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Question 2041Question

Consider the following statements regarding national income indicators:

1. Nominal GDP measures an economy's total gross domestic product evaluated using prices of the current year.
2. Real GDP measures economic output using constant base-year prices to isolate the effect of quantity changes from price changes.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Both 1 and 2

Answer

Both statement 1 and statement 2 are correct.
Both statements are correct. Nominal GDP is calculated using current year market prices, incorporating both physical output changes and price movements. Real GDP holds prices constant at base-year levels to isolate real physical growth from inflationary noise.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Evaluate Statement 1 regarding Nominal GDP.
Statement 1 is correct because Nominal GDP expresses total output using current market prices without inflation adjustment.
Nominal GDP reflects both volume of production and price fluctuations occurring during the current reporting period.
2
Evaluate Statement 2 regarding Real GDP.
Statement 2 is correct because Real GDP values output using constant prices from a fixed base year.
By keeping prices constant at base-year levels, Real GDP strips out the effect of inflation to reflect actual growth in volume of goods and services.

Key Concept

Real vs. Nominal GDP Accounting
Estimated Time:45s
Question 2042Question

Match List-I (Constitutional Articles concerning the Union Executive) with List-II (Respective Specific Provisions) and select the correct matching code:

Click a left item, then click its matching right item

Items

Article 74(1)
Article 75(1A)
Article 77(3)
Article 78(b)

Matches

Show answer & explanation

Answer

Article 74(1) corresponds to the President's power to require reconsideration of ministerial advice; Article 75(1A) corresponds to the 15% numerical limit on the Council of Ministers relative to Lok Sabha membership; Article 77(3) corresponds to the President making rules for government business allocation; and Article 78(b) corresponds to the Prime Minister's duty to furnish administrative information to the President.
Article 74(1) establishes the aid and advice rule with the reconsideration proviso added by the 44th Amendment. Article 75(1A) fixes the 15% Lok Sabha ceiling on the Council of Ministers under the 91st Amendment. Article 77(3) grants the President authority to make rules of business allocation. Article 78(b) specifies the PM's obligation to supply administrative information requested by the President.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Examine Article 74(1) and its constitutional modifications.
Article 74(1) governs the Council of Ministers aiding and advising the President. The 44th Amendment Act added the specific proviso allowing the President to request a one-time reconsideration.
This differentiates the advice mechanism under Article 74(1) from general administrative provisions.
2
Analyze Article 75(1A) regarding cabinet size limitations.
Article 75(1A) was introduced via the 91st Constitutional Amendment Act, 2003 to limit the total number of ministers (including the PM) to 15% of the total strength of the Lok Sabha.
This establishes a structural ceiling on executive size to prevent oversized cabinets.
3
Distinguish between Article 77(3) and Article 78(b).
Article 77(3) concerns formal Government of India rules of business made by the President, whereas Article 78(b) establishes the Prime Minister's specific communication obligation to inform the President.
Differentiating institutional rules of business from personal duties of the Prime Minister resolves the remaining pair matches.

Key Concept

Constitutional Articles governing the Union Executive, Ministerial Responsibility, and Executive Business Conduct
Question 2043Question

With reference to the institutional framework of NITI Aayog and the post-2017 economic planning mechanism in India, consider the following statements:

I. NITI Aayog does not possess the statutory power to allocate financial grants to state governments, transferring fund devolution responsibilities entirely to the Union Ministry of Finance.
II. The Governing Council of NITI Aayog is chaired by the Union Finance Minister and includes the Chief Ministers of all States and Union Territories with Assemblies.
III. NITI Aayog replaced traditional Five-Year Plans with a framework comprising a 15-Year Vision Document, a 7-Year Medium-Term Strategy, and a 3-Year Action Agenda.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Statements I and III only

Answer

Statements I and III only are correct.
The correct choice highlights that Statements I and III are factually accurate. NITI Aayog lacks statutory fund allocation powers (which reside with the Finance Ministry/Finance Commission), and it replaced Five-Year Plans with the 15-Year Vision, 7-Year Strategy, and 3-Year Action Agenda. Statement II is false because the Prime Minister, not the Union Finance Minister, chairs NITI Aayog and its Governing Council.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Evaluate Statement I regarding the fund allocation powers of NITI Aayog.
Statement I is correct. Unlike the former Planning Commission, which disbursed plan grants under the Gadgil-Mukherjee formula, NITI Aayog has no financial allocation powers. Financial transfers are managed by the Finance Commission and the Ministry of Finance.
NITI Aayog was established as an extra-constitutional policy think-tank to foster cooperative federalism without administrative fund disbursement functions.
2
Evaluate Statement II regarding the Chairperson of NITI Aayog's Governing Council.
Statement II is incorrect. The Prime Minister of India is the ex-officio Chairperson of the Governing Council of NITI Aayog, not the Union Finance Minister.
The organizational structure of NITI Aayog places the Prime Minister at the apex as Chairperson, accompanied by Vice-Chairperson, Chief Ministers of States, and Lt. Governors of UTs.
3
Evaluate Statement III regarding the post-2017 long-term planning framework.
Statement III is correct. Following the completion of the 12th Five-Year Plan (2012–2017), NITI Aayog introduced a multi-tier planning framework consisting of a 15-Year Vision Document (up to 2031-32), a 7-Year National Development Strategy, and a 3-Year Action Agenda.
This framework was instituted to shift away from rigid 5-year targets toward flexible long-term perspective planning combined with actionable short-term goals.

Key Concept

Organizational Architecture of NITI Aayog and Post-2017 Planning Framework
Question 2044Question

Which of the following metrics specifically measures income inequality as the ratio of the income share of the richest 10% of the population to that of the poorest 40%?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Palma ratio

Answer

Palma ratio
The Palma ratio is defined explicitly as the ratio of the richest 10% of the population's share of gross national income to the poorest 40%'s share. It provides a focused metric for extreme income concentration.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the definition of inequality measurement ratios based on population percentile income shares.
The metric defined by comparing the top 10% income share against the bottom 40% income share is established by economist Gabriel Palma.
It highlights the structural divergence between high earners and low earners while ignoring the middle 50% whose income share tends to remain relatively stable across countries.

Key Concept

Palma ratio as an inequality metric
Estimated Time:45s
Question 2045Question

Match the committees and working groups associated with Indian economic planning and structural reforms in List-I with their key policy recommendations or sectoral milestones in List-II. Which pairing correctly matches each committee with its primary reform mandate?

Click a left item, then click its matching right item

Items

L. K. Jha Committee (1976–1980)
Dandekar and Rath Study (1971)
Sukhamoy Chakravarty Committee (1985)
Abid Hussain Committee (1997)

Matches

Show answer & explanation

Answer

The L. K. Jha Committee corresponds to indirect tax reform toward MODVAT; the Dandekar and Rath study established the 2,250 kcal daily per capita poverty baseline; the Sukhamoy Chakravarty Committee introduced monetary targeting in planning; and the Abid Hussain Committee recommended complete de-reservation of Small Scale Industries (SSI) items.
Each committee is correctly mapped to its historical contribution: L. K. Jha Committee proposed MODVAT-style indirect taxation; Dandekar and Rath established the 2,250 kcal poverty intake metric; Sukhamoy Chakravarty Committee introduced monetary targeting for economic planning stability; and the Abid Hussain Committee advocated ending the reservation of products exclusively for small-scale enterprises.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the mandate of the L. K. Jha Committee (1976–1980)
Identified as the pioneer body recommending the restructuring of indirect taxes into a value-added system (MODVAT).
Tax reforms under indirect taxation were evaluated to eliminate cascading effects on industrial inputs during planning cycles.
2
Analyze the contribution of the Dandekar and Rath Study (1971)
Identified as establishing the baseline poverty norm using a minimum daily intake of 2,250 kcal per individual.
This study laid the quantitative foundation for subsequent Planning Commission task forces on poverty estimation.
3
Analyze the recommendations of the Sukhamoy Chakravarty Committee (1985)
Identified as proposing monetary targeting based on expected real GDP growth and acceptable inflation rates.
The committee aimed to ensure monetary expansion aligned with Five-Year Plan targets rather than fiscal dominance.
4
Analyze the recommendations of the Abid Hussain Committee (1997)
Identified as advising the total dismantling of SSI product reservation policies.
Post-1991 structural reforms required small-scale sector modernisation and scale economies for global competitiveness.

Key Concept

Economic Reform Committees and Planning Policy Milestones
Estimated Time:2m 0s
Question 2046Question

Consider the following statements regarding the GDP Deflator:

1. It is calculated as the ratio of Nominal GDP to Real GDP expressed as a percentage.
2. It includes the prices of imported consumer goods to measure domestic price level changes.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: 1 only

Answer

The statement declaring that the GDP Deflator is the ratio of Nominal GDP to Real GDP is correct, whereas the statement claiming it includes imported consumer goods is incorrect.
The GDP Deflator measures the average price level of all final goods and services produced domestically within an economy. Its formula is GDP Deflator=Nominal GDPReal GDP×100\text{GDP Deflator} = \frac{\text{Nominal GDP}}{\text{Real GDP}} \times 100, making Statement 1 true. Because GDP by definition includes only output produced within the national border, imported items are completely excluded from the GDP Deflator calculation, making Statement 2 false.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Evaluate Statement 1 regarding the formula of the GDP Deflator.
The GDP Deflator is an index measuring comprehensive price level changes in an economy, calculated as GDP Deflator=(Nominal GDPReal GDP)×100\text{GDP Deflator} = \left( \frac{\text{Nominal GDP}}{\text{Real GDP}} \right) \times 100. Statement 1 is true.
Nominal GDP measures output at current prices, while Real GDP measures output at constant base-year prices.
2
Evaluate Statement 2 regarding the boundary coverage of the GDP Deflator.
Gross Domestic Product (GDP) strictly measures output produced within the economic boundary of a country. Consequently, the GDP Deflator covers only domestically produced goods and services, excluding imported goods entirely. Statement 2 is false.
Imported consumer goods are reflected in price indices like the Consumer Price Index (CPI), not the GDP Deflator.

Key Concept

GDP Deflator vs. CPI Coverage Boundaries
Estimated Time:45s
Question 2047Question

Which of the following statements correctly describes the constitutional distinction regarding enforceability and judicial remedies between Fundamental Rights (Part III) and Directive Principles of State Policy (Part IV) under the Constitution of India?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Fundamental Rights are justiciable and guaranteed by judicial remedies under Article 32, while Directive Principles are non-justiciable and cannot be directly enforced by any court as declared in Article 37.

Answer

Fundamental Rights are justiciable and guaranteed by judicial remedies under Article 32, while Directive Principles are non-justiciable and cannot be directly enforced by any court as declared in Article 37.
The statement identifying Fundamental Rights as justiciable under Article 32 and Directive Principles as non-justiciable under Article 37 correctly states Indian constitutional law. Article 37 explicitly declares that the provisions contained in Part IV shall not be enforceable by any court.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the enforceability of Part III (Fundamental Rights)
Part III rights are justiciable; Article 32 explicitly guarantees the right to move the Supreme Court for their enforcement.
Fundamental Rights act as judicial checks against State infringement.
2
Analyze the enforceability of Part IV (Directive Principles of State Policy)
Part IV principles are non-justiciable; Article 37 expressly states that Directive Principles shall not be enforceable by any court.
Directive Principles serve as socio-economic goals for governance rather than legally enforceable personal rights.
3
Synthesize the correct constitutional distinction
The key constitutional difference lies in direct judicial enforceability: Part III is justiciable whereas Part IV is non-justiciable.
This structural division balances individual civil liberties with socio-economic welfare aspirations.

Key Concept

Justiciability contrast between Part III (Fundamental Rights) and Part IV (DPSP) under Articles 32 and 37
Question 2048Question

Which of the following major ports of India was developed as the country's first corporatised major port operating as a public company under the Companies Act, primarily designed to handle thermal coal imports for electricity generation?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Kamarajar Port (Ennore)

Answer

Kamarajar Port (Ennore)
Kamarajar Port, located on the Coromandel Coast in Tamil Nadu, was officially incorporated as Ennore Port Limited under the Companies Act, 1956. It holds the distinction of being India's first major port operating as a corporatised enterprise, constructed primarily to decongest Chennai Port and cater to the coal requirements of thermal power generation facilities.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the administrative structure of major ports in India.
Most major ports in India are governed as autonomous trusts under the Major Port Authorities Act, except Kamarajar Port.
Administrative differentiation is a key feature in Indian maritime infrastructure questions.
2
Examine the specific history of Ennore/Kamarajar Port.
Ennore Port Limited was registered as a public company under the Companies Act, 1956, to attract commercial flexibility and private investment.
It was designed specifically to unload coal for thermal power stations owned by Tamil Nadu Generation and Distribution Corporation (TANGEDCO).

Key Concept

Corporatised Major Ports and Cargo Handling Infrastructure in India
Estimated Time:1m 0s
Question 2049Question

Consider the following statements regarding the structural and relief features of the Peninsular Plateau of India:

1. The Central Highlands lie to the north of the Narmada River and are bounded by the Aravalli range on the northwest.
2. The Deccan Plateau is higher in the east and slopes gently towards the west.
3. The Western Ghats form a continuous relief wall that can be traversed only through passes, whereas the Eastern Ghats are discontinuous and dissected by major east-flowing rivers.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: 1 and 3 only

Answer

1 and 3 only
The correct response identifies statements 1 and 3 as true statements. The Central Highlands lie north of the Narmada River, and the Western Ghats are structurally continuous compared to the breached Eastern Ghats. The second statement is incorrect because the Deccan Plateau is higher on the western side and slopes towards the east, as evidenced by the drainage pattern of most major peninsular rivers.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze Statement 1 regarding the position of the Central Highlands.
Statement 1 is correct. The portion of the Peninsular plateau lying north of the Narmada River is broad and classified as the Central Highlands, demarcated by the Aravallis on the northwest and Vindhyas on the south.
Topographical boundaries confirm the northern extent of the Peninsular block.
2
Analyze Statement 2 regarding the regional slope of the Deccan Plateau.
Statement 2 is incorrect. The Deccan Plateau has a higher elevation in the west (Western Ghats region) and slopes gently towards the east, as demonstrated by the eastward flow of rivers like the Godavari, Krishna, and Cauvery.
River drainage direction highlights the west-to-east tilt of the Peninsular shield.
3
Analyze Statement 3 regarding the comparative relief continuity of the Western and Eastern Ghats.
Statement 3 is correct. The Western Ghats form a continuous escarpment (navigable via passes like Thal Ghat, Bhor Ghat, and Palghat), whereas the Eastern Ghats are fragmented and eroded by major east-flowing peninsular rivers.
Geological erosion patterns differ between the elevated Western margin and dissected Eastern margin.

Key Concept

Peninsular Plateau Physiography and Relief Slope
Estimated Time:1m 15s
Question 2050Question

Consider the following statements regarding the poverty estimation methodology recommended by the C. Rangarajan Committee (2014) in India:

1. It calculated separate poverty line baskets (PLB) for rural and urban areas based on normative levels of nutrition (calories, proteins, and fats) along with essential non-food expenditure.
2. It excluded private household expenditure on health and education from the poverty line basket on the assumption that these are entirely provided by the state.
3. It adopted the Modified Mixed Reference Period (MMRP) to collect consumer expenditure data across 7-day, 30-day, and 365-day recall windows.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: 1 and 3 only

Answer

Statements 1 and 3 only are correct.
The combination comprising Statements 1 and 3 only is correct. The Rangarajan Committee updated calorie, protein, and fat requirements for rural and urban areas separately, along with normative expenditures on non-food essentials. Furthermore, it adopted the Modified Mixed Reference Period (MMRP) survey method to capture consumption expenditure patterns more precisely.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze Statement 1 regarding nutritional norms and poverty line basket construction.
Statement 1 is correct. The C. Rangarajan Committee (2014) defined poverty based on normative requirements of calories (2155 kcal rural, 2090 kcal urban), protein (48g rural, 50g urban), fat (28g rural, 26g urban), and non-food essential items.
Establishing explicit nutritional and non-food standards was a key departure from earlier per-capita calorie-only benchmarks.
2
Analyze Statement 2 regarding private expenditure on health and education.
Statement 2 is incorrect. The committee accounted for out-of-pocket expenses for health, education, clothing, and shelter into the non-food component of the poverty basket rather than excluding them.
Assuming state provisioning would understate actual household expenditure needs for essential social services.
3
Analyze Statement 3 regarding the recall period used for consumer expenditure.
Statement 3 is correct. The Rangarajan panel adopted the Modified Mixed Reference Period (MMRP) recommendation of the National Sample Survey Office (NSSO), using 7-day recall for selected perishable foods, 30-day recall for general items, and 365-day recall for durable goods.
MMRP captures short-term frequency consumption items accurately while mitigating memory decay.

Key Concept

C. Rangarajan Committee Poverty Estimation Methodology and Reference Periods
Question 2051Question

Consider the following receipt heads under the Union Budget of India:

1. Dividends and profits earned from Public Sector Enterprises (PSEs)
2. Interest receipts on loans extended by the Central Government to State Governments
3. Disinvestment receipts from the liquidation of government equity in public undertakings
4. User charges and fees collected for administrative services

Which of the components listed above are classified as Non-Tax Revenue Receipts of the Central Government?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: 1, 2, and 4 only

Answer

Dividends from PSEs, interest on loans to State Governments, and administrative fees and fines (1, 2, and 4) are Non-Tax Revenue Receipts.
Revenue receipts of the government are divided into Tax Revenue and Non-Tax Revenue. Non-tax revenue includes interest receipts on loans given by the Union, dividends and profits from public sector undertakings, and user charges or fees. Disinvestment proceeds represent a sale of government assets and are categorized as non-debt capital receipts, excluding item 3 from revenue receipts.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Define Revenue Receipts vs Capital Receipts
Revenue Receipts do not create any financial liability nor reduce government financial assets. Capital Receipts either create a liability (e.g., market borrowings) or reduce financial assets (e.g., recovery of loans, disinvestment).
Establishing the accounting boundary is necessary to categorize each receipt item correctly.
2
Classify items 1, 2, and 4
Dividends from PSEs (1), interest on loans given to States (2), and fees/fines (4) yield recurring income without diminishing financial assets or raising debt liabilities. Hence, all three belong to Non-Tax Revenue Receipts.
They satisfy both criteria of revenue receipts and are non-tax source inflows.
3
Classify item 3 (Disinvestment proceeds)
Selling government equity in public enterprises reduces public asset ownership. Therefore, disinvestment proceeds are Non-Debt Creating Capital Receipts.
Asset-reducing receipts fall strictly under Capital Receipts.

Key Concept

Classification of Union Budget Receipts (Revenue Receipts vs Capital Receipts)
Estimated Time:1m 15s
Question 2052Question

Match the prominent relief and landform features of India listed in List I with their corresponding mountain ranges or geographical regions in List II:

Click a left item, then click its matching right item

Items

Karewa Formations
Longitudinal Duns
Dodabetta Peak
Dhupgarh Peak

Matches

Show answer & explanation

Answer

Karewa Formations pair with Kashmir Himalayas, Longitudinal Duns pair with Shiwalik Range, Dodabetta Peak pairs with Nilgiri Hills, and Dhupgarh Peak pairs with Satpura Range.
Karewas are glacial-lacustrine deposits characteristic of the Kashmir Himalayas. Longitudinal Duns are structural valleys created between the Shiwalik Range and the Lesser Himalayas. Dodabetta Peak is the highest point of the Nilgiri Hills, while Dhupgarh Peak is the elevation maximum of the Satpura Range.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the geographical region associated with Karewa formations.
Karewas are lacustrine deposits located specifically in the valley region of the Kashmir Himalayas.
This establishes the pair between Karewa Formations and the Kashmir Himalayas.
2
Identify the structural relief zone containing longitudinal Duns.
Duns are longitudinal valley structures formed between the Himachal (Lesser Himalayas) and the Shiwalik Range.
This establishes the pair between Longitudinal Duns and the Shiwalik Range.
3
Locate Dodabetta Peak within its relief unit.
Dodabetta (2,637 m) is the prominent highest peak of the Nilgiri Hills.
This establishes the pair between Dodabetta Peak and the Nilgiri Hills.
4
Locate Dhupgarh Peak within its relief unit.
Dhupgarh (1,350 m) is situated on the Mahadeo Hills of the Satpura Range.
This establishes the pair between Dhupgarh Peak and the Satpura Range.

Key Concept

Physiographic Units, Relief Landforms, and Peaks of India
Estimated Time:1m 0s
Question 2053Question

Which of the following statements is correct regarding the leadership and events associated with Maulvi Ahmadullah Shah during the Revolt of 1857?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: He mobilized local resistance in Faizabad and defeated British forces led by Sir Henry Lawrence at the Battle of Chinhat.

Answer

Maulvi Ahmadullah Shah mobilized local resistance in Faizabad and defeated British forces led by Sir Henry Lawrence at the Battle of Chinhat.
The correct option highlights the role of Maulvi Ahmadullah Shah of Faizabad (popularly called 'Danka Shah'), who emerged as one of the most effective leaders of the 1857 uprising in Awadh. He personally commanded insurgent troops that defeated Sir Henry Lawrence's forces at the Battle of Chinhat on June 30, 1857, forcing the British into the Residency at Lucknow.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the historical figure and key center of revolt.
Maulvi Ahmadullah Shah was a prominent leader of the Revolt of 1857 operating in the Awadh/Faizabad region.
Establishing the geographic center helps distinguish his role from leaders in Bareilly, Jhansi, or Chota Nagpur.
2
Evaluate major engagements associated with Maulvi Ahmadullah Shah.
In June 1857, his insurgent forces encountered British troops commanded by Chief Commissioner Sir Henry Lawrence at Chinhat (near Lucknow) and inflicted a decisive defeat on the British army.
This Battle of Chinhat directly led to the Siege of Lucknow.
3
Differentiate from roles of other key 1857 leaders.
Khan Bahadur Khan led Bareilly, Tatya Tope allied with Rani Lakshmibai, and tribal leaders like Buddho Bhagat led Chota Nagpur uprisings.
Verifying distractor attributions ensures accurate option selection.

Key Concept

Centers and Leadership of the Revolt of 1857
Estimated Time:1m 0s
Question 2054Question

Which of the following statements accurately reflects the constitutional boundary governing the Supreme Court's writ jurisdiction while entertaining a Public Interest Litigation (PIL) under Article 32 compared to a High Court's jurisdiction under Article 226?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: The Supreme Court can entertain a PIL under Article 32 strictly for the enforcement of Fundamental Rights, whereas High Courts can entertain PILs under Article 226 for the enforcement of Fundamental Rights as well as ordinary legal rights.

Answer

The Supreme Court can entertain a PIL under Article 32 strictly for the enforcement of Fundamental Rights, whereas High Courts can entertain PILs under Article 226 for the enforcement of Fundamental Rights as well as ordinary legal rights.
Article 32 provides a constitutional remedy exclusively for the enforcement of Part III Fundamental Rights. Consequently, any Public Interest Litigation (PIL) moved directly before the Supreme Court under Article 32 must demonstrate an infringement of a Fundamental Right. In contrast, Article 226 allows High Courts to issue writs for Fundamental Rights as well as 'for any other purpose', giving High Courts a broader jurisdictional scope for enforcing ordinary legal and statutory rights via PIL.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the constitutional scope of Article 32 for the Supreme Court.
Article 32 empowers the Supreme Court to issue writs solely for the enforcement of Fundamental Rights guaranteed under Part III of the Indian Constitution.
The language of Article 32 explicitly restricts remedies to rights conferred by Part III.
2
Analyze the constitutional scope of Article 226 for High Courts.
Article 226 empowers High Courts to issue writs 'for the enforcement of any of the rights conferred by Part III and for any other purpose'.
The phrase 'for any other purpose' extends High Court writ jurisdiction to non-fundamental legal and statutory rights.
3
Compare the scope of writ jurisdiction under both articles in the context of PIL.
High Court writ jurisdiction is subject-wise broader than Supreme Court writ jurisdiction, even though Supreme Court rulings carry nationwide territorial applicability under Article 141.
A PIL directly admitted in the Supreme Court must involve an alleged infringement of a Fundamental Right, whereas a High Court PIL can enforce statutory duties or legal rights.

Key Concept

Writ Jurisdiction and Constitutional Boundaries of Article 32 vs Article 226
Estimated Time:1m 30s
Question 2055Question

The Constitution of India explicitly outlines obligations of the Union towards the constituent States during crises. Which Article of the Constitution of India imposes a duty on the Union to protect every State against external aggression and internal disturbance, and to ensure that the government of every State is carried on in accordance with the provisions of the Constitution?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Article 355

Answer

Article 355 of the Constitution of India imposes a specific duty on the Union to protect every State against external aggression and internal disturbance and to ensure that the government of every State is carried on in accordance with the provisions of the Constitution.
Article 355 under Part XVIII of the Indian Constitution enshrines the obligation of the Central Government to protect States against external aggression and internal disturbance, while also ensuring that State administration functions according to constitutional mandates.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the key constitutional provision being queried
The provision asks for the specific Article that lays down the affirmative duty of the Centre to protect States and maintain constitutional governance.
Understanding the distinction between emergency proclamations and protective duties is essential.
2
Evaluate the relevant Articles under Part XVIII (Emergency Provisions)
Article 355 explicitly declares: 'It shall be the duty of the Union to protect every State against external aggression and internal disturbance and to ensure that the government of every State is carried on in accordance with the provisions of this Constitution.'
This Article acts as the foundation and justification for federal intervention, including under Article 356.

Key Concept

Duty of the Union to Protect States (Article 355)
Estimated Time:45s
Question 2056Question

With reference to the National Human Rights Commission (NHRC) of India following the Protection of Human Rights (Amendment) Act, 2019, consider the following statements:

1. The tenure of the Chairperson and Members of the Commission was revised from 5 years to 3 years, or until they attain the age of 70 years, whichever is earlier, with eligibility for re-appointment.
2. The high-level Selection Committee for recommending the appointment of the Chairperson includes the Prime Minister, Speaker of Lok Sabha, Leader of Opposition in Lok Sabha, Union Home Minister, and Deputy Chairman of Rajya Sabha, but excludes the Leader of Opposition in Rajya Sabha.
3. The 2019 amendment expanded the ex-officio members of the Commission to include the Chairperson of the National Commission for Backward Classes, the Chairperson of the National Commission for Protection of Child Rights, and the Chief Commissioner for Persons with Disabilities.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: 1 and 3 only

Answer

The correct combination includes statements 1 and 3 only.
The combination containing statements 1 and 3 is correct. The 2019 Amendment to the Protection of Human Rights Act reduced tenure from 5 years to 3 years (or 70 years of age) with re-appointment eligibility, and added the Chairpersons of NCBC, NCPCR, and Chief Commissioner for Persons with Disabilities as ex-officio members. Statement 2 is false because the Leader of Opposition in Rajya Sabha is explicitly part of the six-member selection committee.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze Statement 1 regarding statutory tenure changes
Statement 1 is correct. The Protection of Human Rights (Amendment) Act, 2019 reduced the tenure of the Chairperson and Members from 5 years to 3 years (or 70 years of age) and retained eligibility for re-appointment.
Verify statutory amendments to the Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993.
2
Evaluate Statement 2 regarding Selection Committee composition
Statement 2 is incorrect. The Selection Committee consists of six members: the Prime Minister (Chair), Speaker of Lok Sabha, Union Home Minister, Leaders of Opposition in BOTH Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha, and the Deputy Chairman of Rajya Sabha. It does not exclude the Leader of Opposition in Rajya Sabha.
Examine statutory provisions under Section 4(1) of the Protection of Human Rights Act.
3
Analyze Statement 3 regarding ex-officio members expansion
Statement 3 is correct. The 2019 amendment added the Chairpersons of NCBC, NCPCR, and the Chief Commissioner for Persons with Disabilities as ex-officio members alongside existing ones (NCST, NCSC, NCW, NCM).
Verify the expanded statutory representation under Section 3(3) of the Act.

Key Concept

Statutory composition, tenure rules, and appointment committee members of the National Human Rights Commission under the 2019 Amendment Act.
Question 2057Question

Under the constitutional framework of India, what is the exact legal position when a State Legislature re-passes an Ordinary Bill that was returned on the direction of the President of India after being reserved by the Governor under Article 200?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: The President is under no constitutional obligation to assent to the Bill and may still withhold assent even after it has been re-passed by the State Legislature.

Answer

The President is under no constitutional obligation to assent to the Bill and may still withhold assent even after it has been re-passed by the State Legislature.
Under Article 201 of the Constitution of India, when a Governor reserves a Bill for the consideration of the President, the President can either assent to the Bill or withhold assent. If the President directs the Governor to return the Bill to the State Legislature, the Legislature has six months to reconsider it. If the Bill is passed again by the State Legislature, it is presented to the President again, but the President is under no constitutional obligation to assent to it and may still withhold assent.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Examine Article 200 of the Indian Constitution
Article 200 empowers the Governor to assent, withhold assent, return a non-Money Bill, or reserve a Bill for the consideration of the President.
Understanding the entry point of Presidential reservation for state legislation.
2
Examine Article 201 regarding Bills reserved for the President's consideration
When a Bill is reserved, the President may assent or declare that assent is withheld. The President may also direct the Governor to return the Bill to the House(s) of the State Legislature along with a message.
Analyzing the scope of Presidential powers over state lawmaking.
3
Analyze the legal consequence of re-passage by the State Legislature
The State Legislature must reconsider the Bill within six months. If passed again with or without amendment, it is presented again to the President. However, unlike the Governor under the proviso to Article 200, the President is NOT constitutionally bound to give assent under Article 201.
Differentiating between Gubernatorial obligations and Presidential discretion under the Indian Constitution.

Key Concept

Presidential veto and reservation of state bills under Articles 200 and 201 of the Constitution of India
Question 2058Question

With reference to the administrative structure and land revenue system under the Imperial Cholas, consider the following statements:

1. The empire was hierarchically organized into provinces called Mandalams, which were further subdivided into Valanadus, Nadus, and Kurrams.
2. Systematic land surveys and detailed land classifications were conducted during the reign of Rajaraja I to fix precise revenue assessments.
3. The central revenue department responsible for maintaining land tax records was known as the Diwan-i-Wazarat.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: 1 and 2 only

Answer

Statements 1 and 2 only are correct.
The Chola empire maintained a highly structured administrative hierarchy consisting of Mandalams, Valanadus, Nadus, and Kurrams. King Rajaraja I ordered rigorous land revenue surveys to establish systematic tax rates based on productivity. The option indicating that statements 1 and 2 are correct correctly identifies these historical facts while excluding the incorrect statement.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze Statement 1 regarding Chola territorial administration.
Statement 1 is correct. The Chola state was divided into Mandalams (provinces), governed by royal princes or governors. Mandalams were divided into Valanadus (districts), which were further divided into Nadus (groups of villages) and Kurrams or Kottrams (individual villages or village clusters).
Verifying the territorial administrative hierarchy of the Imperial Cholas.
2
Analyze Statement 2 regarding land revenue surveys under Rajaraja I.
Statement 2 is correct. Rajaraja I (985–1014 CE) initiated extensive land surveys to measure agricultural land accurately, classify soil quality, and determine government revenue demand (Kadamai).
Assessing historical accuracy of Chola land measurement initiatives.
3
Analyze Statement 3 regarding the revenue department title.
Statement 3 is incorrect. The Chola land revenue department was called 'Puravuvari-tinaikkalam' (headed by Puravuvari-tinaikkalam-nayagam). 'Diwan-i-Wazarat' was the central finance/revenue department during the Delhi Sultanate.
Identifying term misattribution between South Indian medieval dynasties and Delhi Sultanate administrative institutions.

Key Concept

Chola Territorial Administration and Land Revenue Systems
Question 2059Question

Consider the following statements regarding the National Multidimensional Poverty Index (MPI) framework published by NITI Aayog:

1. The index assigns an equal weight of 13\frac{1}{3} to each of the three macroeconomic dimensions: Health, Education, and Standard of Living.
2. In addition to the ten indicators of the Global MPI, the National MPI incorporates two context-specific indicators for India: 'Maternal Health' and 'Bank Account'.
3. A household is classified as multidimensionally poor if its cumulative weighted deprivation score is equal to or exceeds 50%50\% of the weighted indicators.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: 1 and 2 only

Answer

Statements 1 and 2 only are correct.
The National Multidimensional Poverty Index developed by NITI Aayog aligns with the global Alkire-Foster methodology by maintaining three equally weighted dimensions (Health, Education, Standard of Living at one-third each). It adapts to the national policy landscape by including Maternal Health and Bank Account access, raising total indicators from 10 to 12. A household is multidimensionally poor if deprived in 33.33% or more of the weighted indicators; a 50% threshold indicates severe multidimensional poverty, rendering the third statement false.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Evaluate Statement 1 regarding dimensional weights.
Statement 1 is correct. The National MPI employs the Alkire-Foster dual-cutoff counting method, allocating equal weight of 13\frac{1}{3} to each of the three main dimensions: Health, Education, and Standard of Living.
Structure of the Multidimensional Poverty Index demands equal dimensional weighting.
2
Evaluate Statement 2 regarding indicator modifications.
Statement 2 is correct. NITI Aayog expanded the 10 indicators of the global Oxford Poverty and Human Development Initiative (OPHI)/UNDP model to 12 indicators by adding 'Maternal Health' under the Health dimension and 'Bank Account' under the Standard of Living dimension.
Customization aligns poverty metrics with national financial inclusion and maternal health policies.
3
Evaluate Statement 3 regarding the poverty headcount cutoff threshold.
Statement 3 is incorrect. A household is identified as multidimensionally poor if its deprivation score is greater than or equal to 13\frac{1}{3} (33.33%33.33\%) of the weighted indicators. A threshold of 50%50\% or higher defines 'severe' multidimensional poverty.
Confusing the poverty headcount cutoff threshold (33.33%33.33\%) with the severe poverty cutoff (50%50\%).

Key Concept

NITI Aayog National Multidimensional Poverty Index (MPI) Methodology and Thresholds
Question 2060Question

For a given financial year, the budgetary estimates of the Union Government of India are recorded as follows:
- Total Expenditure: 45,00,000\text{₹}45,00,000 crore
- Revenue Receipts: 22,50,000\text{₹}22,50,000 crore
- Non-Debt Capital Receipts (Recovery of Loans and Disinvestment): 75,000\text{₹}75,000 crore
- Interest Payments: 10,00,000\text{₹}10,00,000 crore

Based on these budgetary figures, what is the Gross Fiscal Deficit of the government for the financial year (in ₹ crore)?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: 2175000

Answer

The Gross Fiscal Deficit of the government for the financial year is ₹21,75,000 crore.
Gross Fiscal Deficit measures the net borrowing requirement of the government. It is calculated as the difference between Total Expenditure and Total Non-Debt Receipts (Revenue Receipts + Non-Debt Capital Receipts). Substituting the given values: ₹45,00,000 crore - (₹22,50,000 crore + ₹75,000 crore) = ₹21,75,000 crore.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Calculate Total Non-Debt Receipts
₹23,25,000 crore
Non-debt receipts consist of Revenue Receipts plus Non-Debt Capital Receipts (such as recovery of loans and disinvestment proceeds).
2
Compute Gross Fiscal Deficit
₹21,75,000 crore
Gross Fiscal Deficit represents the total borrowing requirements of the government, defined as the excess of Total Expenditure over Total Non-Debt Receipts.

Key Concept

Gross Fiscal Deficit Calculation
Estimated Time:1m 30s
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