a cornerstone of medieval Kashmiri language and spiritual synthesis.
3
Identify the literary contributions of Sankaradeva and Chandidas
Sankaradeva composed Borgeets and Kirtana-ghosha in Assam, while Chandidas pioneered early Bengali devotional literature through Srikrishna Kirtana.
Sankaradeva initiated the Neo-Vaishnavite movement in Assam using devotional music and literature, whereas Chandidas was a renowned early exponent of Radha-Krishna Bhakti literature in Bengal.

Key Concept

Regional Vernacular Literature of Bhakti Saint-Poets
Estimated Time:1m 30s
PreviousPage 102 / 230Next
All practice questions — State PSC Exam | Examkin