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Question 1761Question →

Match the Constitutional Provisions relating to the State Executive and Legislature in List-I with their corresponding Constitutional Limits and Procedural Mandates in List-II.

Click a left item, then click its matching right item

Items

Mandatory Reservation of State Bills for Presidential Assent
Promulgation of State Ordinances during Recess
Gubernatorial Pardoning Power under State Executive Competence
Introduction of Money Bills in the State Legislature

Matches

Show answer & explanation

Answer

Mandatory Reservation of State Bills matches with the second proviso to Article 200 regarding High Court powers; Promulgation of State Ordinances matches with Article 213 requiring Presidential instructions under specified conditions; Gubernatorial Pardoning Power matches with Article 161 for state executive jurisdiction; and Introduction of Money Bills matches with Article 207(1) requiring prior gubernatorial recommendation and assembly-only introduction.
Each item in List-I corresponds directly to its specific constitutional mandate and procedural limitation under Articles 200, 213, 161, and 207(1) of the Indian Constitution respectively.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the constitutional basis for state bill reservation
Identify that Article 200 contains a mandatory clause (second proviso) requiring reservation for Presidential assent specifically when the state law threatens High Court powers.
This is a key structural requirement maintaining judicial independence within federalism.
2
Examine the limitations on the Governor's ordinance-making power
Identify that Article 213 restricts gubernatorial ordinance power by requiring Presidential instructions if identical legislation would require Presidential sanction or reservation.
Prevents state executive bypass of constitutional checks requiring central approval.
3
Differentiate gubernatorial pardoning powers from presidential pardoning powers
Confirm that Article 161 applies to state executive competence and lacks the full death sentence pardon power reserved for the President under Article 72.
Clarifies the precise jurisdiction and limits of executive clemency at the state level.
4
Determine procedural rules for financial legislation in states
Establish that under Article 207(1) and Article 198, Money Bills require prior recommendation of the Governor and cannot originate in the Legislative Council.
Ensures financial legislative primacy remains with the directly elected house subject to executive oversight.

Key Concept

Constitutional Framework and Procedural Limitations of the State Executive and Legislature
Question 1762Question →

Match the 19th and 20th-century socio-religious reformers listed in List-I with their associated journals or publications listed in List-II:

Click a left item, then click its matching right item

Items

Kandukuri Veeresalingam
Gopal Hari Deshmukh ('Lokahitawadi')
Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar
E.V. Ramasamy (Periyar)

Matches

Show answer & explanation

Answer

Kandukuri Veeresalingam matches with Viveka Vardhini; Gopal Hari Deshmukh matches with Shatapatre; Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar matches with Som Prakash; and E.V. Ramasamy (Periyar) matches with Kudi Arasu.
Each socio-religious reformer is matched accurately with their historical publication: Kandukuri Veeresalingam founded 'Viveka Vardhini' (1874), Gopal Hari Deshmukh ('Lokahitawadi') authored the essay collection 'Shatapatre', Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar started 'Som Prakash' (1858), and E.V. Ramasamy (Periyar) established 'Kudi Arasu' (1925).

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the publication associated with the Andhra social reformer Kandukuri Veeresalingam.
Veeresalingam established 'Viveka Vardhini' in 1874 to advocate widow remarriage and social equality in southern India.
Pairs Kandukuri Veeresalingam with Viveka Vardhini.
2
Identify the famous literary contribution of Maharashtra reformer Gopal Hari Deshmukh.
Known as 'Lokahitawadi', Deshmukh wrote the 108 reformist essays called 'Shatapatre' in the weekly journal Prabhakar.
Pairs Gopal Hari Deshmukh with Shatapatre.
3
Identify the newspaper started under the guidance of Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar.
Vidyasagar launched 'Som Prakash' in 1858, which played a pivotal role in promoting social reforms in Bengal.
Pairs Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar with Som Prakash.
4
Identify the main journal founded by E.V. Ramasamy during the Self-Respect Movement.
Periyar founded 'Kudi Arasu' in 1925 to spread anti-caste, rationalist, and women's rights principles.
Pairs E.V. Ramasamy (Periyar) with Kudi Arasu.

Key Concept

Key socio-religious reformers of the 19th and 20th centuries and their associated reformist journals and publications.
Question 1763Question →

Arrange the following major events of the Gandhian Era in chronological order from the earliest to the latest:

Drag items to arrange them in the correct order

Show answer & explanation

Answer

The correct chronological order of the events is: Formal launch of the Non-Cooperation Movement (August 1920) → Chauri Chaura incident (February 1922) → Commencement of the Dandi Salt March (March 1930) → Signing of the Poona Pact (September 1932).
The historical sequence begins with the launch of the Non-Cooperation Movement in August 1920. The Chauri Chaura violent outbreak in February 1922 led to its suspension. Years later, Gandhi started the Dandi Salt March in March 1930, marking the Civil Disobedience Movement. Finally, following the Communal Award controversy, the Poona Pact was concluded in September 1932.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Determine the date of the formal launch of the Non-Cooperation Movement.
August 1, 1920.
This event launched Gandhi's mass non-violent resistance against British rule.
2
Determine the date of the Chauri Chaura incident.
February 5, 1922.
Violent clash in Gorakhpur district prompted Mahatma Gandhi to withdraw the Non-Cooperation Movement.
3
Determine the start date of the Dandi Salt March.
March 12, 1930.
Gandhi set out from Sabarmati Ashram towards Dandi to defy the British Salt Laws.
4
Determine the date of the Poona Pact.
September 24, 1932.
Agreed upon in Yerwada Central Jail following Gandhi's fast against the British Communal Award.

Key Concept

Chronology of Gandhian Mass Movements and Key Historical Milestones
Estimated Time:1m 0s
Question 1764Question →

Which of the following major coalfields in India is located in the Mahanadi River valley and accounts for one of the largest thermal coal reserves in the country?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Talcher coalfield

Answer

Talcher coalfield is located in the Mahanadi River valley.
The Talcher coalfield is situated in the Angul district of Odisha within the Mahanadi River basin. It holds vast reserves of non-coking thermal coal used extensively for power generation in eastern and southern India.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the geographical river valley associated with major Indian coalfields.
Gondwana coal reserves in India are primarily concentrated along major river valleys such as Damodar, Mahanadi, Son, and Godavari.
Geological formation of Gondwana coal deposits occurred along graben/trough structures of these river basins.
2
Map the specific coalfields to their respective river valleys.
Talcher is located in Odisha within the Mahanadi valley; Singrauli in the Son valley; Singareni in the Godavari valley; and Raniganj in the Damodar valley.
Matching the regional location with the correct drainage basin verifies the unique location of Talcher.

Key Concept

Distribution of Gondwana Coalfields in Indian River Valleys
Estimated Time:1m 0s
Question 1765Question →

Regarding the Council of Ministers in an Indian State, which of the following statements are correct?

Select all that apply

Show answer & explanation

Answer: The Chief Minister is appointed by the Governor, and other ministers are appointed by the Governor on the advice of the Chief Minister.; The total number of ministers, including the Chief Minister, in a state cannot exceed 15 percent of the total strength of the Legislative Assembly of that state.; A minister who is not a member of the State Legislature for six consecutive months ceases to be a minister upon the expiration of that period.

Answer

The statements regarding the appointment of ministers on the advice of the Chief Minister, the 15 percent ceiling on the size of the Council of Ministers, and the six-month membership requirement for ministers are correct.
Under Article 164 of the Constitution of India, the Chief Minister is appointed by the Governor and other ministers are appointed on the Chief Minister's advice. The 91st Constitutional Amendment introduced a 15% ceiling relative to the Legislative Assembly's strength, and non-legislators may only serve as ministers for up to six consecutive months without getting elected.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Examine the constitutional provisions for appointment and numerical limit of the State Council of Ministers.
Confirm that the Chief Minister is appointed by the Governor and other ministers are appointed on the Chief Minister's advice under Article 164(1), and that the 15 percent strength cap applies under Article 164(1A).
Articles 164(1) and 164(1A) govern the appointment mechanism and upper limit on executive cabinet size.
2
Analyze the collective responsibility provision of the State Council of Ministers.
Identify that the Council of Ministers is collectively responsible to the popular lower house (Legislative Assembly), making the reference to the Legislative Council incorrect.
Article 164(2) explicitly establishes collective accountability to the Legislative Assembly.
3
Verify the tenure conditions for non-legislator ministers.
Confirm that a non-member can hold ministerial office for a maximum of six continuous months without obtaining membership in the State Legislature.
Article 164(4) mandates election or nomination to the State Legislature within six months.

Key Concept

Constitutional provisions governing the State Council of Ministers (Article 164)
Question 1766Question →

When traversing the South American continent from North to South, which of the following options represents the correct latitudinal sequence of these capital cities?

(i) Quito
(ii) Bogotá
(iii) Santiago
(iv) Lima

Show answer & explanation

Answer: (ii) – (i) – (iv) – (iii)

Answer

The sequence starting with Bogotá, followed by Quito, Lima, and ending with Santiago is correct.
Bogotá (Colombia) is located north of the Equator at roughly 4.6° N latitude, making it the northernmost of the four cities. Quito (Ecuador) sits at approximately 0.2° S latitude. Moving further south, Lima (Peru) is located at approximately 12.0° S latitude, while Santiago (Chile) lies furthest south at approximately 33.4° S latitude. Thus, the sequence (ii) – (i) – (iv) – (iii) represents the precise North-to-South alignment.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Determine the latitudinal position of Bogotá
Bogotá (Colombia) is located at approximately 4.6° N latitude in the Northern Hemisphere.
Establishing the northernmost anchor point among the given cities.
2
Determine the latitudinal position of Quito
Quito (Ecuador) is situated just south of the Equator at approximately 0.2° S latitude.
Positioning the next city south of Bogotá.
3
Determine the latitudinal position of Lima
Lima (Peru) lies along the central Pacific coast of South America at approximately 12.0° S latitude.
Identifying the city located south of Quito but north of Santiago.
4
Determine the latitudinal position of Santiago
Santiago (Chile) is situated in temperate South America at approximately 33.4° S latitude.
Confirming the southernmost city among the four options.

Key Concept

Latitudinal positioning and regional geography of major South American capital cities.
Question 1767Question →

Match the medieval Indian administrative officials in List-I with their primary administrative functions and duties in List-II.

Click a left item, then click its matching right item

Items

Sadr-us-Sudur
Muhtasib
Sumant (Dabir)
Barid-i-Mamalik

Matches

Show answer & explanation

Answer

Sadr-us-Sudur matches with religious endowments and royal charity; Muhtasib matches with public morality enforcement and market inspection; Sumant (Dabir) matches with foreign affairs in Maratha administration; Barid-i-Mamalik matches with state intelligence and postal reporting system.
Each official is accurately paired with their designated portfolio: Sadr-us-Sudur oversaw religious grants and ecclesiastical charity; Muhtasib enforced moral codes and market standards; Sumant managed diplomatic relations in the Maratha state; and Barid-i-Mamalik directed state intelligence gathering and news dispatches.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the primary role of Sadr-us-Sudur
Sadr-us-Sudur managed religious, judicial charity, and state grants for learned individuals and institutions.
This officer was the chief judge (Qazi-ul-Quzat) and minister of religious affairs in medieval Indo-Islamic administration.
2
Determine the duties of the Muhtasib
Muhtasib supervised public moral conduct, prevented commercial fraud, and checked weights and measures.
The role originated as a municipal censor and market supervisor during the Delhi Sultanate and Mughal period.
3
Analyze the portfolio of Sumant (Dabir) in Maratha Ashtapradhan
Sumant served as the foreign minister handling external affairs and royal diplomacy.
Chhatrapati Shivaji created the Ashtapradhan council with specific assigned portfolios for governance.
4
Verify the jurisdiction of Barid-i-Mamalik
Barid-i-Mamalik supervised the state intelligence service and official news dispatchers.
Rulers like Ghiyasuddin Balban and Alauddin Khalji strengthened Diwan-i-Barid to maintain strict control over provincial officers.

Key Concept

Central and Regional Administrative Portfolios in Medieval India
Question 1768Question →

Under Part IV of the Constitution of India, various Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP) were inserted or modified through constitutional amendments. Which of the following provisions was specifically added to the Directive Principles by the 44th Constitutional Amendment Act of 1978?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: State directive to minimize inequalities in income, status, facilities, and opportunities

Answer

The provision requiring the State to minimize inequalities in income, status, facilities, and opportunities among individuals and groups was added as Article 38(2) by the 44th Constitutional Amendment Act of 1978.
The 44th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1978 added clause (2) to Article 38, directing the State to minimize inequalities in income and eliminate inequalities in status, facilities, and opportunities not only amongst individuals but also amongst groups of people residing in different areas or engaged in different vocations.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the constitutional provision inserted into Part IV (Directive Principles of State Policy) by the 44th Amendment Act, 1978.
Article 38 was amended to add clause (2), which mandates the State to strive to minimize inequalities in income, status, facilities, and opportunities.
The Janata Party government introduced the 44th Amendment in 1978 to revise certain provisions introduced during the Emergency and add explicit egalitarian directives under Article 38.
2
Differentiate this amendment from other major constitutional amendments affecting Part IV.
Article 43A (workers' participation in industrial management) was added by the 42nd Amendment (1976); Article 43B (co-operative societies) was added by the 97th Amendment (2011); Article 45 (early childhood care up to 6 years) was altered by the 86th Amendment (2002).
Distinguishing between the 42nd, 44th, 86th, and 97th Amendments is crucial for accurately placing amendments to Part IV of the Constitution.

Key Concept

Constitutional Amendments to Directive Principles of State Policy (Part IV)
Question 1769Question →

Which of the following statements regarding the powers and constitutional provisions of the Union Executive of India are correct?

Select all that apply

Show answer & explanation

Answer: All executive actions of the Government of India are formally expressed to be taken in the name of the President.; The Prime Minister is appointed by the President, and other Ministers are appointed by the President on the advice of the Prime Minister.

Answer

The statements confirming that all executive actions of the Government of India are expressed in the name of the President, and that the Prime Minister and Council of Ministers are appointed by the President (with ministers appointed on the advice of the Prime Minister), are correct.
The statements explaining that Union executive actions are formally taken in the President's name (Article 77) and that the Prime Minister and other Ministers are appointed by the President (Article 75) are constitutionally correct.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Examine constitutional provisions governing executive actions of the Union Government.
Article 77 specifies that all executive actions of the Union are taken in the name of the President.
To verify formal executive authority under the Constitution.
2
Analyze appointment procedures for the Prime Minister and Council of Ministers.
Article 75(1) mandates that the President appoints the Prime Minister, while other Ministers are appointed by the President on the advice of the Prime Minister.
To evaluate the legal procedure for forming the Council of Ministers.
3
Evaluate the scope of pardoning power for death sentences between the President and Governors.
Article 72 gives exclusive power to the President to pardon death sentences; the Governor's pardoning power under Article 161 does not extend to pardoning a death sentence.
To identify differences between Presidential and Gubernatorial pardoning powers.
4
Check the official role of the Vice-President as a presiding officer.
Article 64 states that the Vice-President is the ex-officio Chairman of the Rajya Sabha, not the Lok Sabha.
To verify constitutional duties of the Vice-President.

Key Concept

Constitutional provisions governing the Union Executive, including Presidential powers, appointment of Ministers, and roles of the Vice-President
Question 1770Question →

With reference to the climatic conditions of India during the post-monsoon (retreating monsoon) season, which of the following atmospheric mechanisms is primarily responsible for bringing precipitation to the Coromandel Coast of Tamil Nadu during October and November?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: The North-East trade winds picking up moisture while traversing the Bay of Bengal before hitting the coast.

Answer

The North-East trade winds picking up moisture while traversing the Bay of Bengal before hitting the coast.
During the autumn retreat of the monsoon (October–November), the pressure gradient reverses. The North-East trade winds blow from the high-pressure zone over northern India toward the Bay of Bengal. As they traverse the Bay of Bengal, they absorb moisture and strike the Coromandel Coast of Tamil Nadu, causing major rainfall in this region.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the pressure system and wind direction during the post-monsoon season.
During October and November, the sun moves southward, causing the Inter-Tropical Convergence Zone (ITCZ) to shift south of the equator. High pressure develops over northern India, establishing dry North-East trade winds blowing from land towards the sea.
Understanding pressure shifts explains the retreat of the South-West monsoon and the onset of North-East monsoon flow.
2
Trace the path of the North-East trade winds across the Indian subcontinent and Bay of Bengal.
While these winds originate as dry continental winds over northern landmasses, the easterly branch crosses the open waters of the Bay of Bengal, absorbing significant moisture.
Moisture acquisition over the Bay of Bengal is essential for cloud formation and precipitation on the east coast.
3
Determine the impact of these moisture-laden winds on the Coromandel Coast.
When these North-East winds hit the Coromandel Coast of Tamil Nadu, they meet land and release heavy precipitation, making October-November the chief rainy season for Tamil Nadu.
This establishes the exact atmospheric mechanism responsible for the region's winter rainfall.

Key Concept

Retreating North-East Monsoon and Coromandel Coast Rainfall
Question 1771Question →

Match the prominent traditional schools of Indian miniature painting listed in List I with their distinct stylistic hallmarks and key artistic associations listed in List II. Which of the following represents the correct matching of these painting schools to their defining characteristics?

Click a left item, then click its matching right item

Items

Kishangarh School
Basohli School
Mewar School
Kangra School

Matches

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Answer

Kishangarh School pairs with stylized elongated features and Nihal Chand's Bani Thani; Basohli School pairs with intense colors and beetle-wing foil; Mewar School pairs with vibrant red backdrops and Sahibdin's manuscript illustrations; Kangra School pairs with poetic lyricism, soft landscapes, and Raja Sansar Chand's patronage.
Each miniature painting school is correctly paired with its defining historical attribute: Kishangarh with Nihal Chand's elongated figure style ('Bani Thani'); Basohli with early Pahari bold color fields and beetle-wing foil; Mewar with Sahibdin's vibrant red-ground manuscript series; and Kangra with soft landscape lyricism under Raja Sansar Chand.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the key stylistic elements and artists associated with the Rajasthani schools (Kishangarh and Mewar).
Kishangarh is linked to Nihal Chand and elongated facial features (Bani Thani). Mewar is linked to Sahibdin and vibrant red backdrops in traditional Rajasthani idiom.
Recognizing master artists and signature visual motifs isolates the Rajasthani miniature traditions.
2
Differentiate between the early and late Pahari painting traditions (Basohli and Kangra).
Basohli corresponds to the early, bold Pahari style using beetle-wing foil for gems. Kangra corresponds to the later, refined Pahari style flourishing under Raja Sansar Chand.
Chronological and stylistic development separates early primitive Pahari energy (Basohli) from mature lyrical refinement (Kangra).
3
Synthesize the individual matches into the complete correct sequence.
Kishangarh School matches option 1, Basohli School matches option 2, Mewar School matches option 3, and Kangra School matches option 4.
Ensures all four pair associations are accurately verified against established historical art records.

Key Concept

Classification and Stylistic Characteristics of Indian Miniature Painting Schools (Rajasthani & Pahari)
Estimated Time:2m 0s
Question 1772Question →

With reference to the constitutional developments during British rule in India, consider the following statements:

1. The Government of India Act, 1919 introduced dyarchy in the executive administration of the provinces and established a bicameral central legislature.
2. The Indian Councils Act, 1909 introduced a system of communal representation for Muslims by recognizing the concept of a separate electorate.
3. The Government of India Act, 1935 provided for the establishment of an All-India Federation comprising provinces and princely states, which came into immediate operation upon enactment.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: 1 and 2 only

Answer

The correct option is the choice stating '1 and 2 only'.
The correct answer is the option stating '1 and 2 only'. Dyarchy at the provincial level and central bicameralism were key features of the Government of India Act, 1919. Separate electorates for Muslims were introduced by the Indian Councils Act, 1909. However, the All-India Federation proposed in the Government of India Act, 1935 never materialized due to lack of accession by princely states.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze Statement 1 regarding the Government of India Act, 1919.
Statement 1 is correct. The Montagu-Chelmsford Reforms (1919 Act) introduced dyarchy in the provinces by dividing provincial subjects into 'transferred' and 'reserved', and established a bicameral legislature at the Centre consisting of the Council of State and Legislative Assembly.
Verification of structural provisions introduced under Montford reforms.
2
Analyze Statement 2 regarding the Indian Councils Act, 1909.
Statement 2 is correct. The Morley-Minto Reforms (1909 Act) introduced separate electorates for Muslims, legalizing communal representation.
Verification of communal electorate provisions.
3
Analyze Statement 3 regarding the Government of India Act, 1935.
Statement 3 is incorrect. While the 1935 Act did provide for an All-India Federation consisting of British Indian provinces and princely states, the federation part never came into operation because the princely states chose not to join it.
Distinguishing between statutory provisions and their historical execution status.

Key Concept

Constitutional feature attribution and implementation history of colonial legislative acts (1909, 1919, and 1935).
Estimated Time:1m 30s
Question 1773Question →

Which Constitutional Amendment Act added Part IX and the Eleventh Schedule to the Constitution of India, granting constitutional status to Panchayati Raj Institutions?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992

Answer

73rd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992
The 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992 accorded constitutional status to Panchayati Raj Institutions by inserting Part IX and the Eleventh Schedule into the Indian Constitution.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the constitutional amendment act that enacted rural local self-governance provisions.
The 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992 added Part IX (Articles 243 to 243-O) and the 11th Schedule containing 29 functional matters for Panchayats.
Constitutional recognition for Panchayati Raj was established specifically through the 73rd Amendment, while the 74th Amendment addressed Urban Local Bodies.

Key Concept

73rd Constitutional Amendment Act and Panchayati Raj
Question 1774Question →

Under Article 163 of the Constitution of India, if any question arises whether a matter is or is not a matter in respect of which the Governor is required by or under the Constitution to act in their discretion, whose decision on this question is constitutionally final?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: The decision of the Governor in their discretion is final, and the validity of anything done by the Governor cannot be called into question.

Answer

The decision of the Governor in their discretion is final, and the validity of anything done by the Governor cannot be called into question.
Under Article 163(2) of the Constitution of India, if any question arises regarding whether a matter falls within the Governor's discretion, the decision of the Governor acting in their discretion is constitutionally final, and the validity of anything done by the Governor cannot be questioned on the ground that they ought or ought not to have acted in discretion.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Examine Article 163(1) of the Indian Constitution regarding the State Council of Ministers and the Governor's discretionary exception.
Article 163(1) mandates a Council of Ministers to aid and advise the Governor except in so far as he is required to exercise functions in his discretion.
Establishes the dual framework of advised action versus constitutional discretion.
2
Analyze Clause (2) of Article 163 concerning disputes over whether a specific matter falls within discretionary powers.
Article 163(2) specifies that if any question arises whether any matter is or is not a matter as respects which the Governor is required to act in his discretion, the decision of the Governor in his discretion shall be final.
Directly resolves the specific constitutional query posed in the question stem.

Key Concept

Discretionary Powers of the Governor under Article 163
Estimated Time:1m 0s
Question 1775Question →

With reference to the Dedicated Freight Corridor (DFC) network in India, consider the following statements:

1. The Eastern Dedicated Freight Corridor (EDFC) originates at Sahnewal near Ludhiana in Punjab and terminates at Dankuni in West Bengal.
2. The Western Dedicated Freight Corridor (WDFC) traverses through Uttar Pradesh, Haryana, Rajasthan, Gujarat, and Maharashtra, terminating at Jawaharlal Nehru Port.
3. The Western Dedicated Freight Corridor is constructed to support double-stack container operations and connects key ports along the western coast including Mundra and Pipavav via feeder lines.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: 1, 2 and 3

Answer

All three statements (1, 2, and 3) are correct.
All three statements are factually accurate. The Eastern Dedicated Freight Corridor runs from Sahnewal (Ludhiana) to Dankuni. The Western Dedicated Freight Corridor connects Dadri to Jawaharlal Nehru Port while covering Uttar Pradesh, Haryana, Rajasthan, Gujarat, and Maharashtra. Furthermore, the Western DFC facilitates double-stack container movement connecting ports like Mundra and Pipavav.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze Statement 1 regarding Eastern Dedicated Freight Corridor (EDFC) alignment
Statement 1 is correct. The EDFC extends from Sahnewal (Ludhiana) in Punjab to Dankuni in West Bengal, passing through Punjab, Haryana, Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, Jharkhand, and West Bengal.
Verifying the geographic endpoints and alignment of EDFC.
2
Analyze Statement 2 regarding Western Dedicated Freight Corridor (WDFC) route and states covered
Statement 2 is correct. The WDFC connects Dadri in Uttar Pradesh to Jawaharlal Nehru Port (JNPT) near Mumbai, passing through UP, Haryana, Rajasthan, Gujarat, and Maharashtra.
Verifying the geographic extent and coastal terminal of WDFC.
3
Analyze Statement 3 regarding operational standards and port connectivity of WDFC
Statement 3 is correct. WDFC infrastructure is specifically designed to run electric locomotives pulling double-stack container trains and is integrated with major western ports like Pipavav, Mundra, and Kandla through branch feeder routes.
Verifying freight transport engineering standards and port hinterland linkages.

Key Concept

Dedicated Freight Corridors (DFC) Alignment, Route Spans, and Port Connectivity in India
Estimated Time:2m 0s
Question 1776Question →

Arrange the following Indian states in ascending order of their overall sex ratio (number of females per 1,000 males) according to the Census 2011 data:

Drag items to arrange them in the correct order

Show answer & explanation

Answer

The correct ascending order of states by Census 2011 sex ratio is Haryana (879), Punjab (895), Tamil Nadu (996), and Kerala (1,084).
According to Census 2011 figures, the overall sex ratio (females per 1,000 males) for the states are: Haryana (879), Punjab (895), Tamil Nadu (996), and Kerala (1,084). Arranging these values from lowest to highest yields the sequence: Haryana, Punjab, Tamil Nadu, Kerala.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Retrieve the Census 2011 overall sex ratio data for each state.
Haryana = 879, Punjab = 895, Tamil Nadu = 996, Kerala = 1,084 females per 1,000 males.
Establishing the precise numerical values for each state's demographic indicator is necessary to enable ranking.
2
Sort the states from lowest sex ratio to highest sex ratio.
879 (Haryana) < 895 (Punjab) < 996 (Tamil Nadu) < 1,084 (Kerala).
Ascending order requires arranging the items from the smallest numerical value to the largest.

Key Concept

Sex Ratio Distribution in India (Census 2011)
Estimated Time:45s
Question 1777Question →

Match the national income aggregates and development indicators in List-I with their correct economic definitions and scope in List-II:

Click a left item, then click its matching right item

Items

Net National Product at Factor Cost (NNPFCNNP_{FC})
Real Gross Value Added at Basic Prices (Real GVAReal\ GVA)
Inequality-adjusted Human Development Index (IHDIIHDI)
Genuine Progress Indicator (GPIGPI)

Matches

Show answer & explanation

Answer

Net National Product at Factor Cost (NNPFCNNP_{FC}) matches the traditional measure of national income calculated by deducting net indirect taxes from NNPMPNNP_{MP}. Real Gross Value Added at Basic Prices matches sectoral output adjusted for price changes excluding net product taxes. Inequality-adjusted Human Development Index matches the metric discounting achievements based on inequality. Genuine Progress Indicator matches the green macroeconomic indicator factoring in environmental and social costs.
Net National Product at Factor Cost (NNPFCNNP_{FC}) corresponds to national income after adjusting NNPMPNNP_{MP} for net indirect taxes. Real GVA at Basic Prices measures sectoral output at constant prices including production taxes/subsidies but excluding product taxes. IHDI accounts for dimensional inequality discounting from standard HDI. GPI adjusts economic accounts for social and environmental externalities.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze national income accounting identities for Net National Product at Factor Cost
NNPFC=NNPMP−Net Indirect TaxesNNP_{FC} = NNP_{MP} - \text{Net Indirect Taxes} (Product Taxes minus Product Subsidies), which defines national income.
Factor cost measures payments received by factors of production, excluding market price distortions caused by net indirect taxes.
2
Examine the definition of Real GVA at basic prices under NSO methodology
GVA at basic prices includes factor cost plus net production taxes, but excludes net product taxes, and 'Real' denotes constant price valuation.
Basic price distinguishes production-level taxes (like land revenue or stamp duty) from product-level taxes (like GST).
3
Evaluate international development indicators (IHDI and GPI)
IHDI discounts overall HDI achievements proportional to dimensional inequality, while GPI expands GDP by accounting for non-market work and deducting ecological/social costs.
Development indicators extend beyond standard economic growth statistics to capture equity and sustainability.

Key Concept

National Income Accounting Aggregates and Development Indicators
Estimated Time:2m 0s
Question 1778Question →

Consider the following statements regarding the international propaganda and organizational initiatives during the early phase (1885–1905) of the Indian National Congress:

1. A British Committee of the Indian National Congress was established in London in 1889 under the chairmanship of Sir William Wedderburn to influence British public opinion.
2. The British Committee launched an official journal titled 'India' in 1890 to present authoritative information on Indian affairs to the British parliament and public.
3. Dadabhai Naoroji was appointed as a member of the Royal Commission on Indian Expenditure (Welby Commission) in 1895, representing the Indian nationalist viewpoint on the financial drain.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: 1, 2, and 3

Answer

All three statements (1, 2, and 3) are correct.
All three statements are historically accurate. The early Moderate leaders believed that the British public and parliament were largely unaware of the true conditions in India and would address Indian grievances if informed. Thus, they set up the British Committee of the INC in London (1889) under Sir William Wedderburn, launched the journal 'India' (1890), and secured Dadabhai Naoroji's appointment to the Welby Commission (1895) to document the economic drain from India.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Evaluate Statement 1 regarding the British Committee of the Indian National Congress
Statement 1 is correct: In July 1889, a British Committee of the INC was formed in London with Sir William Wedderburn as Chairman and William Digby as Secretary to create awareness about Indian political demands among the British populace.
To test knowledge of early INC institutional propaganda abroad.
2
Evaluate Statement 2 regarding the publication of the journal 'India'
Statement 2 is correct: In 1890, the British Committee launched the journal 'India' (initially monthly, later weekly) to articulate Indian views to the British parliament and press.
To assess recognition of nationalist media initiatives in Great Britain.
3
Evaluate Statement 3 regarding Dadabhai Naoroji's membership on the Welby Commission
Statement 3 is correct: The Royal Commission on Indian Expenditure (Welby Commission) was appointed in 1895, and Dadabhai Naoroji was appointed as a member, making him the first Indian to sit on a British Royal Commission.
To verify accurate historical details regarding the economic critique of colonialism.

Key Concept

Early INC Moderate Propaganda in Britain and the Economic Drain Critique
Estimated Time:1m 30s
Question 1779Question →

Consider the constitutional mechanisms governing the enforcement, operational limits, and judicial interpretation of Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles of State Policy in India. Which of the following statements are correct?

Select all that apply

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Article 358 automatically suspends the rights guaranteed under Article 19 only when a National Emergency is proclaimed on grounds of war or external aggression, and not internal armed rebellion.; Article 37 explicitly mandates that Directive Principles of State Policy are non-justiciable in courts, yet imposes a moral and legal obligation on the State by declaring them fundamental in national governance.

Answer

The correct statements are that Article 358 automatically suspends Article 19 rights solely during an external emergency, and that Article 37 establishes Directive Principles as non-justiciable while declaring them fundamental in country governance.
The statement regarding Article 358 is accurate because the 44th Amendment restricted automatic suspension of Article 19 rights exclusively to emergencies declared due to war or external aggression. The statement regarding Article 37 is accurate because it correctly captures the dual nature of DPSPs: non-enforceable by courts yet fundamental to state governance.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze Emergency Provisions regarding Fundamental Rights (Articles 358 and 359).
Confirm that Article 358 applies automatically only to Article 19 rights during external emergency. Verify that Article 359 requires a specific Presidential Order and explicitly excludes Articles 20 and 21 from suspension.
The 44th Constitutional Amendment Act (1978) restricted emergency powers to prevent misuse of suspension provisions.
2
Evaluate the non-justiciable character and constitutional weight of Directive Principles (Article 37).
Confirm that Article 37 explicitly bars court enforcement while affirming their fundamental status in governance.
Directive Principles guide legislative policies without creating directly actionable rights in courts of law.
3
Compare Supreme Court (Article 32) and High Court (Article 226) writ jurisdictions.
Determine that High Court writ jurisdiction covers both Fundamental Rights and ordinary legal rights ('for any other purpose'), making its scope wider than Article 32.
Article 32 is limited to Part III enforcement because it is itself a Fundamental Right, whereas Article 226 grants broader remedies for legal infractions.

Key Concept

Operational differences between Article 358 and 359 during National Emergency, enforceability of Directive Principles under Article 37, and comparative writ jurisdiction under Articles 32 and 226.
Question 1780Question →

Which of the following statements correctly distinguishes the constitutional scope of the pardoning power of the Governor under Article 161 from that of the President under Article 72 of the Constitution of India?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: The Governor can suspend, remit, or commute a death sentence, but cannot grant a complete pardon for a death sentence.

Answer

The Governor can suspend, remit, or commute a death sentence, but cannot grant a complete pardon for a death sentence.
Under the Indian Constitution, the power to grant a complete pardon in all cases involving a death sentence is exclusively vested in the President under Article 72. Although the Governor under Article 161 possesses powers to suspend, remit, or commute a death sentence for offenses against state laws, the Governor cannot grant a full pardon for capital punishment.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Examine the scope of Article 72 vs Article 161 regarding death sentences.
Article 72 grants the President the power to pardon, reprieve, respite, or remit punishment or suspend, remit, or commute the sentence of any person convicted of any offense where the sentence is a sentence of death. Under Article 161, the Governor can suspend, remit, or commute a death sentence, but the power to grant a complete pardon for a death sentence is exclusively vested in the President.
Constitutional distinction between Presidential and Gubernatorial mercy powers regarding capital punishment.
2
Evaluate the jurisdiction over Court-Martial (military courts).
Article 72(1)(a) explicitly confers power upon the President in all cases where the punishment or sentence is by a Court-Martial. Article 161 confers no such power upon the Governor.
Military judicial decisions fall exclusively within the Union executive sphere.
3
Analyze whether the power under Article 161 is discretionary.
As affirmed by the Supreme Court (e.g., Maru Ram v. Union of India and subsequent rulings), the Governor exercises mercy powers under Article 161 on the aid and advice of the State Council of Ministers headed by the Chief Minister.
Constitutional requirement under Article 163 for executive functions unless explicitly discretionary.

Key Concept

Constitutional scope and limits of the Governor's pardoning power (Article 161) compared to the President's pardoning power (Article 72)
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