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Question 2361Question →

Match the demographic and labor market concepts listed under List-I with their correct definitions listed under List-II.

Click a left item, then click its matching right item

Items

Worker Population Ratio (WPR)
Labour Force Participation Rate (LFPR)
Dependency Ratio
Skill Gap Assessment

Matches

Show answer & explanation

Answer

Worker Population Ratio (WPR) matches with the percentage of the total population that is actively employed. Labour Force Participation Rate (LFPR) matches with the percentage of the population that is either employed or actively seeking work. Dependency Ratio matches with the ratio of dependent population to the working-age population. Skill Gap Assessment matches with the analysis identifying missing technical competencies between industry demand and workforce capabilities.
Worker Population Ratio reflects the share of total population employed. Labour Force Participation Rate captures both employed and job-seeking unemployed persons. Dependency Ratio evaluates demographic burden by comparing dependent age groups to the working-age cohort. Skill Gap Assessment diagnoses workforce training mismatches relative to market demand.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the definition of Worker Population Ratio (WPR).
WPR measures the proportion of total population engaged in productive economic employment.
WPR focuses exclusively on those currently employed relative to the overall population.
2
Identify the definition of Labour Force Participation Rate (LFPR).
LFPR measures both employed individuals and those unemployed but actively searching for work.
The labour force includes both employed and unemployed persons within the economic workforce.
3
Determine the definition of Dependency Ratio.
It compares dependents (aged 0–14 and 65+) against the working-age population (aged 15–64).
A lower dependency ratio indicates a favorable demographic dividend.
4
Match Skill Gap Assessment with its primary objective.
It measures mismatch between industry-required skillsets and existing worker competencies.
Skill gap evaluation guides vocational training policy to enhance employability.

Key Concept

Key Demographic and Labor Market Indicators
Question 2362Question →

Which of the following statements regarding India's Submarine-Launched Ballistic Missile (SLBM) systems and sea-based nuclear deterrence capabilities are correct?

Select all that apply

Show answer & explanation

Answer: The K-15 (Sagarika) is a solid-fueled submarine-launched ballistic missile indigenously developed for deployment on Arihant-class nuclear submarines.; The K-4 missile is an intermediate-range submarine-launched ballistic missile designed to hit strategic targets at distances of approximately 3,500 km.; India's operational sea-based strategic assets complete the third leg of its nuclear triad, providing a credible second-strike capability.

Answer

The correct statements are that the K-15 Sagarika is a solid-fueled SLBM developed for Arihant-class submarines, the K-4 missile is an intermediate-range SLBM capable of reaching targets up to 3,500 km, and India's sea-based nuclear assets complete the third leg of its nuclear triad for second-strike deterrence.
The K-15 Sagarika (range ~750 km) and K-4 (range ~3,500 km) are indigenously developed solid-fueled submarine-launched ballistic missiles that arm India's SSBN fleet. Operating alongside land-based missiles and nuclear-capable aircraft, these platforms complete India's nuclear triad, giving the country a survivable second-strike capability consistent with its 'No First Use' nuclear doctrine.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the propulsion system and platform integration of the K-15 (Sagarika) missile.
Confirm that K-15 is a solid-fueled SLBM deployed on INS Arihant with an operational range of ~750 km.
Verifies technical specs and launching platform for India's first operational SLBM.
2
Evaluate the range characteristics and strategic role of the K-4 missile.
Confirm that K-4 is an intermediate-range SLBM with a range of approximately 3,500 km.
Validates the operational envelope of DRDO's longer-range underwater ballistic missile.
3
Examine the propellant technology used across K-series submarine-launched missiles.
Identify that K-series SLBMs use solid propellants for underwater safety and instant launch readiness, not liquid propellants.
Liquid propellants present severe volatility risks inside submerged missile canisters.
4
Assess the strategic context of sea-based nuclear assets within India's nuclear doctrine.
Confirm that SSBNs complete the nuclear triad (air, land, sea), guaranteeing a survivable second-strike capability.
Connects submarine missile capabilities with national defense policy.

Key Concept

Submarine-Launched Ballistic Missiles (SLBM) and Nuclear Triad Deterrence
Estimated Time:1m 15s
Question 2363Question →

Regarding the constitutional framework of the Indian judicial system, which of the following statements accurately describes a key jurisdictional distinction between the Supreme Court and High Courts in India?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: The writ jurisdiction of High Courts under Article 226 is broader in subject-matter scope than that of the Supreme Court under Article 32, as High Courts can issue writs for both Fundamental Rights and ordinary legal rights.

Answer

The writ jurisdiction of High Courts under Article 226 is broader in subject-matter scope than that of the Supreme Court under Article 32, as High Courts can issue writs for both Fundamental Rights and ordinary legal rights.
Under Article 32, the Supreme Court can issue writs only for the enforcement of Fundamental Rights. Under Article 226, High Courts can issue writs for enforcing Fundamental Rights as well as 'for any other purpose' (ordinary legal rights). Therefore, in terms of subject-matter scope, the writ jurisdiction of the High Court is wider than that of the Supreme Court.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze Article 32 of the Constitution of India.
Article 32 confers writ jurisdiction on the Supreme Court specifically for the enforcement of Fundamental Rights guaranteed under Part III.
The right to move the Supreme Court under Article 32 is itself a Fundamental Right.
2
Analyze Article 226 of the Constitution of India.
Article 226 confers writ jurisdiction on High Courts for the enforcement of Fundamental Rights 'and for any other purpose'.
The phrase 'for any other purpose' extends the High Court's writ authority to ordinary legal and statutory rights, making its subject-matter scope broader than that of Article 32.
3
Compare the territorial vs subject-matter scope of both courts.
While the Supreme Court has a wider territorial jurisdiction (entire territory of India), the High Court has a wider subject-matter writ jurisdiction.
Evaluating both constitutional clauses confirms that the High Court's subject-matter reach under Article 226 encompasses both constitutional fundamental rights and ordinary legal rights.

Key Concept

Writ Jurisdiction Comparison (Article 32 vs Article 226)
Estimated Time:1m 15s
Question 2364Question →

Consider the following statements regarding the Pradhan Mantri Poshan Shakti Nirman (PM POSHAN) scheme:

1. The scheme extends coverage to children studying in pre-primary classes (Balvatika) in government and government-aided primary schools.
2. The honorarium paid to cook-cum-helpers and the core cooking cost per child are funded 100% by the Central Government across all States.
3. Conducting annual social audits across all districts is a mandatory feature for monitoring scheme implementation.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: 1 and 3 only

Answer

Statements 1 and 3 are correct, while Statement 2 is incorrect.
Statements 1 and 3 accurately describe key features of the PM POSHAN scheme. The scheme expands nutritional support to pre-primary (Balvatika) students in primary schools and mandates annual social audits in all districts. Statement 2 is incorrect because PM POSHAN operates as a Centrally Sponsored Scheme where cooking costs and cook honorariums are shared between the Central Government and State Governments (60:40 for general states, 90:10 for NE/Himalayan states) rather than being 100% central funded.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Evaluate Statement 1 regarding beneficiary coverage under PM POSHAN.
Statement 1 is correct. The PM POSHAN scheme (renamed from the Mid-Day Meal Scheme) extended coverage to children studying in Balvatika (pre-primary classes) in government and government-aided primary schools in addition to classes I-VIII.
Expanding early childhood care and nutrition is a primary component of the restructured scheme.
2
Evaluate Statement 2 regarding the funding mechanism for cooking costs and cook honorariums.
Statement 2 is incorrect. PM POSHAN is a Centrally Sponsored Scheme. While the cost of foodgrains and their transportation is 100% borne by the Central Government, cooking costs and honorariums for cook-cum-helpers are shared between the Centre and States/UTs in the ratio of 60:40 for States with Legislature (90:10 for North Eastern States, Himachal Pradesh, Uttarakhand, and Jammu & Kashmir, and 100% for UTs without Legislature).
Centrally Sponsored Schemes feature cost-sharing arrangements for recurring operational expenses between Central and State governments.
3
Evaluate Statement 3 regarding accountability and monitoring provisions.
Statement 3 is correct. Mandatory conducting of annual Social Audits in all districts, along with involvement of university students/institutions for evaluation, is prescribed under the scheme's guidelines.
Social audits promote community participation, transparency, and accountability in welfare delivery.

Key Concept

PM POSHAN Scheme provisions, coverage scope, and Centrally Sponsored funding ratio
Question 2365Question →

Which of the following international financial transactions is correctly classified under the Capital Account of India's Balance of Payments (BoP)?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Reinvestment of retained earnings by a foreign direct investor into its Indian subsidiary

Answer

The reinvestment of retained earnings by a foreign direct investor into its Indian subsidiary is classified under the Capital Account as Foreign Direct Investment (FDI).
The correct choice is the option mentioning the reinvestment of retained earnings by a foreign parent company. According to IMF BoP manual standards adopted by the RBI, foreign direct investment comprises equity capital, reinvested earnings, and intra-company loans. Reinvested earnings are credited as FDI under the Capital Account.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Differentiate between Current Account and Capital Account transactions in BoP.
Current Account records trade in goods, services, primary income (interest, dividend, profit), and secondary income (remittances). Capital Account records transactions altering foreign asset/liability stock (FDI, FPI, loans/ECBs, banking capital).
Clear categorization based on Reserve Bank of India (RBI) BoP accounting rules is required.
2
Analyze each option's financial nature.
Dividends, worker remittances, and interest payments on external debts represent income flows and transfers without creating financial claims/liabilities, putting them in the Current Account. Retained earnings reinvested by foreign investors directly increase foreign direct equity holdings in India, which is an FDI inflow under the Capital Account.
Reinvested earnings represent accrued investment capital assigned back into the enterprise, altering financial liabilities/equity.

Key Concept

Classification of Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) components in the Balance of Payments
Question 2366Question →

Match the high-level agricultural policy committees in List-I with their primary reform recommendations and mandates in List-II:

Click a left item, then click its matching right item

Items

Abhijit Sen Committee (2002)
Shanta Kumar Committee (2014)
National Commission on Farmers / Swaminathan Committee (2006)
Ramesh Chand Committee (2015)

Matches

Show answer & explanation

Answer

Abhijit Sen Committee (2002) matches with formulating a Long-Term Grain Policy and buffer stock norms; Shanta Kumar Committee (2014) matches with restructuring FCI and reducing NFSA beneficiary coverage to 40%; Swaminathan Committee (2006) matches with recommending MSP at 50% above comprehensive cost (C2C_2); Ramesh Chand Committee (2015) matches with revising CACP methodology for crop cost calculations.
Each agricultural committee corresponds precisely to its policy mandate: Abhijit Sen Committee formulated the Long-Term Grain Policy (2002); Shanta Kumar Committee proposed restructuring FCI and reducing NFSA coverage (2014); Swaminathan Commission recommended setting MSP at C2+50%C_2 + 50\% (2006); and Ramesh Chand Committee reviewed CACP's crop cost calculation methodology (2015).

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the primary mandate of the Abhijit Sen Committee (2002).
It was mandated to formulate a Long-Term Grain Policy for India, addressing buffer stock norms, price support, and PDS mechanisms.
The committee sought to resolve structural inefficiencies in procurement and grain management during the post-Green Revolution period.
2
Analyze the primary mandate of the High-Level Committee chaired by Shanta Kumar (2014).
It recommended major reforms in Food Corporation of India (FCI) logistics, introducing Direct Benefit Transfer (DBT), outsourcing grain handling, and reducing National Food Security Act (NFSA) coverage from 67% to 40%.
The objective was restructuring food supply chain economics and curbing operational leaks.
3
Analyze the recommendation of the National Commission on Farmers / Swaminathan Committee (2006).
It recommended establishing MSP at C2+50%C_2 + 50\%, where C2C_2 includes all paid-out costs, imputed value of family labor, interest on owned capital, and land rent.
This aimed at ensuring agricultural profitability and financial stability for farm households.
4
Analyze the focus of the Ramesh Chand Committee (2015).
It addressed methodological discrepancies in CACP's cost concepts (A2A_2, A2+FLA_2+FL, and C2C_2), proposing inclusions for managerial labor costs and updated land rental values.
Farmers' organizations had raised concerns that traditional CACP estimates understated actual production costs.

Key Concept

Indian Agricultural Committees, Food Security Policy, FCI Reforms, and Price Support Mechanics
Question 2367Question →

With reference to the early medieval Bhakti movement in South India, consider the following statements:

1. The Alvars were devoted to Lord Shiva, whereas the Nayanars were devout worshippers of Lord Vishnu.
2. The canonical compilation of hymns composed by the Alvars is titled the 'Nalayira Divya Prabandham'.
3. Women saints like Andal and Karaikkal Ammaiyar made significant contributions to the movement.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: 2 and 3 only

Answer

Statements 2 and 3 are correct. The Alvars were 12 Vaishnavite poet-saints whose hymns were compiled into the Nalayira Divya Prabandham, and the Nayanars were 63 Shaivite poet-saints. Women saints such as Andal (Alvar) and Karaikkal Ammaiyar (Nayanar) played key roles.
The option stating '2 and 3 only' is correct because the Alvars were 12 Vaishnavite poet-saints whose compositions were collected in the Nalayira Divya Prabandham, while the 63 Nayanars were Shaivite poet-saints. Female saints like Andal (Alvar) and Karaikkal Ammaiyar (Nayanar) were vital figures who challenged prevailing social norms.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Evaluate Statement 1 regarding the devotional focus of Alvars and Nayanars.
Statement 1 is incorrect. The Alvars were Vaishnavite saints (worshippers of Vishnu), while the Nayanars were Shaivite saints (worshippers of Shiva).
Identify the core sectarian classification of South Indian Bhakti traditions.
2
Evaluate Statement 2 regarding the sacred literature of the Alvars.
Statement 2 is correct. Nathamuni collected and compiled the devotional hymns of the Alvars into the 'Nalayira Divya Prabandham' (Four Thousand Divine Compositions).
Verify the textual canonical compilation of Tamil Vaishnava devotional poetry.
3
Evaluate Statement 3 regarding female saints in the Alvar and Nayanar traditions.
Statement 3 is correct. Andal was the sole female Alvar saint, and Karaikkal Ammaiyar was one of the prominent female Nayanar saints.
Confirm the historical presence and contributions of female poet-saints in southern Bhakti.

Key Concept

South Indian Bhakti Movement (Alvars and Nayanars)
Estimated Time:1m 0s
Question 2368Question →

As a District Collector presiding over a multi-stakeholder deadlock regarding a proposed municipal waste-to-energy plant near an eco-sensitive sanctuary, you face competing demands: the Municipal Corporation needs an urgent solution for city waste, an environmental group representing indigenous residents fears toxic emissions and habitat destruction, and a private concessionaire threatens legal action over delays in site handover under a signed agreement. Which administrative course of action represents the most legally sound and effective conflict resolution strategy?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Convene a joint independent technical review board with representative stakeholder participation to evaluate site suitability and mitigation standards, while facilitating structured mediation to explore acceptable site modifications or alternative locations.

Answer

Convene a joint independent technical review board with representative stakeholder participation to evaluate site suitability and mitigation standards, while facilitating structured mediation to explore acceptable site modifications or alternative locations.
The correct response combines objective evidence-based evaluation with inclusive negotiation. Establishing an independent technical committee ensures scientific scrutiny of environmental concerns while joint mediation honors procedural fairness, balancing public interest, ecological protection, and legal commitments.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify key stakeholder positions and underlying interests
Recognize that the municipality seeks waste management, the local community seeks health and environmental protection, and the concessionaire seeks contract fulfillment.
Effective conflict resolution requires separating rigid positional stances from underlying legitimate needs.
2
Institute a transparent, objective, and expert-led evaluation mechanism
Form an independent technical committee with stakeholder representation to assess environmental risks and compliance.
Scientific and procedural objectivity depoliticizes the dispute and builds credibility among opposing parties.
3
Facilitate integrative negotiation and multi-option analysis
Structure mediated discussions to explore enhanced emission controls, boundary adjustments, or alternative site options.
Principled negotiation aims for win-win administrative solutions aligned with constitutional principles and statutory environmental guidelines.

Key Concept

Principled negotiation and multi-stakeholder consensus building in public administration
Question 2369Question →

Which of the following statements regarding agricultural price support policies and WTO subsidy classifications in India are correct?

Select all that apply

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Minimum Support Prices (MSP) for mandated crops are recommended by the Commission for Agricultural Costs and Prices (CACP).; Fair and Remunerative Price (FRP) is the statutory price that sugar mills are required to pay to sugarcane farmers.

Answer

The correct statements are that Minimum Support Prices (MSP) are recommended by the Commission for Agricultural Costs and Prices (CACP), and Fair and Remunerative Price (FRP) is the price sugar mills are legally required to pay sugarcane growers.
The Commission for Agricultural Costs and Prices (CACP) submits price recommendations for mandated crops, making the statement regarding CACP accurate. Additionally, sugarcane pricing is governed by the Fair and Remunerative Price (FRP) mechanism, which mills are statutory bound to pay to sugarcane farmers.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Evaluate the institutional mechanism for MSP recommendation.
Identify that the Commission for Agricultural Costs and Prices (CACP) recommends MSP for mandated crops.
CACP is the specialized agency designated under the Ministry of Agriculture to determine price support recommendations.
2
Examine the pricing regime specific to sugarcane.
Confirm that sugarcane pricing is governed by the Fair and Remunerative Price (FRP).
FRP is determined under the Sugarcane (Control) Order, 1966, to protect growers from payment defaults by sugar mills.
3
Review WTO subsidy box definitions.
Recognize that Green Box subsidies are non-trade distorting.
Amber Box subsidies, not Green Box subsidies, represent trade-distorting support subject to de minimis limits and reduction targets.

Key Concept

Agricultural Price Support Mechanisms and WTO Subsidy Classifications
Question 2370Question →

Which of the following statements regarding the statutory jurisdiction and operational powers of the Lokpal under the Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act, 2013 are correct?

Select all that apply

Show answer & explanation

Answer: It possesses powers of superintendence over and can issue directions to investigating agencies, including the Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI), for cases referred by it.; The Prime Minister of India falls within its jurisdiction, subject to specified subject-matter exemptions such as international relations, security, public order, atomic energy, and space.; It is vested with the powers of a civil court under the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, while conducting preliminary inquiries.

Answer

The correct statements are those concerning the Lokpal's superintendence over investigating agencies like the CBI for referred cases, the inclusion of the Prime Minister under its jurisdiction with specified exemptions, and its vesting with civil court powers during preliminary inquiries.
The correct statements accurately identify that the Lokpal exercises superintendence over investigating agencies (including the CBI) for cases referred by it, brings the Prime Minister under its purview with specific exclusions (such as international relations and atomic energy), and enjoys civil court powers under the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, while conducting inquiries.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Evaluate the statement regarding superintendence over investigating agencies.
The statement is correct because Section 25 of the Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act, 2013 grants the Lokpal powers of superintendence over any agency investigating cases referred by it.
Verify statutory oversight powers over investigating agencies.
2
Evaluate the statement regarding the Prime Minister's inclusion under Lokpal jurisdiction.
The statement is correct as Section 14 includes the Prime Minister within the Lokpal's purview, subject to specific exclusions like atomic energy, space, security, and international relations.
Determine the scope of jurisdiction over high constitutional functionaries.
3
Evaluate the statement regarding civil court powers during inquiry.
The statement is correct because Section 27 explicitly accords the Lokpal the powers of a civil court under the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908.
Assess the judicial powers granted to the statutory body during proceedings.
4
Evaluate the statement regarding suo motu powers.
The statement is incorrect because the Lokpal lacks statutory power to take suo motu cognizance and requires a written complaint to commence proceedings.
Examine the procedural trigger for Lokpal action.

Key Concept

Powers, jurisdiction, and procedural framework of the Lokpal under the Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act, 2013
Question 2371Question →

Which of the following statements regarding human hormonal regulation and endocrine physiology are correct?

Select all that apply

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Insulin promotes glycogenesis in liver and skeletal muscle tissues to lower circulating blood glucose levels.; Aldosterone acts on the distal convoluted tubules and collecting ducts of the kidneys to promote sodium reabsorption and potassium excretion.

Answer

The correct statements are that insulin promotes glycogenesis in liver and skeletal muscle tissues to lower blood glucose levels, and aldosterone acts on the kidney tubules to promote sodium reabsorption and potassium excretion.
Insulin effectively lowers blood glucose by accelerating glucose entry into body cells and stimulating glycogenesis in liver and skeletal muscles. Furthermore, aldosterone produced by the adrenal cortex regulates mineral homeostasis by stimulating active sodium reabsorption alongside potassium secretion in the nephron's distal tubules.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Evaluate the statement concerning insulin function
Statement is correct
Insulin acts as a key anabolic hormone that facilitates glucose uptake into peripheral tissues and promotes glycogen synthesis in liver and skeletal muscles to reduce plasma glucose levels.
2
Evaluate the statement regarding parathyroid hormone (PTH) action
Statement is incorrect
Parathyroid hormone raises serum calcium levels by promoting osteoclast-mediated bone resorption, renal calcium reabsorption, and indirect intestinal absorption via calcitriol. It does not decrease blood calcium levels.
3
Evaluate the statement on aldosterone renal mechanism
Statement is correct
Aldosterone binds to mineralocorticoid receptors in renal tubular cells, increasing the activity of epithelial sodium channels (ENaC) and sodium-potassium ATPase pumps, resulting in sodium retention and potassium excretion.
4
Evaluate the statement on oxytocin site of synthesis
Statement is incorrect
Oxytocin is synthesized in the cell bodies of hypothalamic neurons and transported axonally to the posterior pituitary gland for storage and release. The anterior pituitary produces hormones such as growth hormone, prolactin, ACTH, TSH, LH, and FSH.

Key Concept

Endocrine Gland Physiology and Hormonal Homeostasis
Question 2372Question →

Arrange the following historical events associated with the early phase of the Indian National Congress in correct chronological order, from the earliest to the latest:

Drag items to arrange them in the correct order

Show answer & explanation

Answer

The correct chronological sequence is: First Session of the Indian National Congress in Bombay (1885) → Establishment of the British Committee of the Indian National Congress in London (1889) → Passage of the Indian Councils Act by the British Parliament (1892) → Publication of Dadabhai Naoroji's book 'Poverty and Un-British Rule in India' (1901).
The correct chronological timeline begins with the inaugural session of the Indian National Congress in December 1885 in Bombay. To build external political momentum, the Congress established its British Committee in London in July 1889. Sustained constitutional agitation by Moderates contributed to the passage of the Indian Councils Act in 1892. Finally, Dadabhai Naoroji published his major compiled critique of colonial economics, 'Poverty and Un-British Rule in India', in 1901.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Determine the date of the First Session of the Indian National Congress.
The inaugural session of the Indian National Congress was held in Bombay from December 28 to 31, 1885.
This event marked the official political organization of early Indian nationalists.
2
Identify the founding year of the British Committee of the Indian National Congress.
The British Committee of the INC was formed in London in July 1889, launching its official journal 'India' shortly after.
Moderate leaders sought to educate the British public and politicians about colonial misrule.
3
Identify the year of enactment of the Indian Councils Act.
The British Parliament enacted the Indian Councils Act in 1892.
It served as a key legislative outcome resulting from early Moderate constitutional agitation.
4
Determine the publication date of Naoroji's compiled economic study.
Dadabhai Naoroji published his seminal work, 'Poverty and Un-British Rule in India', in 1901.
While Naoroji introduced individual papers on economic drain starting in 1867, his full volume was published in book form in 1901.

Key Concept

Chronology of Early Phase of Indian National Congress and Moderate Era Milestones
Question 2373Question →

Optical fibers are extensively used in modern telecommunications and medical endoscopes to transmit light signals over long distances with minimal loss of intensity. Which of the following optical phenomena forms the fundamental operating principle of optical fibers?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Total internal reflection

Answer

Total internal reflection
Total internal reflection occurs when a light beam traveling through a denser core medium hits the boundary of a less dense cladding medium at an angle exceeding the critical angle. Because no refraction into the cladding takes place, the light energy is completely reflected back inside the core, enabling long-distance data and optical transmission.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the primary mechanism required to guide light inside a flexible cable without leakage.
The light must remain entirely confined within the central core of the cable.
Light escaping the sides of the medium would result in rapid signal attenuation over distance.
2
Analyze the conditions for total internal reflection in optical media.
When light travels from an optically denser medium (core) toward a rarer medium (cladding) at an angle of incidence greater than the critical angle, 100% of the light reflects back into the core.
This total reflection prevents signal loss through the boundaries of the optical fiber.

Key Concept

Total Internal Reflection in Optical Fibers
Estimated Time:45s
Question 2374Question →

According to a state economic survey on income distribution, the top 10%10\% of the population holds 52%52\% of the total gross income, whereas the bottom 40%40\% of the population accounts for 13%13\% of the total gross income. Based on the standard Palma ratio metric for income inequality, what is the calculated Palma ratio for this state?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: 4

Answer

The calculated Palma ratio for the state is 4.04.0.
The Palma ratio is defined as the ratio of the richest 10%10\% of the population's share of gross national income divided by the poorest 40%′s40\%'s share. Substituting the given values (52%52\% divided by 13%13\%) gives a Palma ratio of 4.04.0.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Extract the relevant income shares from the economic survey data.
Income share of top 10%=52%10\% = 52\%, Income share of bottom 40%=13%40\% = 13\%.
The Palma ratio specifically compares the income share of the top decile to that of the bottom four deciles.
2
Calculate the ratio of the top decile share to the bottom four deciles share.
\text{Palma Ratio} = \frac{52}{13} = 4.0
Applying the formula: Palma Ratio = (Income share of top 10%) / (Income share of bottom 40%).

Key Concept

Palma Ratio as an Inequality Metric
Question 2375Question →

Which of the following statements regarding the institutional framework, target eligibility criteria, and social assistance components of the National Social Assistance Programme (NSAP) are correct?

Select all that apply

Show answer & explanation

Answer: The programme is administered by the Ministry of Rural Development and serves to fulfill the Directive Principles of State Policy under Article 41 of the Constitution of India.; Under the National Family Benefit Scheme (NFBS), a lump-sum financial assistance is provided to a BPL household upon the death of the primary breadwinner aged between 18 and 59 years.

Answer

The correct statements are that NSAP is administered by the Ministry of Rural Development to fulfill Article 41 Directive Principles, and that the National Family Benefit Scheme (NFBS) provides a lump-sum financial assistance upon the death of a primary breadwinner aged 18–59 years.
The National Social Assistance Programme (NSAP) is administered centrally by the Ministry of Rural Development, implementing Directive Principles of State Policy contained in Article 41. Additionally, the National Family Benefit Scheme component provides a lump-sum grant of ₹20,000 to eligible BPL households upon the natural or accidental death of a primary breadwinner within the 18–59 age bracket.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze administrative structure and constitutional basis of NSAP
NSAP is a Centrally Sponsored Scheme administered by the Ministry of Rural Development in fulfillment of Article 41 of the Constitution of India.
Verifying the nodal ministry and statutory/constitutional alignment.
2
Evaluate age thresholds for Indira Gandhi National Disability Pension Scheme (IGNDPS)
IGNDPS applies to eligible BPL persons with 80% or higher disability aged 18 to 79 years, not starting at 60.
Testing specific age band eligibility requirements.
3
Examine the provisions of the National Family Benefit Scheme (NFBS)
NFBS grants ₹20,000 assistance to BPL families when a primary breadwinner aged 18–59 dies.
Confirming grant parameters and target beneficiary criteria.
4
Assess target coverage conditions of the Annapurna Scheme
Annapurna targets uncovered senior citizens, explicitly excluding active recipients of IGNOAPS to avoid double dipping.
Identifying mutual exclusion rules within NSAP sub-schemes.

Key Concept

Institutional Architecture and Eligibility Framework of the National Social Assistance Programme (NSAP)
Question 2376Question →

Regarding the demographic indicators, sex ratio, and tribal population distribution in India based on Census 2011, which of the following statements are correct?

Select all that apply

Show answer & explanation

Answer: According to Census 2011, the sex ratio among the Scheduled Tribe population in India (990 females per 1,000 males) is significantly higher than the national overall sex ratio (943 females per 1,000 males).; The states of Punjab and Haryana, along with the Union Territories of Chandigarh, Delhi, and Puducherry, have no officially notified Scheduled Tribe population.

Answer

The correct statements are that the Scheduled Tribe population in India recorded a higher sex ratio (990) than the national overall average (943), and that Punjab, Haryana, Chandigarh, Delhi, and Puducherry have no officially notified Scheduled Tribe population.
The statement highlighting that the Scheduled Tribe population recorded a higher sex ratio (990) than the national average (943) is correct because traditional tribal social structures reflect better gender parity. Furthermore, the statement specifying that Punjab, Haryana, Chandigarh, Delhi, and Puducherry have no officially notified Scheduled Tribe population is accurate per the presidential notifications and Census 2011 figures.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Evaluate the statement regarding Scheduled Tribe sex ratio
In Census 2011, the sex ratio among Scheduled Tribes was recorded at 990 females per 1,000 males, compared to the overall national sex ratio of 943. Thus, this statement is correct.
Tribal societies in India historically exhibit less pronounced gender discrimination, resulting in a higher sex ratio than the national average.
2
Evaluate the statement on states/UTs without notified Scheduled Tribe population
Punjab, Haryana, Chandigarh, Delhi, and Puducherry have zero notified Scheduled Tribe populations as per Census 2011 records. Thus, this statement is correct.
Presidential Orders issued under Article 342 of the Indian Constitution do not notify any community as Scheduled Tribes for these specific states and UTs.
3
Evaluate the statement regarding state-wise decadal growth rates
Meghalaya recorded the highest decadal population growth rate among states (27.95%), followed by Arunachal Pradesh (26.03%). Bihar recorded 25.42%. Thus, the statement claiming Bihar was highest is incorrect.
Confusing overall absolute population additions with percentage decadal growth leads to misidentifying the top-ranking state.
4
Evaluate the statement regarding the child sex ratio trend
The child sex ratio (0–6 years) dropped from 927 in 2001 to 919 in 2011. The value 943 refers to the overall sex ratio in 2011. Thus, this statement is incorrect.
Conflating overall sex ratio figures with child sex ratio metrics leads to wrong assertions about demographic trends.

Key Concept

Demographic indicators, Sex Ratio dynamics, and Scheduled Tribe distribution in India (Census 2011)
Question 2377Question →

In December 1883, a major political conference brought together representatives from across India in Calcutta, serving as a direct all-India precursor to the Indian National Congress before officially merging with it during the 1886 session. Which organization convened this initiative under the leadership of Surendranath Banerjea and Anandamohan Bose?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: The Indian Association

Answer

The Indian Association organized the National Conference in Calcutta in December 1883.
The Indian Association, founded in 1876 by Surendranath Banerjea and Anandamohan Bose, played a seminal role in unifying early nationalist voices. In December 1883, it convened the All-India National Conference in Calcutta, which served as a crucial forerunner to the Indian National Congress. The conference brought together nationalist leaders to discuss civil service age limits, legislative representation, and administrative reforms, before eventually merging with the INC during its second session in 1886.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the organization founded by Surendranath Banerjea and Anandamohan Bose in 1876 in Calcutta.
The organization in question is the Indian Association (also known as the Indian National Association).
It was established to create a strong body of public opinion and unify Indian political aspirations.
2
Analyze the major national initiative taken by this organization in December 1883.
It convened the first National Conference in Calcutta from December 28 to 30, 1883, attracting delegates from major provinces across India.
This served as the first major prototype for an all-India political gathering.
3
Verify its relationship and eventual merger with the Indian National Congress.
Because its second National Conference coincided with the inaugural session of the INC in December 1885, the Indian Association subsequently merged with the Indian National Congress at its second session in Calcutta in 1886.
This consolidated early nationalist efforts into a single unified national platform.

Key Concept

Pre-Congress political associations and precursors to the Indian National Congress
Question 2378Question →

Which of the following constitutional provisions and principles concerning the Supreme Court and High Courts of India are correct?

Select all that apply

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Answer: The power of judicial review over legislative actions vested in the High Courts under Article 226 and the Supreme Court under Article 32 forms an integral part of the basic structure of the Constitution.; A High Court can issue constitutional writs under Article 226 for the enforcement of Fundamental Rights as well as for any other ordinary legal right.

Answer

The correct statements are: (1) The power of judicial review vested in High Courts under Article 226 and the Supreme Court under Article 32 forms part of the basic structure of the Constitution; and (2) High Courts can issue writs under Article 226 for fundamental rights as well as for any other legal purpose.
The principle that judicial review under Articles 32 and 226 forms part of the basic structure was established in L. Chandra Kumar v. Union of India (1997). Furthermore, Article 226 explicitly allows High Courts to issue writs for fundamental rights as well as 'for any other purpose', making both statements accurate.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Evaluate the basic structure status of Judicial Review
Confirm that the Supreme Court's judgment in L. Chandra Kumar (1997) held judicial review under Articles 32 and 226/227 to be an unalterable basic structure component.
Judicial review ensures constitutional checks and balances across legislative and executive actions.
2
Analyze the legal nature of Advisory Jurisdiction under Article 143
Determine that Article 143 advisory opinions are non-binding recommendations provided to the President.
Precedential binding effect under Article 141 applies to judicial decisions resolving actual litigation, not advisory consultative opinions.
3
Examine the scope of High Court Writ Jurisdiction under Article 226
Verify that Article 226 contains the phrase 'for any other purpose', granting High Courts wider remedial jurisdiction than Article 32.
Article 32 is strictly limited to Fundamental Rights, whereas Article 226 encompasses ordinary legal and statutory rights.
4
Examine the power of Executive Officers regarding judicial writs
Identify that Governors exercise executive and legislative ordinance powers (Article 213), but have no jurisdiction to issue judicial writs.
Writ powers are exclusively vested in the higher judicial organs of the state.

Key Concept

Constitutional Jurisdiction and Basic Structure Doctrine of Higher Judiciary
Question 2379Question →

Human renal physiology involves precise filtration, reabsorption, and hormonal regulation to maintain fluid and electrolyte homeostasis. Which of the following statements regarding renal function and associated metabolic disorders are correct?

Select all that apply

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Atrial Natriuretic Factor (ANF) acts as a antagonist to the renin-angiotensin mechanism by causing vasodilation and reducing blood pressure.; The descending limb of the Loop of Henle is permeable to water but almost impermeable to electrolytes, concentrating the filtrate as it moves toward the renal medulla.

Answer

The correct statements are that Atrial Natriuretic Factor (ANF) acts as an antagonist to the renin-angiotensin mechanism to lower blood pressure, and that the descending limb of Henle's loop is permeable to water while remaining impermeable to electrolytes.
Atrial Natriuretic Factor antagonizes renin-angiotensin pathways to lower blood pressure, and the descending limb of Henle's loop allows passive reabsorption of water while remaining impermeable to electrolytes. Both reflect accurate human renal physiological mechanisms.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the endocrine regulation of renal hemodynamic pressure.
Atrial Natriuretic Factor (ANF) is secreted during elevated atrial stretch, inducing vasodilation and natriuresis, directly opposing the vasoconstrictive and sodium-retaining actions of the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system.
This confirms that ANF functions as a physiological counter-regulatory hormonal brake.
2
Differentiate between Diabetes Mellitus and Diabetes Insipidus etiology.
Diabetes insipidus involves impaired production or action of Antidiuretic Hormone (ADH), resulting in polyuria without glucose loss, whereas insulin dysregulation causes Diabetes mellitus.
This identifies the statement linking insulin hyposecretion to Diabetes insipidus as incorrect.
3
Evaluate Henle's loop counter-current mechanism permeability rules.
The descending limb is thin and selectively permeable to water via aquaporins while restricting ions, concentrating fluid as it descends deeper into the renal medulla.
This verifies the physiological description of descending limb permeability.
4
Examine the origin and site of action of Aldosterone.
Aldosterone is synthesized in the adrenal cortex (zona glomerulosa) and functions at distal nephron segments (DCT and collecting ducts), not the adrenal medulla or proximal tubule.
This refutes the statement regarding Aldosterone's anatomical origin and target tubules.

Key Concept

Renal Osmoregulation, Counter-current Physiology, and Endocrine Control
Question 2380Question →

Match the common chemical compounds in List-I with their corresponding daily life or industrial applications in List-II:

Click a left item, then click its matching right item

Items

Sodium Bicarbonate (NaHCO3NaHCO_3)
Sodium Carbonate (Na2CO3Na_2CO_3)
Calcium Sulphate Hemihydrate (CaSO4⋅12H2OCaSO_4 \cdot \frac{1}{2}H_2O)
Calcium Oxychloride (CaOCl2CaOCl_2)

Matches

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Answer

Sodium Bicarbonate matches with Antacid and leavening agent in baking; Sodium Carbonate matches with Softening hard water and glass manufacturing; Calcium Sulphate Hemihydrate matches with Setting fractured bones and making moulds; Calcium Oxychloride matches with Disinfectant for drinking water and bleaching agent.
Each compound is correctly matched based on its chemical identity and primary application: Sodium Bicarbonate is used as an antacid and baking agent, Sodium Carbonate softens hard water and aids glass production, Calcium Sulphate Hemihydrate (Plaster of Paris) sets fractured bones, and Calcium Oxychloride (Bleaching Powder) disinfects drinking water.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the functional property of Sodium Bicarbonate (NaHCO3NaHCO_3).
Sodium Bicarbonate is commonly known as Baking Soda, used as an antacid and leavening agent.
It reacts with acids to produce carbon dioxide gas and neutralizes gastric acidity.
2
Analyze the functional property of Sodium Carbonate (Na2CO3Na_2CO_3).
Sodium Carbonate is Washing Soda, used to remove permanent hardness of water and produce glass.
It forms insoluble carbonate precipitates with calcium and magnesium ions.
3
Analyze the application of Calcium Sulphate Hemihydrate (CaSO4⋅12H2OCaSO_4 \cdot \frac{1}{2}H_2O).
Calcium Sulphate Hemihydrate is Plaster of Paris, used for setting broken bones.
It hardens quickly upon mixing with water to form gypsum (CaSO4⋅2H2OCaSO_4 \cdot 2H_2O).
4
Analyze the application of Calcium Oxychloride (CaOCl2CaOCl_2).
Calcium Oxychloride is Bleaching Powder, used as a disinfectant and bleaching agent.
It acts as a source of active chlorine for germicidal water treatment.

Key Concept

Everyday and Industrial Applications of Household Chemical Compounds
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