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Question 2121Question →

Which of the following statements regarding demographic dividend and employment types in India are correct?

Select all that apply

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Demographic dividend refers to the economic growth potential that arises when the proportion of the working-age population (15 to 64 years) is higher than the dependent population.; Disguised unemployment is a scenario where more workers are employed in an activity than required, making the marginal productivity of additional labor zero.

Answer

The statements defining demographic dividend as a high proportion of working-age population and disguised unemployment as labor engagement with zero marginal productivity are correct.
The statements accurately capture that demographic dividend is driven by an expanded working-age demographic (15-64 years) and that disguised unemployment features surplus labor with zero marginal productivity.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Evaluate the definition of Demographic Dividend
Confirmed correct: It represents economic growth potential driven by a higher ratio of working-age individuals (15–64 years) relative to dependents.
Demographic transition reduces dependency ratios, allowing greater savings and investments.
2
Evaluate the definition of Disguised Unemployment
Confirmed correct: It refers to hidden unemployment where extra labor contribution yields zero marginal output.
This is a characteristic feature of primary sectors like agriculture in developing economies.
3
Evaluate the statement on Frictional Unemployment
Identified incorrect: Permanent structural skill mismatch defines structural unemployment, whereas frictional unemployment is short-term job search time.
Distinguishing between short-term job search dynamics and long-term structural changes.
4
Evaluate the statement on Seasonal Unemployment
Identified incorrect: Seasonal unemployment affects agro-based and seasonal businesses, not formal corporate IT sectors.
Industry characteristics dictate seasonal work patterns.

Key Concept

Demographic Dividend and Employment Classifications
Estimated Time:1m 0s
Question 2122Question →

Consider the following statements regarding the mechanism of fiscal transfers and grants-in-aid under the Indian Constitution:

1. Statutory grants under Article 275 are awarded on the recommendations of the Finance Commission and are charged directly upon the Consolidated Fund of India.
2. Discretionary grants under Article 282 permit both the Union and the States to make financial grants for any public purpose, outside the obligatory recommendations of the Finance Commission.
3. Special capital and revenue grants provided to states for promoting the welfare of Scheduled Tribes or raising the administration level of Scheduled Areas are governed under Article 282.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: 1 and 2 only

Answer

Statements 1 and 2 are correct, while Statement 3 is incorrect.
The correct response identifies that Statements 1 and 2 accurately describe Constitutional fiscal provisions. Statutory grants under Article 275 are non-tax transfers recommended by the Finance Commission and charged to the Consolidated Fund of India. Discretionary grants under Article 282 allow policy-driven transfers for any public purpose. Statement 3 misidentifies tribal welfare grants, which are constitutionally anchored in the proviso of Article 275(1).

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze Statement 1 regarding Article 275
Statement 1 is correct.
Article 275 empowers Parliament to make grants-in-aid to states in need of assistance on the recommendation of the Finance Commission. These statutory grants are charged on the Consolidated Fund of India.
2
Analyze Statement 2 regarding Article 282
Statement 2 is correct.
Article 282 is a miscellaneous financial provision enabling both the Union and States to allocate grants for any public purpose, regardless of whether that purpose falls within their legislative jurisdiction. These lie outside the Finance Commission statutory devolution framework.
3
Analyze Statement 3 regarding Tribal Area Grants
Statement 3 is incorrect.
Grants for schemes promoting the welfare of Scheduled Tribes or raising the level of administration of Scheduled Areas in a state are specifically provided under the second proviso to Article 275(1), making them statutory grants under Article 275, not discretionary grants under Article 282.

Key Concept

Constitutional provisions governing statutory grants (Article 275) versus discretionary public purpose grants (Article 282) in Indian public finance.
Estimated Time:1m 30s
Question 2123Question →

Regarding the office, election, and constitutional functions of the Vice-President of India, which of the following statements are correct?

Select all that apply

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Nominated members of both Houses of Parliament are entitled to participate in the election of the Vice-President.; During any period when the Vice-President acts as President or discharges the functions of the President, he does not perform the duties of the Chairman of the Rajya Sabha.

Answer

The statements stating that nominated members of both Houses of Parliament participate in the Vice-Presidential election and that the Vice-President does not perform the duties of the Chairman of Rajya Sabha while acting as President are correct.
The electoral college for the Vice-President of India consists of both elected and nominated members of Parliament, excluding state legislators. Furthermore, when the Vice-President acts as or discharges the functions of the President under Article 65, he ceases to perform the duties of the Chairman of the Council of States as per Article 64.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Examine the composition of the electoral college for the Vice-President under Article 66(1).
The electoral college consists of all members of both Houses of Parliament (including nominated members). State Legislative Assemblies are excluded.
To verify the eligibility of voters in the Vice-Presidential election.
2
Analyze the constitutional role of the Vice-President when acting as President under Article 64 and Article 65.
When discharging the functions or acting as President, the Vice-President stops performing the duties of the Chairman of the Rajya Sabha and receives the salary/allowances of the President.
To verify the separation of duties between the Executive head role and legislative Chairman role.
3
Check procedural requirements for the removal of the Vice-President under Article 67(b).
A removal resolution can originate ONLY in the Rajya Sabha, passed by an effective majority and agreed to by the Lok Sabha.
To verify the origin requirement for the removal motion.

Key Concept

Constitutional provisions governing the Vice-President of India under Articles 64, 65, 66, and 67
Question 2124Question →

Which of the following statements regarding the constitutional scope of Directive Principles of State Policy and Fundamental Duties are correct?

Select all that apply

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Laws enacted to implement the Directive Principles specified in Article 39(b) and Article 39(c) are protected from being declared void on the ground of violating Articles 14 and 19.; Certain directive principles to the State exist outside Part IV of the Constitution, such as the provision regarding instruction in the mother tongue at the primary stage of education.

Answer

The correct statements are that laws implementing Article 39(b) and 39(c) are immune to challenges under Articles 14 and 19 via Article 31C, and that directive principles exist outside Part IV, such as Article 350-A regarding primary education in the mother tongue.
The statement regarding Article 31C protection for Article 39(b) and 39(c) directives over Articles 14 and 19 is constitutionally accurate. Additionally, the statement noting directives outside Part IV (such as mother-tongue primary instruction under Article 350-A) is correct as the Constitution places several directives in Parts XVI and XVII.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the constitutional validity and immunity of Directive Principles under Article 31C.
Article 31C protects legislation giving effect to Article 39(b) and Article 39(c) from judicial invalidation under Article 14 and Article 19.
This primacy was established by the 25th Amendment Act, 1971, and upheld in judicial precedents regarding these specific provisions.
2
Examine the origin and historical timeline of Part IV-A (Fundamental Duties).
Fundamental Duties were inserted by the 42nd Amendment Act of 1976 on the Swaran Singh Committee's recommendations, not in the original 1950 text.
The original Constituent Assembly framed Part III and Part IV but did not include a separate chapter on duties.
3
Identify non-Part IV Directives within the Constitution of India.
Article 350-A (Instruction in mother tongue) in Part XVII, Article 351 (Spread of Hindi language) in Part XVII, and Article 335 (Claims of SCs/STs to services) in Part XVI serve as constitutional directives outside Part IV.
Though non-justiciable like Part IV, these provisions are located in different Parts of the Constitution.
4
Evaluate the enforceability of Part IV directives under Article 32 writ jurisdiction.
Directives in Part IV are non-justiciable under Article 37 and cannot be enforced through writs issued under Article 32.
Article 32 remedies apply strictly to Fundamental Rights in Part III, whereas Directive Principles guide governance without being directly enforceable by courts.

Key Concept

Relationship, constitutional remedies, and non-justiciability provisions of Fundamental Rights, Directive Principles, and Fundamental Duties
Question 2125Question →

Match the Parliamentary Motions and Devices of the Indian Parliament in List-I with their corresponding procedural features and characteristics in List-II.

Click a left item, then click its matching right item

Items

Calling Attention Motion
Adjournment Motion
Privilege Motion
Censure Motion

Matches

Show answer & explanation

Answer

Calling Attention Motion matches with the Indian procedural innovation seeking an authoritative statement (right_1); Adjournment Motion matches with requiring 50 members' support and carrying an element of censure (right_2); Privilege Motion matches with being moved against a minister for withholding facts or giving distorted information (right_3); and Censure Motion matches with stating specific grounds and not mandating immediate government resignation (right_4).
Each parliamentary device has specific procedural rules defined in the Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business in Lok Sabha. Calling Attention is an Indian innovation (1954). Adjournment motion requires 50 members and censures the executive. Privilege motion addresses misinforming the House. Censure motion requires specific grounds and targets specific minister actions without forcing cabinet resignation.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the procedural characteristics of Calling Attention Motion.
Calling Attention Motion was introduced in Indian parliamentary rules in 1954 to seek an authoritative statement from a minister on an urgent matter.
It distinguishes itself as an indigenous procedural device unlike Point of Order or Adjournment Motion.
2
Analyze the requirements for Adjournment Motion.
It needs 50 members' support for leave, interrupts scheduled proceedings, and censures government conduct.
Adjournment motion is extraordinary and restricted to Lok Sabha due to its censure implications.
3
Differentiate between Privilege Motion and Censure Motion.
Privilege Motion focuses on breach of House rights due to misleading facts, whereas Censure Motion targets specific policy actions of a minister or cabinet without requiring cabinet resignation upon adoption.
Understanding the distinct legal and procedural objective of each device is essential.

Key Concept

Parliamentary Devices and Motions in Indian Parliament
Question 2126Question →

Arrange the following prominent figures of the Bhakti movement in India in correct chronological order of their historical period, starting from the earliest to the latest.

Drag items to arrange them in the correct order

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Answer

The correct chronological sequence from earliest to latest is: Shankaracharya, Ramanujacharya, Kabir Das, and Mirabai.
The correct sequence begins with Shankaracharya in the 8th century CE, followed by Ramanujacharya in the 11th–12th century CE, then Kabir Das in the 15th century CE, and concludes with Mirabai in the 16th century CE.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the historical era of Shankaracharya.
Shankaracharya lived in the early 8th century CE (c. 788���820 CE) and consolidated the doctrine of Advaita Vedanta.
This places him as the earliest figure among the listed options.
2
Identify the historical era of Ramanujacharya.
Ramanujacharya lived during the 11th to 12th centuries CE (c. 1017–1137 CE) and formulated Vishishtadvaita philosophy.
This places him second in the chronological sequence.
3
Identify the historical era of Kabir Das.
Kabir Das was a prominent 15th-century CE Nirguna saint poet who emphasized unity beyond ritualistic divisions.
This places him third in the sequence.
4
Identify the historical era of Mirabai.
Mirabai was a 16th-century CE Rajput princess and famous Saguna Bhakti saint dedicated to Lord Krishna.
This places her latest among the given figures.

Key Concept

Chronological evolution of Bhakti movement philosophers and saints from early medieval to late medieval India.
Question 2127Question →

In the context of India's Balance of Payments (BoP) accounting, which of the following is classified as a component of the Current Account?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Remittances received from workers abroad

Answer

Remittances received from workers abroad are classified as a component of the Current Account in India's Balance of Payments.
Remittances received from Indian workers abroad constitute unilateral transfer payments and are listed under the invisibles section of the Current Account. They do not alter the debt or asset liability position of the nation.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the main components of the Balance of Payments
BoP consists of the Current Account (trade in goods, services, income, and transfer payments) and the Capital Account (FDI, FPI, loans, and external borrowings).
Categorizing transactions depends on whether they alter foreign financial assets/liabilities or represent trade and unilateral transfers.
2
Analyze remittances from workers abroad
Remittances fall under private unilateral transfers under the 'Invisibles' section of the Current Account.
Transfers do not create future claims, debt liabilities, or asset ownership shifts.

Key Concept

Classification of Current Account versus Capital Account items in Balance of Payments
Question 2128Question →

Chronologically arrange the following key historical events related to revolutionary nationalism and left-wing political movements in India from the earliest to the latest:

Drag items to arrange them in the correct order

Show answer & explanation

Answer

The correct chronological sequence from earliest to latest is: Formation of the Hindustan Republican Association at Kanpur (October 1924), Chittagong Armoury Raid led by Surya Sen (April 1930), Founding conference of the Congress Socialist Party at Patna (May 1934), and Establishment of the Forward Bloc by Subhas Chandra Bose (May 1939).
The accurate chronological timeline begins with the founding of the Hindustan Republican Association in October 1924, followed by the Chittagong Armoury Raid in April 1930, the establishment of the Congress Socialist Party in May 1934, and ends with the creation of the Forward Bloc in May 1939.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Determine the date of the formation of the Hindustan Republican Association (HRA)
Established in October 1924.
HRA was set up in Kanpur by revolutionary leaders following the suspension of the Non-Cooperation Movement.
2
Determine the date of the Chittagong Armoury Raid
Executed on April 18, 1930.
Surya Sen and his associates raided British armouries in Chittagong during the launch of the Civil Disobedience Movement.
3
Determine the date of the founding conference of the Congress Socialist Party (CSP)
Formed in May 1934.
Young left-wing leaders assembled in Patna to establish an organized socialist caucus within the Indian National Congress.
4
Determine the date of the establishment of the Forward Bloc
Founded in May 1939.
Subhas Chandra Bose announced the formation of the Forward Bloc following his resignation as Congress President.

Key Concept

Chronological evolution of revolutionary nationalist organizations and left-wing political groups in British India
Question 2129Question →

With reference to inflation metrics, price indices, and liquidity control mechanisms in India, consider the following statements:

1. Core inflation excludes food and fuel/energy groups from headline inflation to capture underlying, long-term price dynamics.
2. The Consumer Price Indices for Industrial Workers (CPI-IW) and Agricultural Labourers (CPI-AL) are compiled and published monthly by the National Statistical Office (NSO).
3. An increase in the Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR) by the Reserve Bank of India increases the credit creation capacity of commercial banks, thereby intensifying demand-pull inflation.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: 1 only

Answer

1 only
The option stating '1 only' is correct because statement 1 accurately defines core inflation by excluding volatile food and fuel components. Statement 2 wrongly attributes CPI-IW and CPI-AL compilation to the NSO instead of the Labour Bureau. Statement 3 incorrectly claims an increased SLR expands bank lending capacity, whereas raising SLR actually impounds bank liquidity to contract credit and lower demand-pull inflation.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Evaluate Statement 1 regarding Core Inflation
Statement 1 is CORRECT.
Core inflation is calculated by stripping away transient and volatile components—specifically food and fuel/energy items—from Headline Inflation. This provides monetary authorities with a clearer picture of underlying price stability and demand trends.
2
Evaluate Statement 2 regarding CPI Releasing Agencies
Statement 2 is INCORRECT.
The National Statistical Office (NSO) under MoSPI compiles CPI (Rural, Urban, Combined). However, sector-specific consumer price indices such as CPI for Industrial Workers (CPI-IW), CPI for Agricultural Labourers (CPI-AL), and CPI for Rural Labourers (CPI-RL) are compiled and released by the Labour Bureau (an attached office of the Ministry of Labour and Employment).
3
Evaluate Statement 3 regarding SLR and Liquidity Control
Statement 3 is INCORRECT.
Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR) is a quantitative monetary tool. When the RBI increases the SLR, commercial banks must maintain a larger proportion of Net Demand and Time Liabilities (NDTL) in safe liquid assets (like government securities). This reduces the available lendable surplus with banks, contracting money supply and suppressing demand-pull inflation, rather than expanding credit.

Key Concept

Inflation Dynamics, Specific CPI Publishing Agencies, and Quantitative Monetary Transmission
Question 2130Question →

Match the Constitutional Articles related to the Indian Judiciary listed in List-I with their corresponding provisions in List-II:

Click a left item, then click its matching right item

Items

Article 129
Article 139A
Article 215
Article 233

Matches

Show answer & explanation

Answer

Article 129 matches with Supreme Court to be a court of record; Article 139A matches with Transfer of certain cases involving the same or substantially same questions of law; Article 215 matches with High Courts to be courts of record; Article 233 matches with Appointment of district judges by the Governor of the State.
Article 129 provides that the Supreme Court is a court of record. Article 139A enables the Supreme Court to transfer cases with common legal questions. Article 215 establishes High Courts as courts of record. Article 233 mandates that appointments of district judges are made by the Governor in consultation with the High Court.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Examine the constitutional provisions governing the Supreme Court in Part V of the Constitution of India.
Article 129 designates the Supreme Court as a Court of Record with contempt powers, while Article 139A grants it power to transfer cases involving common questions of law.
This establishes the status and transfer powers of the apex court.
2
Examine the constitutional provisions governing High Courts and Subordinate Courts in Part VI of the Constitution.
Article 215 designates High Courts as Courts of Record, while Article 233 governs the appointment of District Judges by the State Governor in consultation with the High Court.
This establishes the legal status of High Courts and the appointments mechanism for subordinate judiciary.
3
Pair each Article in List-I with its corresponding constitutional description in List-II.
Article 129 → Supreme Court as a court of record; Article 139A → Transfer of certain cases; Article 215 → High Courts as courts of record; Article 233 → Appointment of district judges.
The paired items accurately reflect the textual provisions of the Indian Constitution.

Key Concept

Constitutional Articles specifying status, powers, and administrative jurisdictions of Supreme Court, High Courts, and Subordinate Courts.
Estimated Time:1m 0s
Question 2131Question →

Consider the following statements regarding the Khond Uprisings (1837–1856) against British colonial expansion in India:

1. The resistance was organized under the leadership of Chakra Bisoi in the Ghumsur region of Odisha.
2. A major cause of the rebellion was British interference in tribal customs, particularly attempts to suppress the ritual of 'Mariah' (human sacrifice).
3. The uprising ended in 1845 following an official treaty with the British East India Company that restored Khond sovereignty over tribal lands.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: 1 and 2 only

Answer

Statements 1 and 2 are correct.
The Khond Uprising was a significant tribal resistance movement in the hilly tracts of Odisha and northern Andhra Pradesh. Chakra Bisoi rallied the Khonds against British colonial expansion, land revenue exploitation, and colonial interference in their customary practice of 'Mariah' (human sacrifice). The British created a dedicated agency to end this sacrifice, which the Khonds perceived as an assault on their religious autonomy. The uprising did not end in a peaceful treaty in 1845; instead, it was suppressed through sustained British military action until Chakra Bisoi disappeared around 1856.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Evaluate Statement 1 regarding leadership and geography.
Statement 1 is correct. Chakra Bisoi, a nephew of the Ghumsur Raja, led the Khonds of Odisha in their resistance against colonial intrusion.
Chakra Bisoi rallied tribal groups across Ghumsur, China Kimedi, and Kalahandi.
2
Evaluate Statement 2 regarding the causes of the revolt.
Statement 2 is correct. The British formed a specialized 'Mariah Agency' to abolish human sacrifice among the Khonds, which the tribal population viewed as an attack on their religious traditions and agrarian fertility rituals.
Interference in customary practices combined with heavy land revenue demands triggered widespread violent resistance.
3
Evaluate Statement 3 regarding the resolution of the movement.
Statement 3 is incorrect. The rebellion was forcibly suppressed by British forces. Chakra Bisoi was never captured and disappeared around 1856; no formal treaty restoring sovereignty was signed in 1845.
British military suppression led to the eventual collapse of organized Khond resistance by the late 1850s.

Key Concept

Khond Uprising and British Native Policy
Question 2132Question →

The Meghalaya Plateau and the Karbi Anglong Hills are structural extensions of the main Peninsular Plateau of India. Which of the following statements regarding the physiography and geology of this region are correct?

Select all that apply

Show answer & explanation

Answer: The Meghalaya Plateau is separated from the Chota Nagpur Plateau by a structural fault down-warp known as the Malda Gap.; The Garo, Khasi, and Jaintia Hills constitute the major relief sub-divisions of the Meghalaya Plateau.

Answer

The statements confirming that the Meghalaya Plateau is separated from the Chota Nagpur Plateau by the Malda Gap and that it comprises the Garo, Khasi, and Jaintia Hills are correct.
The Meghalaya Plateau is geologically an extension of the Peninsular shield of India. Faulting during the Indian plate movement created a depressed gap between the Rajmahal Hills and the Garo Hills (the Malda Gap), which was later filled by river sediments. The plateau is further divided into prominent hill ranges including the Garo, Khasi, and Jaintia Hills.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Examine the structural origin of the Meghalaya Plateau in relation to Peninsular India.
Identify that the Meghalaya and Karbi Anglong plateaus are detached northeastern remnants of the ancient Peninsular shield, separated from the Rajmahal Hills by the Rajmahal-Garo (Malda) Gap.
Tectonic faulting and subsequent river deposition created the gap across the Peninsular block.
2
Analyze the rock composition and geological age of the plateau.
Recognize that the bedrock consists of Archaean quartzites, schists, and ancient granites rather than young Quaternary river alluvium.
This invalidates the claim of recent Brahmaputra alluvial origin.
3
Evaluate the relief units and climatic interaction of the Meghalaya landforms.
Confirm the west-to-east layout of the Garo, Khasi, and Jaintia Hills, and note that their funnel-shaped southern aspect produces heavy rainfall rather than an arid rain-shadow zone.
Windward orographic precipitation dominates the southern slope.

Key Concept

Physiographic and structural characteristics of the Meghalaya Plateau as part of the Peninsular Shield
Question 2133Question →

According to the budget estimates of a state government for the financial year 2025–26, total expenditure is estimated at ₹1,20,0001,20,000 crore, while total receipts excluding borrowings are estimated at ₹85,00085,000 crore. If the state's revenue receipts are ₹75,00075,000 crore, revenue expenditure is ₹95,00095,000 crore, and interest payments on previous debts account for ₹12,50012,500 crore, what is the Primary Deficit of the state for the financial year 2025–26 (in ₹ crore)?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: 22500

Answer

The Primary Deficit of the state for the financial year 2025–26 is ₹22,500 crore.
Primary Deficit indicates the net borrowing requirement of the government to fulfill current fiscal commitments, excluding past debt obligations. Gross Fiscal Deficit is calculated as Total Expenditure minus Non-debt Receipts: ₹1,20,000 crore - ₹85,000 crore = ₹35,000 crore. Subtracting the interest payments of ₹12,500 crore yields a Primary Deficit of ₹22,500 crore.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Calculate the Fiscal Deficit of the state.
Fiscal Deficit = ₹1,20,000 crore - ₹85,000 crore = ₹35,000 crore.
Fiscal deficit measures the total borrowing requirements of the government, defined as the excess of total expenditure over total non-debt receipts.
2
Subtract Interest Payments from the Fiscal Deficit to compute the Primary Deficit.
Primary Deficit = ₹35,000 crore - ₹12,500 crore = ₹22,500 crore.
Primary deficit reflects the government's borrowing requirement for current expenses exclusive of past interest obligations.

Key Concept

Primary Deficit and Fiscal Deficit Metrics
Question 2134Question →

In the context of public finance and government budgeting in India, which of the following transactions are classified as Capital Receipts in the Union Budget?

Select all that apply

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Recovery of loans and advances extended by the Union Government to State Governments; Disinvestment proceeds realized from the equity sale of Central Public Sector Enterprises; Market loans and treasury bill issuances raised by the Central Government

Answer

The transactions classified as Capital Receipts in the Union Budget are the recovery of loans extended to State Governments, disinvestment proceeds from public sector enterprises, and market borrowings/treasury bill issuances.
Capital Receipts consist of receipts that create financial liabilities (such as market loans, treasury bills, and small savings) or reduce government assets (such as loan recoveries and disinvestment proceeds). Recovery of loans, disinvestment proceeds, and market borrowings satisfy these exact criteria.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the constitutional and accounting criteria for Capital Receipts versus Revenue Receipts
Capital Receipts are defined as government receipts that either create a financial liability or cause a reduction in financial/physical assets.
Understanding the fundamental definition distinguishes receipts that impact net liability/asset positions from routine income.
2
Evaluate non-debt capital receipts
Recovery of loans reduces the asset balance of loans outstanding, while disinvestment reduces the equity holdings (assets) of the government.
Both transactions liquidate existing government assets, fitting the criteria for non-debt capital receipts.
3
Evaluate debt capital receipts and revenue receipts
Market borrowings create a debt liability (Capital Receipt). Conversely, interest payments received represent return on assets without altering the capital asset base or creating liabilities, making them Non-Tax Revenue Receipts.
Interest earned is classified under revenue receipts as it is a recurring return on capital, whereas borrowings increase public debt liability.

Key Concept

Classification of Union Budget Receipts: Capital Receipts (Debt and Non-Debt) vs. Revenue Receipts
Estimated Time:1m 15s
Question 2135Question →

Consider the following statements regarding major transport infrastructure corridors and inland waterways in India:

1. The North-South Corridor connects Srinagar in Jammu & Kashmir to Kanyakumari in Tamil Nadu.
2. National Waterway 1 (NW-1) is established along the Brahmaputra River between Sadiya and Dhubri.
3. The East-West Corridor connects Silchar in Assam to Porbandar in Gujarat.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: 1 and 3 only

Answer

Statements 1 and 3 are correct.
The correct response identifies statements 1 and 3 as true. The North-South Corridor connects Srinagar to Kanyakumari, and the East-West Corridor connects Silchar to Porbandar. Statement 2 is false because National Waterway 1 (NW-1) runs along the Ganga-Bhagirathi-Hooghly river system between Prayagraj and Haldia, whereas the Sadiya-Dhubri stretch on the Brahmaputra River is National Waterway 2 (NW-2).

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Evaluate Statement 1 regarding the North-South Corridor.
Statement 1 is correct. The North-South Corridor under the National Highways Development Project (NHDP) runs from Srinagar in Jammu & Kashmir to Kanyakumari in Tamil Nadu.
It forms the primary north-south highway axis of India.
2
Evaluate Statement 2 regarding National Waterway 1.
Statement 2 is incorrect. National Waterway 1 (NW-1) stretches along the Ganga-Bhagirathi-Hooghly river system from Prayagraj (Allahabad) to Haldia. The stretch along the Brahmaputra River between Sadiya and Dhubri is National Waterway 2 (NW-2).
NW-1 and NW-2 are distinct inland waterway routes with different river systems and geographies.
3
Evaluate Statement 3 regarding the East-West Corridor.
Statement 3 is correct. The East-West Corridor connects Silchar in Assam to Porbandar in Gujarat.
It forms the major east-west highway axis connecting northeastern and western India.

Key Concept

National Highways Development Corridors and Inland Waterways Classification
Estimated Time:1m 0s
Question 2136Question →

India possesses an extensive coastline dotted with several major sea ports that serve as vital gateways for international trade. Arrange the following major sea ports located along the West Coast of India in correct sequential order from North to South:

Drag items to arrange them in the correct order

Show answer & explanation

Answer

The correct sequence from North to South is Deendayal Port (Kandla), Mormugao Port, New Mangalore Port, and Cochin Port.
The correct geographic order from North to South along the western coast of India is Deendayal Port in Gujarat (23.00° N), Mormugao Port in Goa (15.41° N), New Mangalore Port in Karnataka (12.92° N), and Cochin Port in Kerala (9.96° N).

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the state location and latitudinal position of each major port along India's western coast.
Deendayal Port (Kandla) is in Gujarat (~23.00° N), Mormugao Port is in Goa (~15.41° N), New Mangalore Port is in Karnataka (~12.92° N), and Cochin Port is in Kerala (~9.96° N).
Spatial geographical questions require mapping coastal features to their corresponding state boundaries along a north-south axis.
2
Order the ports from highest latitude (northernmost) to lowest latitude (southernmost).
The resulting sequence is Deendayal Port (Kandla) → Mormugao Port → New Mangalore Port → Cochin Port.
Gujarat forms the northern boundary of the west coast, followed sequentially down the peninsular coast by Goa, Karnataka, and Kerala.

Key Concept

Latitudinal Distribution of Major Ports on the West Coast of India
Estimated Time:1m 0s
Question 2137Question →

Consider the following statements regarding the national income accounting methodology adopted in India:

Statement I: Gross Value Added (GVA) at basic prices includes production taxes and excludes production subsidies.
Statement II: Gross Domestic Product (GDP) at market prices is derived by adding product taxes and subtracting product subsidies from GVA at basic prices.
Statement III: The GDP deflator reflects price changes across all domestically produced final goods and services, whereas the Consumer Price Index (CPI) covers a specific basket of consumer goods that includes imported goods.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: 1, 2 and 3

Answer

All three statements (1, 2 and 3) are correct.
All three statements are conceptually and methodologically correct. Statement I accurately states that GVA at basic prices equals factor cost plus production taxes minus production subsidies. Statement II accurately defines the transition from GVA at basic prices to GDP at market prices by adding net product taxes (product taxes minus product subsidies). Statement III correctly captures the key conceptual distinction between the GDP deflator (which covers all domestic production) and CPI (which covers a fixed consumer basket including imported items).

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze Statement I regarding GVA at basic prices
Basic Price = Factor Cost + Production Taxes - Production Subsidies. Production taxes/subsidies are independent of actual production volume (e.g., land revenues, stamp registration fees, land subsidies). Thus, Statement I is correct.
Verify the structural definition of GVA at basic prices established by the Central Statistics Office.
2
Analyze Statement II regarding GDP at market prices
GDP at Market Prices = GVA at basic prices + Product Taxes - Product Subsidies. Product taxes/subsidies depend directly on volume produced/sold (e.g., GST, excise duties). Thus, Statement II is correct.
Verify the conversion link between sectoral GVA aggregates and economy-wide aggregate GDP.
3
Analyze Statement III regarding price deflator coverage
The GDP deflator measures price changes for the entire basket of domestically produced final goods and services (including capital equipment and exports). CPI measures prices of a specific, fixed retail consumer basket that includes imported consumption goods. Thus, Statement III is correct.
Distinguish between comprehensive national accounts deflators and targeted price index series.

Key Concept

National Income Accounting Identifies, Basic Prices vs Market Prices, and Price Deflators
Estimated Time:1m 30s
Question 2138Question →

Consider the following statements regarding the Original Jurisdiction of the Supreme Court of India under Article 131 of the Constitution:

1. Disputes arising out of any pre-Constitution treaty, agreement, or covenant fall under the exclusive original jurisdiction of the Supreme Court under Article 131.
2. A legal dispute between the Government of India and one or more States falls within the exclusive original jurisdiction of the Supreme Court.
3. The original jurisdiction under Article 131 does not extend to a dispute brought by a private citizen against the Union Government or a State Government.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: 2 and 3 only

Answer

Statements 2 and 3 only are correct.
The option specifying '2 and 3 only' is correct. Under Article 131 of the Constitution of India, the Supreme Court has exclusive original jurisdiction in any dispute between the Government of India and one or more States, or between States inter se, provided the dispute involves any question of law or fact on which the existence or extent of a legal right depends. This jurisdiction does not extend to private individuals or statutory entities. Furthermore, the proviso to Article 131 explicitly excludes disputes arising out of any pre-Constitution treaty, agreement, covenant, or similar instrument.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze Statement 1 regarding pre-Constitution treaties.
Statement 1 is incorrect because the proviso to Article 131 explicitly excludes disputes arising out of any pre-Constitution treaty, agreement, covenant, engagement, or sanad from the original jurisdiction of the Supreme Court.
Constitutional provisos place explicit exceptions on judicial jurisdiction.
2
Analyze Statement 2 regarding inter-governmental federal disputes.
Statement 2 is correct because Article 131 vests exclusive original jurisdiction in the Supreme Court for legal disputes between the Centre and one or more States, or between two or more States.
The Supreme Court acts as a federal court deciding disputes between constitutional units of the Indian federation.
3
Analyze Statement 3 regarding standing (locus standi) under Article 131.
Statement 3 is correct because Article 131 is strictly restricted to units of the federation (Union and States). Suits filed by private individuals, public sector undertakings, or statutory bodies against a government do not fall under Article 131.
Private entities must seek remedies under Article 32 or Article 226 rather than Article 131.

Key Concept

Original Jurisdiction of the Supreme Court (Article 131)
Estimated Time:1m 15s
Question 2139Question →

Which of the following instruments is used by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) to absorb surplus liquidity from commercial banks without offering government securities as collateral?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Standing Deposit Facility (SDF)

Answer

Standing Deposit Facility (SDF) is the monetary tool used by the RBI to absorb surplus liquidity from commercial banks without providing collateral securities.
The Standing Deposit Facility (SDF) is an uncollateralized liquidity absorption instrument introduced by the RBI to strengthen monetary policy implementation by allowing banks to deposit excess liquidity without receiving government securities as collateral.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the primary objective of the tool mentioned in the stem.
The objective is liquidity absorption without pledging collateral securities by the RBI.
Different RBI instruments have distinct collateral requirements and liquidity direction (injection vs absorption).
2
Evaluate the mechanism of the Standing Deposit Facility (SDF).
SDF introduced in 2022 allows the RBI to absorb excess funds from commercial banks without providing government securities as collateral.
Unlike traditional Reverse Repo which requires collateral transfer, SDF is explicitly uncollateralized.

Key Concept

Standing Deposit Facility (SDF)
Estimated Time:45s
Question 2140Question →

Consider the following statements regarding the Pradhan Mantri Shram Yogi Maan-dhan (PM-SYM) scheme:

1. It is a voluntary pension scheme for unorganized workers with a monthly income of ₹15,000 or less.
2. Beneficiaries receive a guaranteed minimum monthly pension of ₹3,000 upon reaching 60 years of age.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Both 1 and 2

Answer

Both statements 1 and 2 are correct.
Both statements are correct. The Pradhan Mantri Shram Yogi Maan-dhan (PM-SYM) scheme was launched to provide social security to unorganized workers (such as street vendors, domestic workers, and rickshaw pullers) earning ₹15,000 or less per month. Under the scheme, beneficiaries in the entry age group of 18 to 40 years contribute a matching amount alongside the Central Government, guaranteeing them a minimum pension of ₹3,000 per month after attaining 60 years of age.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Evaluate Statement 1
Statement 1 is correct.
PM-SYM is a central sector scheme administered by the Ministry of Labour and Employment designed specifically for unorganized workers earning ₹15,000 or less per month.
2
Evaluate Statement 2
Statement 2 is correct.
Upon attaining the age of 60 years, enrolled beneficiaries receive an assured minimum pension of ₹3,000 per month.
3
Synthesize results to select the correct choice
The option selecting both statements is correct.
Since both statements independently state true facts about the scheme, the choice confirming both 1 and 2 is the correct answer.

Key Concept

Pradhan Mantri Shram Yogi Maan-dhan (PM-SYM)
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