All practice questions

4581 questions

Question 2101Question

When the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) increases the Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR) applicable to commercial banks, what is the immediate impact on the liquidity available in the banking system?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Liquidity in the banking system decreases.

Answer

Liquidity in the banking system decreases.
The Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR) is a quantitative monetary policy tool specifying the fraction of total deposits commercial banks must maintain as balance with the Reserve Bank of India. Raising the CRR obligates banks to lock away a larger portion of their funds, directly decreasing their loanable reserves and reducing liquidity in the economy.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Recall the definition of Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR).
CRR is the mandatory percentage of Net Demand and Time Liabilities (NDTL) that commercial banks must hold as cash reserves with the RBI.
Understanding the function of CRR is necessary to evaluate its impact on bank reserves.
2
Analyze the operational effect of raising the CRR.
A higher CRR obligates banks to transfer a larger share of customer deposits into RBI reserve accounts.
This directly reduces the volume of loanable cash remaining with commercial banks.
3
Determine the resulting change in banking system liquidity.
With fewer lendable resources in the banking sector, liquidity decreases across the economy.
Contracting the amount of money banks can lend absorbs excess money supply from the system.

Key Concept

Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR) and Bank Liquidity Transmission
Question 2102Question

With reference to the planning framework adopted following the abolition of Five-Year Plans in India, consider the following statements:

1. The 3-Year Action Agenda was designed to align with the award period of the Fourteenth Finance Commission.
2. NITI Aayog possesses statutory authority to allocate central financial grants to states based on the evaluation of Action Agendas.
3. The Governing Council of NITI Aayog excludes State Chief Ministers, functioning solely through union cabinet ministers.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: 1 only

Answer

1 only
The statement identifying '1 only' is correct. The 3-Year Action Agenda (2017–18 to 2019–20) was framed specifically to align with the timeline of the Fourteenth Finance Commission. NITI Aayog holds no power to allocate central funds to states, and its Governing Council actively includes all State Chief Ministers to uphold cooperative federalism.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Evaluate Statement 1 regarding the 3-Year Action Agenda period.
Statement 1 is correct. NITI Aayog replaced Five-Year Plans with a 15-Year Vision, 7-Year Strategy, and 3-Year Action Agenda. The first 3-Year Action Agenda covered 2017-18 to 2019-20 to align with the 14th Finance Commission recommendations.
Synchronization with Finance Commission cycles ensures predictable budgetary support for plan expenditures.
2
Evaluate Statement 2 regarding NITI Aayog's financial powers.
Statement 2 is incorrect. Unlike the erstwhile Planning Commission, NITI Aayog does not distribute or allocate monetary grants to state governments.
Financial allocations are handled directly by the Ministry of Finance based on Finance Commission recommendations.
3
Evaluate Statement 3 regarding NITI Aayog's Governing Council structure.
Statement 3 is incorrect. The Governing Council is chaired by the Prime Minister and comprises Chief Ministers of all States and Lt. Governors of Union Territories.
This structure is designed to promote cooperative federalism, ensuring state participation in national policy formulation.

Key Concept

NITI Aayog Framework vs Planning Commission Architecture
Estimated Time:1m 15s
Question 2103Question

A major cash crop in India requires high temperatures ranging between 24C24^\circ\text{C} and 35C35^\circ\text{C}, relative humidity around 80%80\%-90%90\%, annual rainfall exceeding 150 cm150\text{ cm}, and fertile, well-drained silt loam alluvial soils that receive annual nutrient replenishment from river floods. Which of the following commercial crops best matches these specific agro-climatic conditions?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Jute

Answer

Jute is the correct commercial crop matching all specified climatic and soil requirements.
Jute is a major commercial fiber crop requiring a warm and humid climate (24C–35C24^\circ\text{C}\text{--}35^\circ\text{C}, >80%>80\% humidity) and abundant rainfall (>150 cm>150\text{ cm}). It grows best on light sandy to clayey silt loam soils of river deltas and floodplains that receive annual silt deposits during monsoon floods.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the temperature and humidity requirements given in the prompt.
High temperatures (24C24^\circ\text{C} to 35C35^\circ\text{C}) and high humidity (80%80\%-90%90\%) indicate a humid tropical cash crop.
Eliminates temperate Rabi crops like Wheat.
2
Evaluate the soil and moisture conditions.
The requirement of rich alluvial silt refreshed annually by inundations points directly to deltaic floodplains (such as the Lower Ganga-Brahmaputra plain).
Differentiates crops grown on basaltic black soils (Cotton) or acidic hill slopes (Tea) from floodplain cash crops.
3
Synthesize conditions to identify the crop.
Jute (known as the 'Golden Fibre') is predominantly cultivated in West Bengal, Assam, and Bihar under these exact floodplain and climatic parameters.
Confirms Jute as the unique correct answer.

Key Concept

Agro-climatic requirements and pedological distribution of commercial fiber crops in India.
Estimated Time:1m 0s
Question 2104Question

In Indian public finance, Part XII of the Constitution governs Centre-State financial relations, assignment of taxation powers, and fiscal transfers. Match the Constitutional Articles in List I with their corresponding financial provisions in List II.

Click a left item, then click its matching right item

Items

Article 268
Article 269A
Article 271
Article 275

Matches

Show answer & explanation

Answer

Article 268 corresponds to duties levied by the Union but collected and appropriated by States; Article 269A corresponds to the levy and collection of GST in inter-State trade; Article 271 corresponds to surcharges on Union duties for Union purposes; and Article 275 corresponds to statutory grants-in-aid to States.
The matching correctly pairs each constitutional article with its specific fiscal mechanism under Part XII of the Constitution of India: Article 268 handles Union-levied but State-collected duties; Article 269A regulates inter-State GST; Article 271 governs non-divisible Union surcharges; and Article 275 governs statutory grants-in-aid.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the constitutional scope of Article 268
Article 268 deals with stamp duties on bills of exchange, cheques, etc., which are levied by the Union but collected and appropriated entirely by the States.
It forms a distinct category of tax assignment under Centre-State financial relations.
2
Identify the provision under Article 269A
Article 269A mandates that GST on supplies in the course of inter-State trade or commerce (IGST) is levied and collected by the Government of India and apportioned between the Union and States.
This provision was specifically introduced via the 101st Constitutional Amendment Act, 2016.
3
Examine the rule regarding surcharges under Article 271
Article 271 allows Parliament to impose a surcharge for Union purposes on taxes listed under Articles 269 and 270, keeping these funds out of the divisible tax pool.
Surcharges do not form part of the tax revenue shared with the States.
4
Verify statutory grant provisions under Article 275
Article 275 specifies non-statutory and statutory grants-in-aid recommended by the Finance Commission and charged on the Consolidated Fund of India.
This mechanisms bridges fiscal deficits of specific recipient States.

Key Concept

Constitutional Provisions of Indian Public Finance and Taxation Distribution
Estimated Time:2m 0s
Question 2105Question

Which flagship skill certification scheme was launched by the Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship (MSDE) to enable Indian youth to take up industry-relevant skill training?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Pradhan Mantri Kaushal Vikas Yojana

Answer

Pradhan Mantri Kaushal Vikas Yojana
Pradhan Mantri Kaushal Vikas Yojana (PMKVY) was launched by the Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship to enable youth to undergo industry-relevant skill training, recognize prior learning, and secure gainful employment.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the primary objective stated in the question
The target program provides outcome-based, industry-relevant skill training for Indian youth nationwide under MSDE.
Recognizing the implementing nodal ministry and key objective narrows down the applicable scheme.
2
Evaluate the implementing agency and scheme scope
Pradhan Mantri Kaushal Vikas Yojana (PMKVY) is executed directly through the National Skill Development Corporation (NSDC) under MSDE.
Other listed schemes belong to the Ministry of Rural Development or Ministry of Finance.

Key Concept

Flagship Skill Development Programs in India
Estimated Time:45s
Question 2106Question

With reference to the Pallava rock-cut architectural monuments at Mamallapuram (Mahabalipuram), consider the following statements:

1. The Pancha Rathas are monolithic shrines excavated from granite outcrops during the reign of King Narasimhavarman I (Mamalla).
2. The Dharmaraja Ratha features a square plan with a multi-tiered pyramidal Vimana, serving as a prototype for the mature Dravida architectural style.
3. The Draupadi Ratha is designed in the shape of a simple wooden hut with a thatched roof (Kutagara structure) and is dedicated to Goddess Durga.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: 1, 2 and 3

Answer

Statements 1, 2, and 3 are all correct.
All three statements are correct. The Pancha Rathas at Mamallapuram represent an extraordinary transition in Indian rock-cut art under Pallava King Narasimhavarman I (Mamalla). Each ratha demonstrates a distinct structural model: the Dharmaraja Ratha establishes the multi-storeyed Dravida Vimana tier system, while the Draupadi Ratha mimics a traditional folk Kutagara (hut-like roof) housing a shrine to Goddess Durga.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze Statement 1 regarding patronage and material
Statement 1 is correct. The five monolithic rock-cut temples known as the Pancha Rathas at Mamallapuram were carved out of single granite boulders during the reign of the Pallava king Narasimhavarman I (630–668 CE), also known as Mamalla.
Establishing patronage and architectural medium for Pallava rock-cut art.
2
Analyze Statement 2 regarding architectural style of Dharmaraja Ratha
Statement 2 is correct. The Dharmaraja Ratha is the largest and most elaborate of the group, featuring a square base, multi-tiered pyramidal tower (Vimana), and octagonal shikhara at the top, which provided the structural archetype for southern Dravida temples.
Verifying structural elements of Dravida temple evolution.
3
Analyze Statement 3 regarding structural form and deity of Draupadi Ratha
Statement 3 is correct. The Draupadi Ratha is the smallest monolithic structure, carved in the form of a simple village hut (Kutagara) with a curvilinear roof motif. Bas-relief sculptures inside depict Goddess Durga.
Evaluating specific stylistic diversity within the Pancha Rathas.

Key Concept

Pallava Monolithic Rock-Cut Architecture (Pancha Rathas)
Estimated Time:1m 15s
Question 2107Question

Match each Constitutional Authority/Body in List-I with its corresponding Constitutional Provision or Operational Framework in List-II:

Click a left item, then click its matching right item

Items

Comptroller and Auditor General of India
Union Public Service Commission
State Public Service Commission
Finance Commission of India

Matches

Show answer & explanation

Answer

The Comptroller and Auditor General of India audits local bodies upon request by the President or Governor; the Union Public Service Commission has its administrative expenses charged on the Consolidated Fund of India; State Public Service Commission members are appointed by the Governor but removable only by the President; and the Finance Commission provides advisory recommendations on fiscal distribution.
The Comptroller and Auditor General of India can audit local bodies or other public authorities on request by the Governor or President under Section 20 of the CAG Act. The Union Public Service Commission's administrative expenses are charged on the Consolidated Fund of India as per Article 322. State Public Service Commission members are appointed by the Governor but can be removed solely by the President under Article 317. The Finance Commission functions as a quasi-judicial body whose recommendations on tax sharing under Article 280 are advisory in nature.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the constitutional provisions governing the Comptroller and Auditor General of India.
Identified that under Article 149 and the CAG (DPC) Act, the CAG can undertake audit of local bodies or authorities upon request of the President or Governor.
The CAG's mandate extends beyond central and state government accounts to local bodies when specifically requested by the executive.
2
Examine the expenditure safeguards of the Union Public Service Commission.
Matched with Article 322, which specifies that expenses of the UPSC are charged on the Consolidated Fund of India.
Charging expenses on the Consolidated Fund ensures financial independence from annual parliamentary votes.
3
Determine the appointment and removal mechanism for the State Public Service Commission.
Matched with Article 317, noting appointment is by Governor but removal authority rests strictly with the President.
This dual mechanism provides constitutional security of tenure to state public service commission members.
4
Evaluate the nature of recommendations made by the Finance Commission.
Matched with Article 280, recognizing its role as a quasi-judicial body making advisory recommendations on tax distribution.
The Constitution establishes the Finance Commission as a balancing wheel of fiscal federalism whose recommendations are advisory.

Key Concept

Constitutional provisions, operational safeguards, and statutory functions governing major Constitutional Bodies in India (CAG, UPSC, SPSC, and Finance Commission).
Question 2108Question

Match the 19th-century tribal and regional uprisings listed in List-I with their primary leaders listed in List-II:

Click a left item, then click its matching right item

Items

Khasi Uprising (1829)
Ahom Revolt (1828)
Rampa Rebellion (1879)
Naikda Movement (1868)

Matches

Show answer & explanation

Answer

The Khasi Uprising (1829) corresponds to Tirot Sing, the Ahom Revolt (1828) corresponds to Gomdhar Konwar, the Rampa Rebellion (1879) corresponds to Chandraya, and the Naikda Movement (1868) corresponds to Roop Singh.
Each uprising is accurately paired with its primary leader: Khasi Uprising with Tirot Sing, Ahom Revolt with Gomdhar Konwar, Rampa Rebellion with Chandraya, and Naikda Movement with Roop Singh.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the leader of the Khasi Uprising (1829).
Tirot Sing was the chief of the Khasi council who led the armed resistance against British occupation and road building through the Khasi Hills.
Matching the North-Eastern hill rebellion to its primary leader.
2
Identify the leader of the Ahom Revolt (1828).
Gomdhar Konwar, an Ahom prince, proclaimed himself king and led the revolt against British annexation of Assam.
Matching the early Assam regional revolt to its leader.
3
Identify the leader of the Rampa Rebellion (1879).
Chandraya was one of the principal leaders of the hill tribes in the Rampa region (Andhra) revolting against muttadari oppression and forest laws.
Matching the Andhra tribal uprising to its leader.
4
Identify the leader of the Naikda Movement (1868).
Roop Singh led the Naikda forest tribe in Gujarat against British administration and police posts.
Matching the Western India tribal movement to its leader.

Key Concept

Leaders and regional distribution of 19th-century tribal and peasant uprisings against British colonial rule.
Question 2109Question

Consider the following statements regarding the Purvanchal (Eastern Hills) physiographic region of India:

1. The Patkai Bum, Naga Hills, and Mizo Hills form part of the Purvanchal range aligned along India's eastern border.
2. Structurally, these hills are composed primarily of Pre-Cambrian plutonic granitic basement rocks.
3. The Manipur valley, surrounded by these hills, features an intermontane basin containing Loktak Lake with floating vegetation masses known as 'phumdis'.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: 1 and 3 only

Answer

Statements 1 and 3 are correct, while Statement 2 is incorrect.
The Purvanchal range comprises north-south aligned hill tracts including Patkai Bum, Naga Hills, Manipur Hills, and Mizo Hills. Geologically, these ranges are composed of Tertiary sedimentary rocks, mainly sandstones and shales. The central valley of Manipur is a structural intermontane basin hosting Loktak Lake, famed for floating vegetation masses called phumdis. Thus, the option identifying statements 1 and 3 as correct is accurate.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Evaluate Statement 1 regarding the constituent hill ranges of Purvanchal.
Statement 1 is correct. The Purvanchal hill system includes northern ranges like Patkai Bum, Naga Hills, Manipur Hills, and Mizo (Lushai) Hills forming the border between India and Myanmar.
Geographical orientation and named sub-ranges accurately reflect the Purvanchal region.
2
Evaluate Statement 2 regarding geological rock composition.
Statement 2 is incorrect. The Purvanchal hills are composed of sedimentary rocks (predominantly sandstones, shales, and mudstones) formed during Tertiary fold movements, rather than Pre-Cambrian plutonic granite.
Tectonic folding of marine sedimentary strata created these ranges during Himalayan orogeny.
3
Evaluate Statement 3 regarding the Manipur basin and Loktak Lake.
Statement 3 is correct. The central valley of Manipur is a unique intermontane lacustrine basin holding Loktak Lake, renowned for floating biomass masses known as phumdis.
Physiographic drainage features of the Manipur hills include this distinct lacustrine basin.

Key Concept

Physiographic and Geological Characteristics of Purvanchal (Eastern Hills)
Question 2110Question

Under Article 200 of the Constitution of India, in which of the following circumstances is the Governor constitutionally obligated (mandatory) to reserve a Bill passed by the State Legislature for the consideration of the President?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: When the Bill derogates from the powers of the High Court so as to endanger the position which that Court is by the Constitution designed to fill

Answer

The Governor is constitutionally mandated to reserve a Bill for the President's consideration if it derogates from the powers of the High Court so as to endanger its constitutional position.
Under the second proviso to Article 200 of the Indian Constitution, reservation of a Bill for the consideration of the President is mandatory if the Bill derogates from the powers of the High Court in a manner that endangers its constitutional role.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Examine Article 200 provisions regarding the Governor's options when a Bill is presented after passage by the State Legislature.
Identified four general courses of action: grant assent, withhold assent, reserve for President, or return for reconsideration (if not a Money Bill).
Understanding the baseline constitutional powers of the Governor regarding state legislation.
2
Analyze the mandatory reservation requirement specified under Article 200.
The second proviso to Article 200 contains an explicit mandatory obligation: the Governor 'shall not assent to, but shall reserve for the consideration of the President, any Bill which in his opinion would... so derogate from the powers of the High Court as to endanger the position which that Court is by this Constitution designed to fill.'
Distinguishing discretionary reservation from constitutionally mandated reservation.

Key Concept

Mandatory Reservation of State Bills under Article 200 of the Constitution of India
Estimated Time:1m 0s
Question 2111Question

Consider the following statements regarding the Constitutional framework of fiscal federalism and tax revenue distribution between the Union and the States in India:

1. The net proceeds of cesses and surcharges levied by the Union Government under Article 271 form an integral part of the divisible pool redistributed among States based on Finance Commission recommendations.
2. Under Article 269A, Goods and Services Tax (GST) on supplies in the course of inter-State trade or commerce is levied and collected by the Government of India and apportioned between the Union and the States.
3. According to Article 270, all taxes and duties levied and collected by the Union, except those specified in Articles 268, 269, and 269A, and statutory surcharges/cesses, are distributed between the Union and the States.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: 2 and 3 only

Answer

Statements 2 and 3 are correct.
The option selecting statements 2 and 3 is correct. Under Article 269A, IGST on inter-State supplies is levied and collected by the Union and apportioned to States. Article 270 comprehensively defines the divisible pool of Central taxes while specifically excluding Articles 268, 269, 269A, and Article 271 surcharges/cesses. Statement 1 is incorrect because Article 271 surcharges accrue exclusively to the Union and do not enter the divisible pool.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Evaluate Statement 1 regarding Article 271 and surcharges/cesses.
Statement 1 is false. Under Article 271 of the Constitution of India, any surcharge levied by Parliament for Union purposes goes entirely to the Consolidated Fund of India and is not part of the divisible pool shared with States.
Constitutional provisions explicitly keep surcharges and earmarked cesses outside the purview of Finance Commission devolution under Article 270.
2
Evaluate Statement 2 regarding Article 269A and Integrated GST (IGST).
Statement 2 is true. Article 269A mandates that GST on inter-State trade/commerce (IGST) is levied and collected by the Centre and apportioned between the Union and States as per Parliamentary law.
This provision was inserted by the 101st Constitutional Amendment Act, 2016, to handle cross-border supply of goods and services.
3
Evaluate Statement 3 regarding Article 270 and the divisible pool.
Statement 3 is true. Article 270 defines the divisible pool of taxes, including all Union taxes except those under Articles 268, 269, 269A, and surcharges/cesses under Article 271.
Taxes under Article 270 are shared between Centre and States according to the vertical devolution percentage recommended by the Finance Commission.

Key Concept

Constitutional Division of Tax Revenues and Divisible Pool Rules (Articles 268-271)
Question 2112Question

The Vallarpadam International Container Transshipment Terminal (ICTT), commissioned to handle mainline container vessels locally and reduce India's dependence on foreign transshipment hubs like Colombo and Singapore, is situated at which of the following major ports of India?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Cochin Port

Answer

Cochin Port
Cochin Port (located in Kerala on the Arabian Sea) houses the Vallarpadam International Container Transshipment Terminal (ICTT). It is India's first dedicated transshipment port terminal, strategically situated close to international maritime trade routes to handle mother container vessels directly.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the geographical location and purpose of the Vallarpadam ICTT
Vallarpadam ICTT is a major deep-water container transshipment terminal located on Vallarpadam Island in Kochi, Kerala.
It was commissioned to handle large mother container ships directly along the main international sea route.
2
Associate the terminal with its parent major port authority
Vallarpadam ICTT operates under the jurisdiction of the Cochin Port Authority (Kochi, Kerala).
Cochin Port serves as a strategic natural harbor on the Arabian Sea / Malabar Coast.

Key Concept

Major Ports of India and Maritime Container Transshipment
Estimated Time:1m 0s
Question 2113Question

With reference to the financial relations between the Union and the States under the Constitution of India, consider the following statements:

1. Statutory grants under Article 275 are given to specific States in need of assistance on the recommendation of the Finance Commission and are charged on the Consolidated Fund of India.
2. Discretionary grants under Article 282 allow both the Union and the States to make grants for any public purpose, even if that purpose is outside their legislative jurisdiction.
3. Unlike statutory grants under Article 275, discretionary grants under Article 282 are not charged on the Consolidated Fund of India and are subject to regular budgetary appropriations.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: 1, 2 and 3

Answer

Statements 1, 2, and 3 are all correct.
All three statements are constitutionally accurate. Article 275 provides for statutory grants recommended by the Finance Commission which are charged on the Consolidated Fund of India. Article 282 grants are discretionary transfers that can be made by the Centre or States for any public purpose beyond strict legislative lists. Consequently, Article 282 grants require legislative voting and appropriation, unlike charged Article 275 grants.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Evaluate Statement 1 regarding Article 275 statutory grants.
Article 275 empowers Parliament to make grants to States in need of financial assistance upon recommendations of the Finance Commission. These grants are charged directly upon the Consolidated Fund of India.
Constitutional mandate under Article 275 ensures non-votable statutory financial transfers.
2
Evaluate Statement 2 regarding Article 282 discretionary grants scope.
Article 282 provides that the Union or a State may make any grants for any public purpose, notwithstanding that the purpose is not one with respect to which Parliament or the State Legislature may make laws.
Article 282 serves as a spending power provision outside strict legislative domain constraints.
3
Evaluate Statement 3 regarding procedural distinction in funding source.
Grants under Article 275 are charged expenditures (non-votable), whereas grants under Article 282 are votable expenditures requiring legislative annual budget approval.
This procedural difference distinguishes statutory fiscal transfers from discretionary scheme allocations.

Key Concept

Constitutional Mechanisms of Centre-State Financial Relations (Articles 275 and 282)
Question 2114Question

Consider the following statements regarding the Public Funds of India under the constitutional framework of public finance:

1. Parliamentary authorization is mandatory for all withdrawals made from the Consolidated Fund of India as well as the Public Account of India.
2. The Contingency Fund of India is placed at the disposal of the President of India to meet unforeseen expenditure pending authorization by Parliament.
3. National Small Savings Fund deposits, provident fund receipts, and judicial deposits are credited to the Public Account of India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: 2 and 3 only

Answer

2 and 3 only
The statement specifying '2 and 3 only' is correct. The Contingency Fund of India (Article 267) is held by the Finance Secretary on behalf of the President to meet urgent unforeseen expenses. The Public Account of India (Article 266(2)) handles banking-type transactions such as provident funds, small savings, and judicial deposits, which do not belong strictly to the government and do not require prior parliamentary sanction for withdrawal. Only the Consolidated Fund of India strictly mandates prior parliamentary authorization through an Appropriation Act.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze Statement 1 regarding Parliamentary authorization for Public Funds.
Statement 1 is incorrect.
Under Article 266(1), withdrawals from the Consolidated Fund of India require an Appropriation Act passed by Parliament. However, under Article 266(2), the Public Account of India accounts for money received on behalf of third parties (e.g., provident funds, small savings), and payments from this account can be made by executive action without parliamentary approval.
2
Evaluate Statement 2 regarding the Contingency Fund of India.
Statement 2 is correct.
Under Article 267(1), the Contingency Fund of India is established at the disposal of the President of India to make advances for meeting unforeseen expenditures pending authorization by Parliament.
3
Evaluate Statement 3 regarding receipts under the Public Account of India.
Statement 3 is correct.
Public money received by or on behalf of the Government of India that is not credited to the Consolidated Fund of India (such as small savings, provident funds, and judicial deposits) is credited to the Public Account of India.

Key Concept

Constitutional provisions for Public Funds of India (Consolidated Fund, Public Account, and Contingency Fund)
Estimated Time:1m 15s
Question 2115Question

National income estimation in India has evolved through significant individual scientific contributions, institutional setups, and major methodological revisions. Arrange the following historical milestones in the evolution of National Income Accounting in India in correct chronological order from the earliest to the latest.

Drag items to arrange them in the correct order

Show answer & explanation

Answer

The correct chronological sequence from earliest to latest is: (1) Dr. V.K.R.V. Rao's scientific estimation (1931–32), (2) Constitution of the Mahalanobis National Income Committee (1949), (3) Establishment of the Central Statistical Organisation (1951), and (4) Adoption of the 2011–12 base year with GVA at basic prices (2015).
The correct chronological progression begins with Dr. V.K.R.V. Rao's pioneering scientific work for the 1931–32 estimation. Post-independence, the Government formed the National Income Committee under Prof. P.C. Mahalanobis in August 1949. To institutionalize national income compilation, the Central Statistical Organisation was established in May 1951. Modern structural accounting reforms occurred in January 2015 with the revision of the base year to 2011–12 and the introduction of GVA at basic prices.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the timeline of pre-independence national income estimation milestones.
Dr. V.K.R.V. Rao provided the first scientific and conceptual estimation of national income for 1931–32 (published in 1940), improving upon early unscientific estimates like Dadabhai Naoroji's (1867–68).
Establishing the earliest historical benchmark.
2
Determine the date of post-independence committee formation.
The National Income Committee was appointed by the Government of India in August 1949 under Prof. P.C. Mahalanobis, with Prof. D.R. Gadgil and Dr. V.K.R.V. Rao as members.
This formed the first official post-independence institutional framework.
3
Identify the creation of the permanent statistical body.
The Central Statistical Organisation (CSO) was established in May 1951 under the Cabinet Secretariat to handle national accounts compilation permanently.
This institutionalized regular national income estimation in India.
4
Identify the modern methodological revision milestone.
In January 2015, the CSO revised the base year from 2004–05 to 2011–12 and aligned Indian accounting standards with System of National Accounts (SNA) 2008 by introducing GVA at basic prices.
This marks the latest structural overhaul in the national income accounting framework.

Key Concept

Chronological evolution of National Income estimation and accounting methodology in India.
Question 2116Question

Consider the following statements regarding demographic indicators, official employment metrics, and skill development initiatives in India:

1. The demographic dividend phase is mathematically reflected by a declining Total Dependency Ratio, which occurs when the proportion of the working-age population (156415-64 years) increases relative to the dependent age groups (0140-14 and 65+65+ years).
2. Under the Periodic Labour Force Survey (PLFS) framework, the Worker Population Ratio (WPR) is defined as the percentage of employed persons relative to the total labor force.
3. The National Apprenticeship Promotion Scheme (NAPS) is administered by the Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship (MSDE) and provides financial co-sharing of stipends to encouraging establishments.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: 1 and 3 only

Answer

Statements 1 and 3 are correct, while statement 2 is incorrect.
Statement 1 accurately describes the demographic dividend mechanism where an expanding working-age demographic (156415-64 years) lowers the overall dependency ratio. Statement 3 correctly identifies that the National Apprenticeship Promotion Scheme (NAPS) is executed by MSDE to provide partial stipend funding to apprenticeship providers. Statement 2 is incorrect because the Worker Population Ratio (WPR) measures employed individuals as a proportion of the entire population, rather than strictly those within the labor force.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze Statement 1 regarding demographic dividend metrics.
The Total Dependency Ratio is given by Population(014)+Population(65+)Population(1564)×100\frac{\text{Population}(0-14) + \text{Population}(65+)}{\text{Population}(15-64)} \times 100. A shift towards a higher proportion of working-age population reduces this ratio, defining the demographic dividend window. Statement 1 is correct.
Demographic dividend represents economic growth potential resulting from shifts in a population's age structure.
2
Analyze Statement 2 regarding PLFS employment definitions.
By National Sample Survey Office (NSSO)/PLFS definitions, Labour Force Participation Rate (LFPR) = Labour ForceTotal Population×100\frac{\text{Labour Force}}{\text{Total Population}} \times 100, while Worker Population Ratio (WPR) = Employed PersonsTotal Population×100\frac{\text{Employed Persons}}{\text{Total Population}} \times 100. The denominator for WPR is the total population, NOT the labor force. Statement 2 is incorrect.
Distinguishing between population-based rates (LFPR, WPR) and labor force-based rates (Unemployment Rate) is crucial for accurate macroeconomic interpretation.
3
Analyze Statement 3 regarding National Apprenticeship Promotion Scheme (NAPS).
NAPS was launched by the Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship (MSDE) to incentivize employers to engage apprentices by sharing 25%25\% of prescribed stipend (up to a ceiling). Statement 3 is correct.
Verifying nodal ministry and primary operational mechanisms of major national skill initiatives.

Key Concept

Demographic Dividend Ratios, PLFS Labor Market Indicators, and National Skill Framework Architecture
Question 2117Question

In a sample economy comprising 55 individuals, the daily per capita consumption expenditures are recorded as 20₹20, 30₹30, 40₹40, 50₹50, and 110₹110. The official poverty line for this economy is established at 50₹50 per day. What is the Poverty Gap Index (PGIPGI) of this economy, expressed as a percentage?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: 24

Answer

The Poverty Gap Index of the economy is 24%
The Poverty Gap Index (PGIPGI) is calculated as the average of normalized poverty gaps across the entire population: PGI=1Ni=1N(ZyiZ)PGI = \frac{1}{N} \sum_{i=1}^{N} \left(\frac{Z - y_i}{Z}\right) for all yi<Zy_i < Z. For this population (N=5N=5, Z=50Z=50), the normalized gaps are 0.600.60, 0.400.40, 0.200.20, 00, and 00. Taking the mean gives 1.20/5=0.241.20 / 5 = 0.24, which equals 24%24\%.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify poor individuals and determine consumption shortfalls relative to the poverty line
Three individuals have expenditures below 50₹50, with shortfalls of 30₹30, 20₹20, and 10₹10.
Poverty gap measures depth of poverty, considering only individuals below or at the poverty line (yiZy_i \le Z).
2
Calculate the normalized poverty gap for each individual
Normalized gaps are 0.600.60, 0.400.40, 0.200.20, 0.000.00, and 0.000.00.
Normalizing by the poverty line (ZZ) expresses individual shortfalls as proportions of ZZ.
3
Sum normalized gaps and average over total population N
PGI=15(0.60+0.40+0.20+0+0)=0.24PGI = \frac{1}{5} (0.60 + 0.40 + 0.20 + 0 + 0) = 0.24 or 24%24\%.
The Poverty Gap Index formula is PGI=1Ni=1Nmax(0,Zyi)ZPGI = \frac{1}{N} \sum_{i=1}^{N} \frac{\max(0, Z - y_i)}{Z}.

Key Concept

Poverty Gap Index (PGI) calculation and intensity of poverty measurement
Question 2118Question

Vegetation distribution across India is primarily determined by rainfall thresholds. Arrange the following natural vegetation types in ascending order of their average annual rainfall requirements:

Drag items to arrange them in the correct order

Show answer & explanation

Answer

The correct ascending order of average annual rainfall requirements is: Tropical Thorn Forests (<50 cm), Tropical Dry Deciduous Forests (70–100 cm), Tropical Moist Deciduous Forests (100–200 cm), and Tropical Wet Evergreen Forests (>200 cm).
The natural vegetation of India varies directly with total annual rainfall. Tropical Thorn Forests require <50 cm, Tropical Dry Deciduous Forests require 70–100 cm, Tropical Moist Deciduous Forests require 100–200 cm, and Tropical Wet Evergreen Forests require >200 cm. Ordering from lowest to highest rainfall yields Tropical Thorn Forests, Tropical Dry Deciduous Forests, Tropical Moist Deciduous Forests, and Tropical Wet Evergreen Forests.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the minimum precipitation threshold for semi-arid vegetation.
Tropical Thorn Forests require the lowest annual rainfall (less than 50 cm).
They consist of thorny trees and shrubs adapted to xerophytic conditions.
2
Determine the precipitation range for dry deciduous vegetation.
Tropical Dry Deciduous Forests require 70 cm to 100 cm of rainfall.
They form a transition zone between moist deciduous and thorn forests.
3
Determine the precipitation range for moist deciduous vegetation.
Tropical Moist Deciduous Forests require 100 cm to 200 cm of rainfall.
This is the most widespread forest type in India, shedding leaves in dry summer.
4
Identify the highest rainfall threshold among forest types.
Tropical Wet Evergreen Forests require more than 200 cm of rainfall.
High humidity and continuous moisture sustain dense, multi-layered evergreen canopies.

Key Concept

Climatic thresholds and precipitation requirements for natural vegetation belts in India.
Question 2119Question

Match the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) monetary policy instruments in List I with their correct operational descriptions in List II.

Click a left item, then click its matching right item

Items

Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR)
Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR)
Marginal Standing Facility (MSF)
Open Market Operations (OMO)

Matches

Show answer & explanation

Answer

Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR) corresponds to mandatory cash balances kept with the RBI; Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR) corresponds to holding liquid assets like cash, gold, or government securities; Marginal Standing Facility (MSF) corresponds to the overnight borrowing facility at a penal rate; Open Market Operations (OMO) correspond to the direct buying and selling of government securities.
Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR) represents cash reserves parked with the RBI, Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR) represents liquid assets maintained by banks themselves, Marginal Standing Facility (MSF) represents overnight penal borrowing from the RBI, and Open Market Operations (OMO) represent the purchase and sale of government securities.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the defining feature of Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR)
CRR requires banks to keep cash reserves exclusively with the RBI based on a percentage of their NDTL.
CRR is held purely in cash form with the central bank.
2
Identify the defining feature of Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR)
SLR mandates banks to maintain liquid reserves (gold, approved securities, cash) themselves.
It ensures the solvency of banks and drives investment in government securities.
3
Determine the operational mechanism of Marginal Standing Facility (MSF)
MSF provides scheduled banks an overnight liquidity window during acute cash shortages at a penal rate.
It acts as a lender-of-last-resort overnight emergency facility.
4
Determine the operational mechanism of Open Market Operations (OMO)
OMO consists of the sale and purchase of government bonds by the RBI to regulate liquidity levels.
Selling G-Secs absorbs excess liquidity while buying G-Secs injects rupee liquidity into the financial system.

Key Concept

Quantitative Tools of RBI Monetary Policy
Question 2120Question

Chronologically arrange the following historical milestones and policy initiatives related to Indian economic planning and structural reforms from the earliest to the latest:

Drag items to arrange them in the correct order

Show answer & explanation

Answer

The correct chronological sequence from earliest to latest is: 1) Formation of the National Planning Committee (1938), 2) Introduction of the Rolling Plan concept (1978), 3) Appointment of the Tax Reforms Committee chaired by Raja Chelliah (1991), and 4) Establishment of NITI Aayog (2015).
The correct sequence follows the precise historical timeline of Indian planning and structural reform milestones: National Planning Committee (1938), Rolling Plan (1978), Raja Chelliah Tax Reforms Committee (1991), and NITI Aayog establishment (2015).

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Determine the year of establishment for the National Planning Committee.
1938
The committee was formed pre-independence to formulate a comprehensive planning blueprint for India.
2
Determine the period when the Rolling Plan concept was introduced.
1978
It was introduced by the Janata Party administration for 1978–1980 after ending the Fifth Five-Year Plan a year early.
3
Identify the year of constitution for the Raja Chelliah Tax Reforms Committee.
1991
The committee was set up immediately following the 1991 economic crisis to guide structural tax reforms.
4
Determine the date of NITI Aayog's establishment.
2015
NITI Aayog came into effect on January 1, 2015, replacing the 65-year-old Planning Commission.

Key Concept

Chronological Evolution of Planning History and Economic Reforms in India
PreviousPage 106 / 230Next
All practice questions — State PSC Exam | Examkin