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Question 2381Question →

Consider the following statements regarding the Minimum Support Price (MSP) cost estimation methodology used by the Commission for Agricultural Costs and Prices (CACP) and agricultural price support operational frameworks in India:

1. Cost $A2$ includes all direct cash and in-kind expenses incurred by the farmer on seeds, fertilizers, pesticides, hired labor, leased-in land rent, fuel, and irrigation.
2. Cost $A2+FL$ includes Cost $A2$ along with an imputed financial value of unpaid family labor.
3. Cost $C2$ is a comprehensive cost concept that adds imputed interest on owned capital assets and rental value of owned land to Cost $A2+FL$ .
4. Under the Price Deficiency Payment Scheme (PDPS) component of PM-AASHA, government procurement agencies physically procure oilseeds directly from registered farmers at Mandis whenever market prices fall below MSP.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1, 2, and 3 only

1 and 2 only

3 and 4 only

1, 2, 3, and 4

Show answer & explanation

Answer: 1, 2, and 3 only

Answer

1, 2, and 3 only

Statements 1, 2, and 3 are factually accurate definitions of CACP cost accounting. Cost

A2

captures all explicit out-of-pocket expenses incurred during cultivation. Cost

A2+FL

adds the imputed economic value of unpaid family labor to

A2

. Cost

C2

is the comprehensive economic cost that incorporates imputed rent on owned land and imputed interest on fixed capital assets alongside

A2+FL

. Statement 4 is incorrect because the Price Deficiency Payment Scheme (PDPS) component of PM-AASHA does NOT involve physical procurement of oilseeds; instead, it pays farmers the direct monetary difference between the MSP and the modal market price.

Step-by-Step Solution

Analyze Statements 1, 2, and 3 regarding CACP cost structures.

Cost

A2

covers paid-out direct costs (seeds, fertilizer, hired labor, fuel, leased-in land rent). Cost

A2+FL

adds imputed family labor to

A2

. Cost

C2

includes

A2+FL

plus imputed interest on owned capital assets and rental value of owned land. Thus, statements 1, 2, and 3 are correct.

Understanding the precise economic cost definitions is essential to evaluating MSP benchmark formulas (

A2+FL

C2

Evaluate Statement 4 regarding the Price Deficiency Payment Scheme (PDPS) under PM-AASHA.

Under PDPS (modeled after Madhya Pradesh's Bhavantar Bhugtan Yojana), registered farmers receive direct cash transfers covering the difference between the MSP and the modal market price when oilseeds are sold in notified markets. No physical procurement of oilseeds is conducted by the government under PDPS.

Physical procurement of oilseeds is conducted under the Physical Procurement Scheme (PSS), not PDPS.

Synthesize correct statements.

Statements 1, 2, and 3 are correct, while statement 4 is incorrect.

Matching evaluated statements to the corresponding option yields the final answer.

Key Concept

CACP MSP Cost Accounting Concepts (A2, A2+FL, C2) and PM-AASHA Sub-Schemes

Estimated Time:2m 0s

Question 2382Question →

Arrange the following political and constitutional events leading to the transfer of power in India in correct chronological order, from the earliest to the latest:

Drag items to arrange them in the correct order

Show answer & explanation

Answer

The correct chronological sequence of events is: Gandhi-Jinnah talks on the C.R. Formula (September 1944), Convening of the Simla Conference (June 1945), Swearing-in of the Interim Government (September 1946), and Clement Attlee's announcement on British withdrawal (February 1947).

The correct chronological order begins with the Gandhi-Jinnah talks in September 1944, followed by the Simla Conference on the Wavell Plan in June 1945, the formation of the Interim Government under Jawaharlal Nehru in September 1946, and finally Clement Attlee's withdrawal declaration in February 1947.

Step-by-Step Solution

Determine the exact historical date/period for each milestone.

Gandhi-Jinnah talks took place in September 1944. The Simla Conference was convened in June 1945. The Interim Government was sworn in on September 2, 1946. Prime Minister Clement Attlee issued his statement on February 20, 1947.

Accurate dating of constitutional initiatives is required to sequence transfer of power events correctly.

Sort the milestone dates chronologically from past to present.

September 1944 → June 1945 → September 1946 → February 1947.

This establishes the exact historical progression of events between 1944 and 1947.

Key Concept

Chronology of Constitutional Negotiations and Transfer of Power Milestones (1944–1947)

Question 2383Question →

In the context of post-independence land reforms in India, which of the following measures was implemented first to eliminate feudal tenure systems?

Abolition of intermediaries (such as Zamindars, Jagirdars, and Inamdars)

Imposition of ceiling limits on land holdings

Nationwide mandatory consolidation of fragmented holdings

Compulsory collectivization of small farmland into state farms

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Abolition of intermediaries (such as Zamindars, Jagirdars, and Inamdars)

Answer

Abolition of intermediaries (such as Zamindars, Jagirdars, and Inamdars)

Immediately after independence, the abolition of intermediaries was prioritized as the foundational land reform measure in India. State legislations passed during the early 1950s brought nearly 20 million cultivators into direct contact with the government, giving them ownership rights over the land they tilled.

Step-by-Step Solution

Identify the primary structural reform undertaken immediately following Indian independence.

The immediate target of agricultural reform was eliminating the parasitic layer of feudal landlords between the state and actual tillers.

Intermediary systems like Zamindari led to heavy rack-renting and agricultural stagnation.

Verify the chronological order of land reform phases in India.

Phase 1 (1950s) achieved the abolition of intermediaries; Phase 2 (1960s-1970s) focused on tenancy regulation and land ceiling laws; Phase 3 focused on land records and consolidation.

Zamindari Abolition Acts were passed by various state legislatures right after the Constitution came into force.

Key Concept

Phases of Post-Independence Land Reforms in India

Question 2384Question →

Under the constitutional framework of the Union Executive, Article 74 of the Constitution of India governs the relationship between the President and the Council of Ministers. Which of the following statements correctly describes the constitutional position regarding the advice tendered by the Union Council of Ministers to the President?

The question whether any advice, and if so what advice, was tendered by Ministers to the President shall not be inquired into in any court of law.

The advice tendered by Ministers to the President is subject to mandatory judicial review by the Supreme Court under Article 32.

The President has absolute constitutional discretion to reject the tendered advice without requesting the Council of Ministers to reconsider it.

High Courts possess constitutional authority under Article 226 to compel the disclosure of Cabinet advice when reviewing executive decisions.

Show answer & explanation

Answer: The question whether any advice, and if so what advice, was tendered by Ministers to the President shall not be inquired into in any court of law.

Answer

The statement specifying that the question whether any advice, and if so what advice, was tendered by Ministers to the President shall not be inquired into in any court of law is correct.

Article 74(2) of the Constitution of India provides total judicial immunity to the advice tendered by Ministers to the President. It explicitly dictates that no court of law can inquire into whether any advice was given, or what the contents of such advice were.

Step-by-Step Solution

Analyze Article 74(1) and Article 74(2) of the Constitution of India.

Article 74(1) establishes that there shall be a Council of Ministers with the Prime Minister at the head to aid and advise the President, who shall act in accordance with such advice.

This establishes the parliamentary executive system where the formal head of state acts on the advice of the elected cabinet.

Examine the judicial non-justiciability rule under Article 74(2).

Article 74(2) lays down an absolute constitutional prohibition stating: 'The question whether any, and if so what, advice was tendered by Ministers to the President shall not be inquired into in any court.'

This provision safeguards Cabinet confidentiality and protects executive decision-making processes from judicial scrutiny, though underlying material supporting decisions may be subject to review under administrative law principles.

Key Concept

Non-justiciability of Ministerial Advice under Article 74(2)

Estimated Time:1m 0s

Question 2385Question →

When the Reserve Bank of India increases the Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR) for commercial banks, which of the following is the immediate effect on the banking system?

The lendable resources available with commercial banks for credit expansion decrease.

The cash reserves that commercial banks are required to maintain directly with the Reserve Bank of India increase.

The money multiplier in the banking system increases, boosting overall credit creation.

The overall market interest rates automatically decline due to excess liquidity in commercial banks.

Show answer & explanation

Answer: The lendable resources available with commercial banks for credit expansion decrease.

Answer

The lendable resources available with commercial banks for credit expansion decrease.

Raising the Statutory Liquidity Ratio obligates commercial banks to hold a greater portion of their Net Demand and Time Liabilities in approved liquid assets (primarily Government Securities). Because more capital is locked into these specified assets, the amount of cash remaining for commercial lending and credit creation directly contracts.

Step-by-Step Solution

Define Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR)

SLR is the mandatory percentage of Net Demand and Time Liabilities (NDTL) that commercial banks must maintain in liquid assets (such as government securities, gold, or unencumbered cash).

Understanding the definition helps determine where the money goes when SLR changes.

Analyze the impact of increasing SLR on bank funds

When RBI raises the SLR, banks must invest a higher proportion of their deposits into eligible liquid assets.

Higher mandatory investments reduce the residual funds that can be deployed as loans and advances.

Conclude liquidity impact

Lendable resources contract, reducing bank credit expansion in the economy.

Fewer unencumbered funds are available for commercial lending.

Key Concept

Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR) and Bank Liquidity Transmission

Estimated Time:1m 0s

Question 2386Question →

Consider the following statements regarding common human communicable diseases:

1. Typhoid fever is a bacterial infection caused by *Salmonella typhi*, primarily spread through contaminated food and water.
2. Ringworm is a contagious dermatological condition caused by a protozoan parasite.
3. Hepatitis B is a viral infection targeting the liver, primarily transmitted through exposure to infective blood and body fluids.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1 and 3 only

1 only

2 and 3 only

1, 2 and 3

Show answer & explanation

Answer: 1 and 3 only

Answer

Statements 1 and 3 are correct.

Statements 1 and 3 are accurate. Typhoid fever is a bacterial disease caused by *Salmonella typhi* spread via contaminated water/food. Hepatitis B is a viral disease caused by HBV transmitted through contact with infected blood or body fluids. Statement 2 is incorrect because Ringworm is caused by dermatophytic fungi (such as *Trichophyton*), not by a protozoan parasite.

Step-by-Step Solution

Evaluate Statement 1 regarding Typhoid fever etiology and transmission.

Statement 1 is correct.

Typhoid fever is a systemic bacterial infection caused by Salmonella enterica serotype Typhi (*Salmonella typhi*), transmitted via the fecal-oral route through contaminated water and food.

Evaluate Statement 2 regarding Ringworm pathogen type.

Statement 2 is incorrect.

Ringworm (tinea) is a fungal skin infection caused by dermatophyte fungi such as *Trichophyton*, *Microsporum*, or *Epidermophyton*, not a protozoan parasite.

Evaluate Statement 3 regarding Hepatitis B infection.

Statement 3 is correct.

Hepatitis B is an infectious liver disease caused by the Hepatitis B virus (HBV), transmitted through percutaneous or mucosal exposure to infectious blood or body fluids.

Key Concept

Classification of human infectious diseases based on causative pathogens (Bacterial, Fungal, Viral, Protozoan)

Question 2387Question →

Which of the following represents the three core pillars of the 'Sevottam' model created by the Department of Administrative Reforms and Public Grievances (DARPG) for evaluating and improving the quality of public service delivery in India?

Implementation of Citizen's Charters, Public Grievance Redress Mechanism, and Service Delivery Capability

Mandatory Right to Information disclosure, Conduct of Social Audits, and E-Governance Infrastructure

Enforcement of Whistleblower Protection, Decentralized District Planning, and Civil Services Ombudsman Supervision

Judicial Writ Jurisdiction, Public Interest Litigation handling, and Constitutional Audit Review

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Implementation of Citizen's Charters, Public Grievance Redress Mechanism, and Service Delivery Capability

Answer

Implementation of Citizen's Charters, Public Grievance Redress Mechanism, and Service Delivery Capability

The Sevottam framework consists of three mandatory modules: (1) Implementation of Citizen's Charters to publicly disclose commitments on standards of service delivery, (2) Public Grievance Redress Mechanism to ensure timely and effective resolution of public grievances, and (3) Service Delivery Capability to systematically enhance the administrative infrastructure and human resources needed to deliver services efficiently.

Step-by-Step Solution

Identify the origin and objectives of the Sevottam assessment model

Sevottam was created in 2006 by the Department of Administrative Reforms and Public Grievances (DARPG) as a benchmark framework for public service organizations to achieve excellence in service delivery.

Understanding the model's design intent helps isolate its specific structural components.

Analyze the three core modules of the framework

Sevottam is structured around three key pillars: Pillar 1 focuses on Citizen's Charters (setting clear standards for public services), Pillar 2 focuses on Public Grievance Redress (establishing an effective mechanism for resolving complaints), and Pillar 3 focuses on Service Delivery Capability (building internal administrative capacity, infrastructure, and employee motivation).

These three pillars systematically address service commitments, feedback loops, and internal enabling conditions.

Key Concept

Sevottam Model for Public Service Delivery and Citizen Charters

Question 2388Question →

Which of the following statements correctly describe the physics principles governing everyday light and optical phenomena?

Select all that apply

The formation of a primary rainbow involves a combination of refraction, internal reflection, and dispersion of sunlight within falling raindrops.

The shimmering illusion of water on a hot desert road (mirage) is caused by the diffraction of light waves passing through air layers of uniform density.

An optical fiber transmits light signals over long distances with minimal signal loss primarily through continuous total internal reflection.

The deep blue appearance of a clear daytime sky is primarily due to total internal reflection of sunlight off microscopic water droplets in the upper atmosphere.

Show answer & explanation

Answer: The formation of a primary rainbow involves a combination of refraction, internal reflection, and dispersion of sunlight within falling raindrops.; An optical fiber transmits light signals over long distances with minimal signal loss primarily through continuous total internal reflection.

Answer

The correct statements are those identifying that rainbow formation involves refraction, internal reflection, and dispersion within raindrops, and that optical fibers transmit light via continuous total internal reflection.

Rainbow formation accurately combines refraction, dispersion, and internal reflection inside water droplets. Optical fibers operate on the principle of total internal reflection, keeping light guided within the high-index core over long distances.

Step-by-Step Solution

Evaluate the mechanism of rainbow formation

Sunlight refracts upon entering a raindrop, separates into component colors (dispersion), reflects internally from the back surface, and refracts again upon leaving the droplet. Thus, the statement regarding rainbow formation is correct.

Raindrops act as natural prisms and spherical mirrors combining refraction, reflection, and dispersion.

Evaluate the mechanism of mirage formation

Sunlight traveling through hot air near the ground bends continuously due to varying refractive indices (refraction) until it undergoes total internal reflection toward the observer's eye, creating an inverted image that resembles water. Attributing this to diffraction in uniform air is incorrect.

Diffraction involves bending around obstacles, whereas mirages depend on density gradients and refraction/reflection.

Evaluate light propagation in optical fibers

Optical fibers consist of a high-refractive-index core surrounded by lower-index cladding. Light signals strike the core-cladding boundary at angles exceeding the critical angle, causing continuous total internal reflection. Thus, this statement is correct.

Total internal reflection traps light within the fiber core with negligible intensity loss.

Evaluate the cause of the blue sky

Molecules of nitrogen and oxygen in the atmosphere scatter shorter wavelengths (blue light) much more effectively than longer wavelengths (red light), a phenomenon known as Rayleigh scattering. Attributing the blue sky to total internal reflection off water droplets is incorrect.

Scattering intensity is inversely proportional to the fourth power of wavelength (

I \propto 1/\lambda^4

Key Concept

Everyday Applications of Optical Phenomena (Refraction, Dispersion, Rayleigh Scattering, and Total Internal Reflection)

Question 2389Question →

Consider the following statements regarding the Suresh Tendulkar Committee (2009) methodology for estimating poverty in India:

1. It shifted the poverty estimation framework away from anchoring poverty lines strictly to explicit calorie intake norms.
2. It recommended separate, distinct poverty line commodity baskets for rural and urban areas.
3. It moved from the Uniform Reference Period (URP) to the Mixed Reference Period (MRP) for measuring household consumption expenditure.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1 and 3 only

1 and 2 only

2 and 3 only

1, 2 and 3

Show answer & explanation

Answer: 1 and 3 only

Answer

The statements stating that the Tendulkar Committee moved away from calorie norms (Statement 1) and adopted the Mixed Reference Period (Statement 3) are correct, while the statement claiming separate commodity baskets were used (Statement 2) is incorrect. Therefore, '1 and 3 only' is the correct response.

Statements 1 and 3 are factually accurate regarding the Suresh Tendulkar Committee (2009). The committee moved away from fixed calorie intake benchmarks and shifted from Uniform Reference Period (URP) to Mixed Reference Period (MRP). Statement 2 is incorrect because the committee recommended a single, uniform national urban poverty line basket applicable to both rural and urban areas (adjusted regionally for local price levels).

Step-by-Step Solution

Evaluate Statement 1 regarding calorie intake norms

Statement 1 is correct.

Prior to 2009 (under the Lakdawala methodology), poverty lines were anchored to 2400 kcal/day (rural) and 2100 kcal/day (urban). The Suresh Tendulkar Committee discontinued this explicit calorie-anchored benchmark due to changing nutritional patterns.

Evaluate Statement 2 regarding rural and urban commodity baskets

Statement 2 is incorrect.

The Tendulkar Committee recommended a uniform Poverty Line Basket (PLB) across both rural and urban India based on the urban consumption specifications, rather than maintaining separate commodity baskets.

Evaluate Statement 3 regarding reference periods for NSSO consumption expenditure

Statement 3 is correct.

The committee shifted from the 30-day Uniform Reference Period (URP) to the Mixed Reference Period (MRP), which captures low-frequency expenditure items (such as clothing, footwear, education, and health) over a 365-day recall period.

Key Concept

Methodology of the Suresh Tendulkar Committee (2009) on Poverty Estimation

Question 2390Question →

Match the agricultural marketing, procurement, and financial institutions in List-I with their primary objective or statutory mandate in List-II:

Click a left item, then click its matching right item

Show answer & explanation

Answer

The Commission for Agricultural Costs and Prices (CACP) formulates MSP and FRP recommendations based on cost structures. The National Agricultural Cooperative Marketing Federation of India (NAFED) acts as the central procurement agency for oilseeds, pulses, and copra under the Price Support Scheme. The Small Farmers Agribusiness Consortium (SFAC) is the lead agency implementing e-NAM. The Warehousing Development and Regulatory Authority (WDRA) regulates the negotiable warehouse receipt system.

Each institution matches its precise statutory or policy mandate: CACP advises on price policy formulation (MSP/FRP); NAFED executes price support operations for pulses and oilseeds; SFAC manages the digital agricultural marketing infrastructure (e-NAM); and WDRA regulates the negotiable warehouse receipt mechanism to improve post-harvest credit flow.

Step-by-Step Solution

Analyze the core mandate of the Commission for Agricultural Costs and Prices (CACP).

CACP is an advisory body that calculates farm production costs (A2, A2+FL, C2) and recommends MSPs for 22 mandated crops as well as FRP for sugarcane.

Distinguishing recommendatory bodies from operational procurement agencies is essential for assessing agricultural price support architecture.

Analyze the operational role of NAFED in agricultural commodity markets.

NAFED executes price support procurement operations specifically for non-foodgrain commercial crops like pulses and oilseeds.

While the Food Corporation of India (FCI) handles wheat and paddy procurement, NAFED handles pulse and oilseed market intervention.

Identify the institutional manager of the e-NAM platform.

SFAC is mandated to deploy software, onboard APMCs, and manage trading operations on e-NAM.

SFAC acts as the specialized financial and managerial agency promoting agribusiness integration.

Determine the regulatory authority overseeing post-harvest warehousing credit.

WDRA implements the statutory provisions of the Warehousing (Development and Regulation) Act, 2007 for negotiable warehouse receipts.

NWRs enable farmers to pledge stored produce to commercial banks for liquidity, mitigating distress sales.

Key Concept

Institutional Architecture of Agricultural Pricing, Procurement, and Market Infrastructure in India

Question 2391Question →

Sodium bicarbonate is a chemical compound widely used in household baking, fire extinguishers, and antacids. Which of the following chemical formulas correctly represents sodium bicarbonate?

\text{NaHCO}_3

\text{Na}_2\text{CO}_3 \cdot 10\text{H}_2\text{O}

\text{NaOH}

\text{CaOCl}_2

Show answer & explanation

Answer: $\text{NaHCO}_3$

Answer

The chemical formula representing sodium bicarbonate (baking soda) is

\text{NaHCO}_3

The chemical formula

\text{NaHCO}_3

represents sodium bicarbonate (also called sodium hydrogen carbonate), commonly known as baking soda.

Step-by-Step Solution

Identify the chemical name and constituent ions

Sodium bicarbonate is composed of sodium ions (

\text{Na}^+

) and hydrogen carbonate/bicarbonate ions (

\text{HCO}_3^-

Chemical names directly correspond to the constituent cations and anions.

Combine the ions to write the neutral chemical formula

Combining

\text{Na}^+

and

\text{HCO}_3^-

gives

\text{NaHCO}_3

The charges

+1

and

-1

balance directly in a 1:1 ratio.

Key Concept

Chemical Nomenclature and Daily Life Applications of Sodium Compounds

Question 2392Question →

The constitutional framework of India equips both the Supreme Court and High Courts with the authority to issue writs, yet their scope and constitutional nature differ. Which of the following statements correctly highlights a fundamental distinction between the writ jurisdiction of the Supreme Court under Article 32 and that of a High Court under Article 226?

A High Court can issue writs for the enforcement of Fundamental Rights as well as for any ordinary legal right, whereas the Supreme Court under Article 32 issues writs specifically for the enforcement of Fundamental Rights.

The Supreme Court may refuse to exercise its writ jurisdiction under Article 32 if an adequate alternative legal remedy exists, whereas a High Court under Article 226 is constitutionally obligated to entertain every petition.

The territorial jurisdiction of a High Court for issuing writs automatically extends throughout the entire territory of India, whereas the Supreme Court's writ jurisdiction is restricted to the specific state in which it sits.

Article 32 is a statutory provision created by an Act of Parliament, while Article 226 is a Fundamental Right enshrined within Part III of the Constitution.

Show answer & explanation

Answer: A High Court can issue writs for the enforcement of Fundamental Rights as well as for any ordinary legal right, whereas the Supreme Court under Article 32 issues writs specifically for the enforcement of Fundamental Rights.

Answer

The correct statement accurately captures the subject-matter distinction between the two constitutional remedies. Under Article 32, the Supreme Court can issue writs solely for enforcing Fundamental Rights guaranteed under Part III. In contrast, Article 226 explicitly authorizes High Courts to issue writs for Fundamental Rights as well as 'for any other purpose'—meaning the enforcement of ordinary statutory and legal rights.

Step-by-Step Solution

Analyze the subject-matter scope of Article 32 and Article 226.

Article 32 allows writ issuance specifically for Part III rights (Fundamental Rights). Article 226 adds the phrase 'and for any other purpose', extending High Court writ powers to legal rights beyond Fundamental Rights.

This establishes that the High Court's writ jurisdiction has a wider subject-matter scope than that of the Supreme Court under Article 32.

Evaluate the constitutional nature of the remedy under both articles.

Article 32 is itself a Fundamental Right, making the Supreme Court's jurisdiction non-discretionary for Fundamental Right violations. Article 226 is a constitutional remedy in Part VI, making High Court jurisdiction discretionary.

This helps rule out statements suggesting the Supreme Court can refuse Article 32 relief due to alternative legal remedies.

Key Concept

Distinction between Supreme Court (Article 32) and High Court (Article 226) Writ Jurisdiction

Estimated Time:1m 15s

Question 2393Question →

With reference to everyday chemical compounds and their industrial applications, consider the following statements:

1. Bleaching powder ( $CaOCl_2$ ) acts as a strong oxidizing agent and liberates chlorine gas when reacting with atmospheric carbon dioxide.
2. Baking soda ( $NaHCO_3$ ) decomposes thermally during cooking to produce oxygen gas, which causes dough to expand and rise.
3. Plaster of Paris ( $CaSO_4 \cdot \frac{1}{2}H_2O$ ) is manufactured by heating gypsum at $373\text{ K}$ , and sets into a hard solid mass of gypsum upon addition of water.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1 and 2 only

2 and 3 only

1 and 3 only

1, 2 and 3

Show answer & explanation

Answer: 1 and 3 only

Answer

Statements 1 and 3 only are correct.

The correct response identifies statements 1 and 3 as true while recognizing statement 2 as false. Bleaching powder (

CaOCl_2

) reacts with atmospheric

CO_2

to release chlorine gas, acting as a strong oxidant. Plaster of Paris is produced by controlled heating of gypsum at

373\text{ K}

and hardens back into gypsum upon hydration. Baking soda releases carbon dioxide gas upon heating, not oxygen.

Step-by-Step Solution

Analyze Statement 1 regarding bleaching powder (

CaOCl_2

Bleaching powder acts as a bleaching and oxidizing agent in various chemical industries. When exposed to atmospheric carbon dioxide, it reacts according to

CaOCl_2 + CO_2 \rightarrow CaCO_3 + Cl_2 \uparrow

, releasing chlorine gas.

This confirms statement 1 is scientifically accurate.

Analyze Statement 2 regarding baking soda (

NaHCO_3

When heated during cooking, sodium hydrogen carbonate undergoes thermal decomposition:

2 NaHCO_3 \xrightarrow{\Delta} Na_2CO_3 + H_2O + CO_2 \uparrow

. The evolved gas is carbon dioxide (

CO_2

), not oxygen (

O_2

Carbon dioxide bubbles trap in the dough, causing bread/cakes to rise and become soft and spongy. Therefore, statement 2 is incorrect.

Analyze Statement 3 regarding Plaster of Paris (

CaSO_4 \cdot \frac{1}{2}H_2O

Gypsum (

CaSO_4 \cdot 2H_2O

) loses three-fourths of its crystallization water when heated carefully at

373\text{ K}

(

100^\circ\text{C}

) to form calcium sulfate hemihydrate (Plaster of Paris). When mixed with water, it rehydrates to form hard crystalline gypsum.

This confirms statement 3 is scientifically accurate.

Key Concept

Chemical formulas, preparation methods, and everyday reactions of industrial salts (Bleaching powder, Baking soda, and Plaster of Paris).

Estimated Time:1m 30s

Question 2394Question →

Consider the following statements regarding the structural accounting of India's Balance of Payments (BoP):

1. Profit earned by a foreign entity in India and repatriated to its parent company abroad is recorded as a debit entry under the Current Account.
2. Foreign Institutional Investor (FII) equity inflows into Indian stock markets are classified under the Current Account as invisible transfer receipts.
3. Interest payments made by an Indian enterprise on External Commercial Borrowings (ECB) are recorded under the Capital Account.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1 only

1 and 2 only

2 and 3 only

1, 2, and 3

Show answer & explanation

Answer: 1 only

Answer

1 only

Statement 1 is the only correct statement. Repatriation of profits by foreign corporations operating within India constitutes an outflow of primary investment income, which is categorized under the invisibles section of the Current Account as a debit. Statement 2 is incorrect because Portfolio Investment (FII) creates a claim on domestic financial assets and is recorded under the Capital Account. Statement 3 is incorrect because interest paid to service foreign loans (ECB) is classified as an investment income debit under the Current Account, whereas only the principal borrowed or repaid is logged in the Capital Account.

Step-by-Step Solution

Analyze Statement 1 regarding repatriated profits.

Repatriated profits are part of investment income (primary income account under invisibles) in the Current Account. Since money goes out of India, it is recorded as a debit entry under the Current Account. Statement 1 is correct.

Income earned on foreign investments (dividends, profit, interest) is serviced through the Current Account.

Analyze Statement 2 regarding FII equity inflows.

Foreign Institutional Investor (FII) flows reflect cross-border asset purchase (portfolio investment), which creates a financial liability. Thus, FII inflows are recorded under foreign investment in the Capital Account, not the Current Account. Statement 2 is incorrect.

Portfolio investments alter the financial asset/liability position of the country.

Analyze Statement 3 regarding interest paid on External Commercial Borrowings (ECB).

While the principal loan amount of ECBs is recorded under the Capital Account, the servicing of debt (interest payments) is an income outflow recorded under investment income in the Current Account. Statement 3 is incorrect.

Debt principal flows affect capital liabilities (Capital Account), whereas interest servicing is an income transaction (Current Account).

Key Concept

Balance of Payments Accounting: Distinguishing Current Account Income Flows from Capital Account Asset Transactions

Question 2395Question →

Regarding the architectural characteristics of Hoysala temples constructed in southern Karnataka between the 11th and 14th centuries, evaluate the following statements:

1. Chloritic schist (soft soapstone) was used as the primary building material, enabling sculptors to execute intricate, high-relief carvings.
2. The ground plan of the shrines is typically stellate (star-shaped), built upon a raised platform known as a jagati.
3. The temple superstructure strictly features a curvilinear Nagara latina spire crowned with a large monolithic amalaka.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1 and 2 only

2 and 3 only

1 and 3 only

1, 2, and 3

Show answer & explanation

Answer: 1 and 2 only

Answer

The correct response is the option stating that statements 1 and 2 only are correct.

The statements confirming the use of chloritic schist (soapstone) and the stellate ground plan mounted on a raised jagati are factually accurate characteristics of Hoysala temples. The statement describing a curvilinear Nagara latina spire with an amalaka is incorrect because Hoysala towers are Vesara/Dravida hybrid stepped pyramids.

Step-by-Step Solution

Analyze Statement 1 regarding building material.

Statement 1 is correct. Hoysala artisans shifted from granite to soft soapstone (chloritic schist), which permitted exceptionally detailed scrollwork, jewelry carving, and narrative panels on temple walls.

Soapstone is soft when quarried and hardens upon exposure to air, making it ideal for micro-sculpting.

Analyze Statement 2 regarding plan layout and platform.

Statement 2 is correct. Shrines at sites like Belur, Halebidu, and Somanathapura feature star-shaped (stellate) layouts set atop a high raised terrace called a jagati, which serves as a circumambulatory path (pradakshinapatha).

The stellate plan maximizes wall surface area for decorative relief panels.

Analyze Statement 3 regarding superstructure style.

Statement 3 is incorrect. Hoysala architecture is a prominent manifestation of the Vesara style (a fusion of Dravida horizontal tiers and Nagara profile elements), characterized by stepped pyramidal towers with kalasa finials rather than pure curvilinear Nagara latina spires with monolithic amalakas.

Curvilinear latina spires with prominent crowning amalakas are characteristic of northern Nagara styles (e.g., Kalinga or Solanki architecture).

Key Concept

Hoysala Temple Architectural Features (Vesara style, chloritic schist material, stellate plan, and raised jagati)

Estimated Time:1m 0s

Question 2396Question →

In the study of Indian human settlements and rural morphology, social stratification and spatial segregation sometimes force certain sections of a village community to reside on the outer flanks of a main village cluster. Which of the following rural settlement types in India is primarily characterized by this spatial pattern and is widespread across the Gujarat plains and parts of Rajasthan?

Semi-clustered settlements

Hamleted settlements

Clustered settlements

Dispersed settlements

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Semi-clustered settlements

Answer

Semi-clustered settlements

Semi-clustered (or fragmented) settlements result from the tendency of clustering within a restricted area or from the forced segregation of a large compact village. In this pattern, the dominant land-owning community occupies the central core of the main village, while weaker sections and manual laborers settle on the outer flanks. This settlement type is widely observed in the Gujarat plains and parts of Rajasthan.

Step-by-Step Solution

Analyze the spatial and social characteristics described in the question stem.

The scenario describes a spatial pattern arising from social segregation within a compact village, leading to Peripheral settlement of lower strata around a main cluster.

NCERT and standard geographic classification of Indian rural settlements specifically define this morphology as semi-clustered or fragmented settlements.

Correlate the settlement type with its geographical distribution in India.

Semi-clustered settlements are predominantly located in the Gujarat plains and parts of Rajasthan.

Social factors combined with water constraints in semi-arid zones favor semi-clustering around a dominant core village.

Key Concept

Classification and Morphology of Rural Settlements in India

Question 2397Question →

Scrub Typhus is an acute febrile infectious disease of significant public health concern in several regions of India. Which of the following statements correctly identifies the causative pathogen and primary vector responsible for transmitting this disease to humans?

It is caused by the obligate intracellular bacterium Orientia tsutsugamushi and transmitted to humans by the larval stage of trombiculid mites.

It is caused by an arbovirus of the Flaviviridae family and transmitted to humans primarily through the bite of Culex tritaeniorhynchus mosquitoes.

It is caused by the protozoan parasite Leishmania donovani and transmitted to humans via the bite of infected Phlebotomus sandflies.

It is caused by the bacterium Salmonella enterica serovar Typhi and transmitted directly through feco-orally contaminated food and water.

Show answer & explanation

Answer: It is caused by the obligate intracellular bacterium Orientia tsutsugamushi and transmitted to humans by the larval stage of trombiculid mites.

Answer

Scrub Typhus is caused by the obligate intracellular bacterium Orientia tsutsugamushi and is transmitted to humans by the larval stage of trombiculid mites (chiggers).

Scrub Typhus is a zoonotic rickettsial infection caused by Orientia tsutsugamushi. The disease is transmitted to humans when larval trombiculid mites (chiggers), belonging mainly to the genus Leptotrombidium, bite humans while feeding. A characteristic black eschar often forms at the bite site.

Step-by-Step Solution

Identify the biological nature of the causative pathogen for Scrub Typhus

Orientia tsutsugamushi (formerly Rickettsia tsutsugamushi) is an obligate intracellular Gram-negative bacterium.

Establishing pathogen type differentiates bacterial rickettsial infections from viral and protozoan tropical diseases.

Identify the transmission vector and life cycle stage responsible for human infection

Human infection occurs via the bite of the larval stage ('chigger') of trombiculid mites (Leptotrombidium species).

Only the larval mites feed on tissue fluids of vertebrates; adult and nymphal mites live freely in the soil feeding on plant debris.

Distinguish Scrub Typhus etiology from other common endemic vector-borne diseases in India

Culex mosquitoes transmit Japanese Encephalitis virus; sandflies transmit Leishmania donovani; Salmonella Typhi spreads via contaminated water without a vector.

Systematically eliminates distractors presenting mismatched pathogen-vector pairs.

Key Concept

Disease Etiology and Vector Transmission of Scrub Typhus

Question 2398Question →

Arrange the following major Indian food security and agricultural support initiatives in chronological order of their launch or enactment, from the earliest to the most recent:

Drag items to arrange them in the correct order

Show answer & explanation

Answer

The correct chronological order from earliest to most recent is: Establishment of the Agricultural Prices Commission (1965), Introduction of the Targeted Public Distribution System (1997), Enactment of the National Food Security Act (2013), and Launch of PM-KISAN (2019).

The correct timeline begins with the Agricultural Prices Commission formed in 1965 to stabilize crop prices, followed by the Targeted Public Distribution System introduced in 1997 to focus subsidies, the National Food Security Act enacted in 2013 to grant legal entitlement to food, and the PM-KISAN scheme launched in 2019 for direct income transfer.

Step-by-Step Solution

Identify the historical year associated with each agricultural policy or program.

Agricultural Prices Commission (1965), TPDS (1997), NFSA (2013), PM-KISAN (2019).

Determining the correct year of establishment/launch is required to form a timeline.

Sequence the events from the earliest year to the latest year.

1965 -> 1997 -> 2013 -> 2019.

The question specifies ordering from earliest to most recent.

Key Concept

Timeline of key policy interventions in agricultural price support, food distribution, and income support in post-independence India.

Question 2399Question →

With reference to the Pradhan Mantri Suraksha Bima Yojana (PMSBY), a flagship micro-insurance initiative of the Government of India, evaluate the following statements:

1. It provides financial risk coverage of ₹2,00,000 in the event of accidental death or total permanent disability, and ₹1,00,000 for partial permanent disability.
2. The entry age criteria for eligible savings bank account holders under the scheme is between 18 and 50 years.
3. The annual premium of ₹20 per subscriber is automatically debited from the linked bank account in a single installment every year.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

Statement 1 and Statement 2 only

Statement 1 and Statement 3 only

Statement 2 and Statement 3 only

Statements 1, 2, and 3

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Statement 1 and Statement 3 only

Answer

Only Statement 1 and Statement 3 are correct.

Statements 1 and 3 are correct. PMSBY offers accidental death and permanent total disability insurance coverage of ₹2 lakh, and permanent partial disability coverage of ₹1 lakh. The annual premium is ₹20 per subscriber, auto-debited annually. Statement 2 is incorrect because PMSBY is accessible to individuals aged 18 to 70 years, whereas the 18 to 50 years bracket applies to PMJJBY.

Step-by-Step Solution

Analyze Statement 1 regarding risk coverage amounts under PMSBY.

Statement 1 is correct. PMSBY provides ₹2,00,000 for accidental death and permanent total disability, and ₹1,00,000 for permanent partial disability.

This corresponds exactly to the mandated benefit structure for accidental casualties under the scheme.

Analyze Statement 2 regarding subscriber age eligibility criteria.

Statement 2 is incorrect. The subscriber entry age range for PMSBY is 18 to 70 years.

The 18 to 50 years age threshold applies to life insurance under the Pradhan Mantri Jeevan Jyoti Bima Yojana (PMJJBY), not PMSBY.

Analyze Statement 3 regarding premium payment and auto-debit mechanism.

Statement 3 is correct. Subscriptions require an annual premium of ₹20 per member, auto-debited annually from the subscriber's bank account.

This auto-debit process maintains uninterrupted financial security for subscribers year-on-year.

Key Concept

Pradhan Mantri Suraksha Bima Yojana (PMSBY) Coverage and Eligibility Parameters

Question 2400Question →

During World War II, Viceroy Lord Linlithgow announced the 'August Offer' in 1940 to secure Indian political cooperation in the war effort. Which of the following statements correctly describes a key constitutional provision included in this offer?

It explicitly recognized for the first time that framing the future Constitution of India should be primarily the responsibility of Indians themselves.

It provided for immediate complete independence and the immediate withdrawal of British paramountcy over princely states.

It accepted the Muslim League's demand for the immediate territorial partition of India into two sovereign nations.

It completely abolished the Viceroy's Executive Council and transferred all executive power to a fully responsible Indian cabinet.

Show answer & explanation

Answer: It explicitly recognized for the first time that framing the future Constitution of India should be primarily the responsibility of Indians themselves.

Answer

The August Offer of 1940 explicitly recognized for the first time that framing the future Constitution of India should be primarily the responsibility of Indians themselves.

The August Offer issued by Lord Linlithgow in 1940 was a significant landmark because the British Government officially acknowledged for the first time that Indians themselves should have the primary responsibility for drafting their own Constitution after the conclusion of World War II. It also proposed Dominion Status as the ultimate goal for India.

Step-by-Step Solution

Analyze the historical context and purpose of the August Offer of 1940.

Viceroy Lord Linlithgow issued the offer in August 1940 to gain Indian support during World War II following the fall of France.

Understanding the British political motivations clarifies the extent of constitutional concessions made.

Evaluate the constitutional concessions contained within the August Offer.

The proposal stated that post-war constitutional development would involve setting up a representative constitution-making body, recognizing for the first time that constituent assembly creation was an Indian prerogative.

This proposal established Dominion Status as the objective and gave Indians the primary role in constitution framing.

Compare the correct feature against incorrect misattributions and chronological errors.

Provisions such as immediate independence, immediate partition, or complete transfer of executive authority belong to later measures (1947 Cabinet/Mountbatten plans and Indian Independence Act).

Distinguishing between 1940 concessions and 1947 independence terms isolates the correct option.

Key Concept

August Offer of 1940 Constitutional Provisions

Estimated Time:1m 15s

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