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Question 1901Question

Which of the following constitutional bodies in India are established directly under Article 315 of the Constitution of India? Select all correct options.

Select all that apply

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Answer: Union Public Service Commission (UPSC); State Public Service Commission (SPSC)

Answer

The Union Public Service Commission (UPSC) and the State Public Service Commission (SPSC) are both established directly under Article 315 of the Constitution of India.
Both the Union Public Service Commission and the State Public Service Commission are constituted under Article 315 of the Constitution of India, which provides for Public Service Commissions for the Union and for the States.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the article specifying the establishment of Public Service Commissions.
Article 315 of Part XIV of the Constitution mandates Public Service Commissions for the Union and for each State.
To determine which bodies derive their existence directly from Article 315.
2
Verify the constitutional provisions for the other listed entities.
The Election Commission of India is established under Article 324, and the Comptroller and Auditor General of India is established under Article 148.
To eliminate constitutional bodies created under different articles.

Key Concept

Constitutional provisions for Public Service Commissions (Article 315)
Estimated Time:45s
Question 1902Question

Match the Constitutional Articles under Part IXA of the Constitution of India (74th Constitutional Amendment Act) in List I with their corresponding provisions in List II. Which of the following correctly pairs each Article with its constitutional function?

Click a left item, then click its matching right item

Items

Article 243Q
Article 243S
Article 243ZD
Article 243ZE

Matches

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Answer

The correct alignment pairs Article 243Q with the Constitution of Municipalities (Nagar Panchayat, Municipal Council, Municipal Corporation); Article 243S with the Constitution and composition of Wards Committees; Article 243ZD with the District Planning Committee; and Article 243ZE with the Metropolitan Planning Committee.
The correct pairing correctly matches each article under Part IXA to its designated constitutional provision: Article 243Q establishes the three-tier municipal categories, Article 243S regulates Wards Committees, Article 243ZD provides for District Planning Committees, and Article 243ZE provides for Metropolitan Planning Committees.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the core structural constitutional provisions under Part IXA
Article 243Q lays down the multi-tiered structure of urban local governance (Nagar Panchayat, Municipal Council, and Municipal Corporation).
This establishes the basic legal framework for classifying urban settlements.
2
Evaluate local ward-level institutional mechanisms under Part IXA
Article 243S requires the creation of Wards Committees specifically for municipalities reaching or exceeding a population of 3 lakh.
It ensures decentralization down to the ward level in populous urban centers.
3
Differentiate district-level planning from metropolitan-level planning articles
Article 243ZD governs District Planning Committees, whereas Article 243ZE governs Metropolitan Planning Committees.
District planning consolidates rural-urban panchayat and municipality inputs, while metropolitan planning coordinates large multi-jurisdictional urban regions.

Key Concept

Constitutional provisions under Part IXA (74th Amendment Act, 1992)
Question 1903Question

With reference to the District Planning Committee (DPC) constituted under Article 243ZD of the Constitution of India (74th Constitutional Amendment Act), consider the following statements:

1. A District Planning Committee is mandated to consolidate the development plans prepared by Panchayats and Municipalities in every district.
2. Not less than four-fifths of the total members of the committee must be elected by, and from amongst, the elected members of the district-level Panchayat and Municipalities.
3. The Chairperson of every District Planning Committee forwards the consolidated development plan directly to NITI Aayog for central fund allocation.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: 1 and 2 only

Answer

Statements 1 and 2 are correct. Statement 3 is incorrect because the Chairperson of the District Planning Committee is constitutionally required to forward the draft development plan to the Government of the State, not to a central agency like NITI Aayog.
Statements 1 and 2 are constitutional facts under Article 243ZD. The District Planning Committee consolidates rural and urban plans in a district, with at least four-fifths of its members elected from among elected members of the district panchayat and municipalities proportional to rural and urban population ratios.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze Statement 1
Article 243ZD(1) mandates that every state shall constitute a District Planning Committee at the district level to consolidate the plans prepared by Panchayats and Municipalities.
This is the primary constitutional mandate of the District Planning Committee.
2
Analyze Statement 2
Article 243ZD(2)(a) stipulates that not less than four-fifths (4/54/5) of the total members of such committee shall be elected by, and from amongst, the elected members of the Panchayat at the district level and the Municipalities in the district in proportion to the ratio between the rural and urban populations in the district.
This guarantees local representation in spatial planning.
3
Analyze Statement 3
Article 243ZD(4) explicitly specifies that the Chairperson of every District Planning Committee shall forward the development plan, as recommended by such committee, to the Government of the State.
Administrative devolution is to the State executive, not the Union planning body.

Key Concept

Constitutional provisions under Article 243ZD for the District Planning Committee (74th Constitutional Amendment Act)
Estimated Time:1m 0s
Question 1904Question

The following eligibility criteria and exception rules must be satisfied for the recruitment of a Chief Environmental Officer in the State Pollution Control Board as of August 1, 2026:

Primary Criteria:
1. Educational Qualification: Possess a Master's degree in Environmental Science or Chemical Engineering with at least 60%60\% marks.
2. Age Limit: Be between 3030 and 4545 years of age as of August 1, 2026.
3. Experience: Have at least 77 years of field or administrative experience in environmental management or industrial waste management.
4. Certification: Hold a State Professional Certification in Environmental Audit.

Exceptions and Overrides:
(i) If a candidate satisfies all criteria except (1) above, but holds a Ph.D. in Environmental Toxicology with at least 55%55\% marks in Master's, the case is to be referred to the State Environmental Advisory Board.
(ii) If a candidate satisfies all criteria except (2) above, but is an existing Senior Government Environmental Engineer with over 1010 years of service, the upper age limit is relaxed up to 5050 years and the candidate is to be Selected under In-Service Relaxation.
(iii) If a candidate satisfies all criteria except (4) above, but has published 55 or more research papers in peer-reviewed journals on waste management, the candidate is to be Provisionally Selected (subject to obtaining certification within 6 months).
(iv) If a candidate fails to satisfy more than one primary criterion without qualifying for specific overrides, the application is to be Rejected.

Based on the criteria and exceptions listed above, match each candidate to their correct administrative decision outcome.

Click a left item, then click its matching right item

Items

Dr. Aris Thorne: Born on July 15, 1990 (age 36). Holds a Master's degree in Environmental Science with 58% marks and a Ph.D. in Environmental Toxicology. Has 8 years of field experience in industrial waste management and holds a State Professional Certification in Environmental Audit.
Ms. Sunita Rao: Born on May 10, 1979 (age 47). Holds a Master's degree in Chemical Engineering with 65% marks. Has 12 years of service as a Senior Government Environmental Engineer and holds a State Professional Certification in Environmental Audit.
Mr. Vikram Sethi: Born on March 20, 1988 (age 38). Holds a Master's degree in Environmental Science with 68% marks. Has 9 years of environmental management experience. Does not hold a State Professional Certification in Environmental Audit, but has published 6 peer-reviewed research papers on waste management.
Mr. Rohan Verma: Born on January 12, 1993 (age 33). Holds a Master's degree in Environmental Science with 62% marks. Has 5 years of experience in environmental management. Does not hold a State Professional Certification in Environmental Audit and has no research publications.

Matches

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Answer

Dr. Aris Thorne maps to 'Refer Case to the State Environmental Advisory Board'; Ms. Sunita Rao maps to 'Selected under In-Service Relaxation'; Mr. Vikram Sethi maps to 'Provisionally Selected (subject to certification within 6 months)'; Mr. Rohan Verma maps to 'Reject Application'.
Each candidate's profile systematically corresponds to one distinct exception or decision rule within the recruitment framework: Dr. Aris Thorne triggers the advisory board referral via Ph.D. override; Ms. Sunita Rao triggers in-service age relaxation up to 50 years; Mr. Vikram Sethi triggers provisional selection based on research publications; and Mr. Rohan Verma fails multiple criteria requiring application rejection.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Evaluate candidate Dr. Aris Thorne against primary criteria and exception clauses.
Age (36) is valid. Experience (8 years) is valid. Certification is present. Qualification score is 58% (< 60%), failing criterion 1. However, Exception (i) applies due to a Ph.D. in Environmental Toxicology and 58% >= 55% in Master's.
Exception (i) mandates referring the case to the State Environmental Advisory Board.
2
Evaluate candidate Ms. Sunita Rao against primary criteria and exception clauses.
Qualification (65%), experience (12 years), and certification are valid. Age (47) exceeds 45, failing criterion 2. However, Exception (ii) applies as she is an in-service Senior Engineer with over 10 years of service.
Exception (ii) permits age relaxation up to 50 years and specifies selection under In-Service Relaxation.
3
Evaluate candidate Mr. Vikram Sethi against primary criteria and exception clauses.
Qualification (68%), age (38), and experience (9 years) are valid. Certification is absent, failing criterion 4. However, Exception (iii) applies as he has published 6 peer-reviewed papers (>= 5).
Exception (iii) mandates provisional selection with a 6-month window to obtain certification.
4
Evaluate candidate Mr. Rohan Verma against primary criteria and exception clauses.
Age (33) and qualification (62%) are valid. Experience (5 years < 7 years) fails criterion 3, and missing certification fails criterion 4. Two primary criteria are failed.
Rule (iv) dictates rejection when more than one primary criterion is failed without qualifying override provisions.

Key Concept

Multi-Condition Administrative Criteria Evaluation and Override Matching
Estimated Time:2m 0s
Question 1905Question

Which of the following statements regarding the physical geography and relief features of the Peninsular Plateau and Coastal Plains of India are correct?

Select all that apply

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Answer: The Meghalaya Plateau is an eastern extension of the Peninsular Plateau, separated from the Chota Nagpur Plateau by a structural fault gap.; The Western Coastal Plain is a submerged coast featuring narrow margins and estuaries, providing favorable conditions for natural deepwater ports.

Answer

The correct statements are that the Meghalaya Plateau is an eastern structural extension of the Peninsular Plateau separated by the Malda fault gap, and that the Western Coastal Plain is a submerged coast with narrow margins and estuaries favorable for deepwater ports.
The statement regarding the Meghalaya Plateau is accurate because it is a structural extension of the Peninsular Plateau formed by downfaulting between the Rajmahal Hills and Garo Hills (Malda gap). Furthermore, the statement regarding the western coast is correct because it is a submerged coastal line creating narrow plains, estuaries, and natural deep harbors.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Evaluate the geological connection of the Northeastern hill plateau.
Geologically, the Meghalaya and Karbi Anglong plateaus are outliers of the Peninsular block, separated from the Rajmahal Hills / Chota Nagpur Plateau by the Malda (Garo-Rajmahal) gap.
This establishes the structural continuity of the Peninsular shield.
2
Assess the physiographic nature of the Western Coastal Plain.
The Western Coastal Plain is a prime example of a submerged coastal plain, resulting in narrow coastal strips, steep continental gradients, estuaries, and natural deep harbors.
This contrasts with the emergent, deltaic, and broader Eastern Coastal Plain.
3
Examine the spatial arrangement of southern hill ranges around Palghat Gap.
From north to south, the sequence is Nilgiri Hills → Palghat Gap → Anaimalai Hills → Shencottah Gap → Cardamom Hills. The Cardamom Hills lie south of Palghat Gap.
This disproves the assertion that Cardamom Hills lie north of the Palghat Gap.
4
Analyze Northern Plains zonal relief features from north to south.
The sequence from north to south along the Himalayan foothills is Shiwalik → Bhabar (pebble zone) → Terai (marshy re-emergence zone) → Bangar (older alluvium) → Khadar (newer floodplains).
This refutes the assertion claiming Bhabar lies south of Terai.

Key Concept

Physiographic divisions, structural extensions, coastal submergence, and latitudinal relief sequencing of India.
Question 1906Question

Match the Constitutional Articles governing the State Executive and State Legislature in List-I with their corresponding legal provisions in List-II:

Click a left item, then click its matching right item

Items

Article 174
Article 175
Article 176
Article 201

Matches

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Answer

Article 174 matches with Sessions, prorogation, and dissolution of the Legislative Assembly; Article 175 matches with Right of the Governor to address and send messages to the House or Houses; Article 176 matches with Special address by the Governor at the commencement of the first session; and Article 201 matches with Bills reserved by the Governor for the consideration of the President.
Article 174 corresponds to the Governor's powers to summon, prorogue, and dissolve the Legislative Assembly. Article 175 grants the Governor the right to address either or both Houses of the State Legislature and to send messages. Article 176 outlines the mandatory special address by the Governor at the start of the first session post-elections and annually. Article 201 outlines the procedure for bills reserved by the Governor for the assent/consideration of the President.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the primary scope of Article 174.
Article 174 deals with summoning, prorogation, and dissolution of the State Legislative Assembly by the Governor.
This establishes the procedural power of the Governor regarding legislative sessions.
2
Distinguish between Article 175 and Article 176.
Article 175 relates to the general right to address and send messages, whereas Article 176 pertains specifically to the mandatory special address at the start of the first session after general elections and the first session of each year.
Confusing general addressing powers with mandatory inaugural annual/post-election addresses is a common distractor area.
3
Analyze Article 201 in contrast to Article 200.
Article 200 relates to the Governor's options regarding assent to bills, while Article 201 covers the specific procedure followed once a bill is reserved for Presidential consideration.
Article 201 details the actions open to the President upon receiving a reserved state bill.

Key Concept

Constitutional provisions regarding the Governor's powers and proceedings of the State Legislature
Question 1907Question

Arrange the following Indian cities in the correct chronological sequence of the normal arrival date of the South-West Monsoon, from the earliest to the latest:

Drag items to arrange them in the correct order

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Answer

The correct chronological sequence of the normal onset of the South-West Monsoon is Thiruvananthapuram (around June 1), followed by Mumbai (around June 10–11), Delhi (around June 27–30), and lastly Jodhpur (around July 5–8).
The South-West Monsoon enters the Indian subcontinent from the south and south-west. The normal onset date over the southern tip at Kerala (Thiruvananthapuram) is around June 1. As the Arabian Sea branch advances northward along the west coast, it reaches Mumbai by June 10–11. The combined branches advance across the Indo-Gangetic plains, reaching Delhi by late June (around June 27–30), and finally cover the desert regions of western Rajasthan (Jodhpur) by early July (around July 5–8).

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the geographical location and monsoon entry point for each city
Thiruvananthapuram is on the southern tip (Kerala coast); Mumbai is on the western coast; Delhi is in the northern plains; Jodhpur is in western Rajasthan.
The South-West Monsoon advances from south/south-west towards the north-west.
2
Determine the normal IMD monsoon onset dates for each city
Thiruvananthapuram (~June 1) < Mumbai (~June 10-11) < Delhi (~June 27-30) < Jodhpur (~July 5-8).
The Arabian Sea and Bay of Bengal branches travel northward and north-westward, reaching the extreme north-western parts of India last.
3
Arrange the cities from earliest to latest arrival date
Sequence: Thiruvananthapuram → Mumbai → Delhi → Jodhpur.
Matches the spatial progression of the advancing monsoon across the Indian subcontinent.

Key Concept

Spatial progression and normal onset dates of the South-West Monsoon in India
Estimated Time:1m 15s
Question 1908Question

With reference to the Goods and Services Tax (GST) and the Goods and Services Tax Council under the Indian taxation framework, consider the following statements:

1. Under Article 269A of the Constitution of India, Goods and Services Tax on supplies in the course of inter-State trade or commerce is levied and collected by the Government of India and apportioned between the Union and the States.
2. Decisions of the Goods and Services Tax Council are taken by a majority of not less than two-thirds of the weighted votes of the members present and voting.
3. The vote of the Central Government has a weightage of one-third of the total votes cast, while the votes of all State Governments combined have a weightage of two-thirds of the total votes cast in the GST Council.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: 1 and 3 only

Answer

1 and 3 only
Statement 1 accurately describes Article 269A, which governs the levy, collection, and apportionment of Inter-State GST (IGST) by the Union. Statement 3 correctly identifies the constitutional weightage assigned to votes cast in the GST Council (Central Government = 1/3rd weightage, all State Governments combined = 2/3rd weightage). Statement 2 is false because Article 279A(9) mandates a three-fourths (75%) majority of weighted votes present and voting, rather than a two-thirds majority.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze Statement 1 regarding Article 269A of the Constitution of India.
Article 269A provides that GST on supplies in the course of inter-State trade or commerce (IGST) shall be levied and collected by the Government of India and apportioned between the Union and the States in the manner as provided by Parliament by law.
Statement 1 is factually and constitutionally correct.
2
Analyze Statement 2 regarding the voting threshold for decisions in the GST Council.
Under Article 279A(9), every decision of the Goods and Services Tax Council shall be taken at a meeting by a majority of not less than three-fourths (75%) of the weighted votes of the members present and voting, not two-thirds.
Statement 2 is incorrect due to the wrong majority ratio.
3
Analyze Statement 3 regarding vote weightage distribution in the GST Council.
Article 279A(9) specifies that the vote of the Central Government shall have a weightage of one-third of the total votes cast, and the votes of all State Governments taken together shall have a weightage of two-thirds of the total votes cast.
Statement 3 is factually and constitutionally correct.

Key Concept

Constitutional Provisions of GST and GST Council Architecture (Articles 269A and 279A)
Estimated Time:1m 30s
Question 1909Question

Which of the following terms logically replaces the question mark (?) to complete the given alphanumeric series?

P3C,R7F,?,V27L,X43OP3C, \quad R7F, \quad ?, \quad V27L, \quad X43O
Show answer & explanation

Answer: T15I

Answer

T15I
The correct term is obtained by independently evaluating the three sub-series: first letters advance by +2+2 (P,R,T,V,XP, R, T, V, X), central numbers increment by expanding step differences of +4,+8,+12,+16+4, +8, +12, +16 (3,7,15,27,433, 7, 15, 27, 43), and third letters advance by +3+3 (C,F,I,L,OC, F, I, L, O). Unifying these components produces T15IT15I.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the pattern of the first letter in each term
The first letters follow an increasing positional shift of +2+2: P(16)+2R(18)+2T(20)+2V(22)+2X(24)P(16) \xrightarrow{+2} R(18) \xrightarrow{+2} T(20) \xrightarrow{+2} V(22) \xrightarrow{+2} X(24). Thus, the missing first letter is TT.
Tracking alphabet positional values reveals a constant linear addition of 2 units.
2
Analyze the pattern of the central numerical values
The differences between consecutive numbers form a sequence of multiples of 44: 73=47 - 3 = 4, so the next difference is 4+4=84 + 4 = 8, giving 7+8=157 + 8 = 15. Verifying subsequent terms: 15+12=2715 + 12 = 27 and 27+16=4327 + 16 = 43. Thus, the missing number is 1515.
The number sequence follows an increasing double-difference pattern where each term's increment grows by +4+4.
3
Analyze the pattern of the third letter in each term
The third letters follow an increasing positional shift of +3+3: C(3)+3F(6)+3I(9)+3L(12)+3O(15)C(3) \xrightarrow{+3} F(6) \xrightarrow{+3} I(9) \xrightarrow{+3} L(12) \xrightarrow{+3} O(15). Thus, the missing third letter is II.
Tracking alphabet positional values reveals a constant shift of 3 steps forward.
4
Combine the results of all three components
Combining the first letter TT, middle number 1515, and third letter II yields the complete term T15IT15I.
Each element operates independently according to its own sub-rule.

Key Concept

Alphanumeric Series Completion with Multi-Pattern Positional Shifts
Estimated Time:1m 15s
Question 1910Question

With reference to the constitutional provisions governing environmental protection in India under Part IV (Directive Principles of State Policy) and Part IV-A (Fundamental Duties), which of the following statements are correct?

Select all that apply

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Article 48A directs the State to endeavor to protect and improve the environment and to safeguard the forests and wildlife of the country.; Both Article 48A and Part IV-A containing Article 51A(g) were incorporated into the Constitution of India by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976.

Answer

The statement declaring that Article 48A directs the State to protect and improve the environment, as well as the statement noting that both Article 48A and Article 51A(g) were added by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976, are correct.
Article 48A obligates the State to protect and improve the environment and safeguard forests and wildlife. Both Article 48A and Part IV-A (containing Article 51A(g)) were added together to the Constitution of India via the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Examine the origin and provision of Article 48A under Part IV (DPSPs).
Article 48A mandates the State to protect and improve the environment and safeguard forests and wildlife.
It was introduced into Part IV by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976.
2
Analyze the legal history and inclusion of Fundamental Duties under Part IV-A.
Part IV-A (Article 51A), which includes Article 51A(g) regarding environmental duty, was added by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976, and was not present in the original 1950 Constitution.
Fundamental Duties were added based on the recommendations of the Swaran Singh Committee.
3
Evaluate the judicial enforceability of Article 48A under Article 37.
Directive Principles are fundamentally non-justiciable and cannot be directly enforced by writ jurisdiction under Article 226.
Article 37 explicitly declares that Part IV provisions are not enforceable by any court.

Key Concept

Environmental Protection Provisions under Directive Principles (Article 48A) and Fundamental Duties (Article 51A(g))
Question 1911Question

Which of the following Premier think tanks replaced the Planning Commission of India on January 1, 2015, to foster cooperative federalism and bottom-up economic policy planning?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: NITI Aayog (National Institution for Transforming India)

Answer

NITI Aayog (National Institution for Transforming India)
The National Institution for Transforming India (NITI Aayog) was formed via a Cabinet resolution on January 1, 2015, replacing the 65-year-old Planning Commission to serve as a think tank promoting cooperative federalism.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the historical transition in Indian economic planning institutions.
The Government of India decided to replace the top-down Planning Commission established in 1950.
To adapt to modern economic needs and enhance participation from state governments.
2
Confirm the name and launch date of the replacement body.
NITI Aayog was formally instituted on January 1, 2015.
It serves as the premier policy 'Think Tank' of the Union Government.

Key Concept

Establishment and structure of NITI Aayog replacing the Planning Commission
Question 1912Question

With reference to the legislative relations between the Centre and States and Emergency Provisions under the Constitution of India, consider the following statements:

1. Under Article 249, a resolution passed by the Rajya Sabha empowering Parliament to legislate on a matter in the State List remains in force for such period as specified in the resolution, not exceeding one year at a time.
2. A law enacted by Parliament pursuant to a resolution under Article 249 ceases to have effect on the expiration of six months after the resolution has ceased to be in force.
3. When a proclamation of National Emergency under Article 352 is in operation on the grounds of armed rebellion, the fundamental rights under Article 19 are automatically suspended throughout India under Article 358.
4. A proclamation imposing President's Rule under Article 356 must be approved by both Houses of Parliament within two months from the date of its issue by a special majority in each House.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: 1 and 2 only

Answer

The correct option is the one stating that statements 1 and 2 only are correct.
Statements 1 and 2 correctly reflect the provisions of Article 249 of the Indian Constitution, where Rajya Sabha can authorize Parliament to legislate on a State List subject for up to one year at a time, and such parliamentary laws remain valid for six months after the resolution lapses. Statement 3 is wrong because Article 358 suspends Article 19 only during external aggression or war, not armed rebellion. Statement 4 is wrong because Article 356 requires approval by a simple majority rather than a special majority.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze Statement 1 regarding Article 249 resolution duration
Article 249(2) states that a resolution passed by Rajya Sabha declared by 2/32/3 majority present and voting remains in force for such period specified therein not exceeding one year. It can be renewed repeatedly for one year at a time.
Verify constitutional duration constraint for Rajya Sabha state list resolution.
2
Analyze Statement 2 regarding post-resolution parliamentary law validity
Article 249(3) explicitly specifies that a law made by Parliament shall cease to have effect on the expiration of a period of six months after the resolution has ceased to be in force.
Verify legal sunset clause under Article 249.
3
Analyze Statement 3 regarding Article 358 application during armed rebellion
As per the 44th Constitutional Amendment Act (1978), Article 358 operates only when a National Emergency is proclaimed on grounds of war or external aggression (external emergency). It does not apply to armed rebellion (internal emergency).
Check 44th Amendment safeguards on Fundamental Rights during National Emergency.
4
Analyze Statement 4 regarding parliamentary approval majority for President's Rule (Article 356)
A proclamation under Article 356 requires approval by both Houses within two months by a simple majority (majority of members present and voting). Special majority is required under Article 352 (National Emergency), not Article 356.
Distinguish approval majority requirements across different types of emergency provisions.

Key Concept

Centre-State Legislative Relations (Article 249) and Parliamentary/Constitutional nuances of Emergency Provisions (Articles 352, 356, and 358/359)
Estimated Time:2m 30s
Question 1913Question

Regarding the ordinance-making power of the President of India under Article 123 of the Constitution, which of the following statements are constitutionally correct?

Select all that apply

Show answer & explanation

Answer: An ordinance promulgated by the President has the same force and effect as an Act of Parliament, and it can be issued when either of the two Houses of Parliament is not in session.; Every ordinance promulgated by the President must be laid before both Houses of Parliament and automatically ceases to operate six weeks after the reassembly of Parliament, unless disapproved earlier.

Answer

The constitutionally correct statements are: (1) An ordinance promulgated by the President has the same force as an Act of Parliament and can be issued when either House is not in session, and (2) Every ordinance must be laid before both Houses of Parliament upon reassembly and ceases to operate six weeks after reassembly unless disapproved earlier.
The statement regarding the promulgation when either House is not in session is correct because a law cannot be enacted by Parliament without both Houses meeting. The statement regarding parliamentary reassembly is correct as Article 123(2)(a) stipulates an automatic six-week expiry period from the reassembly date of Parliament.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the session prerequisite for issuing an ordinance under Article 123.
Since lawmaking requires approval by both Houses, if either House is not in session, legislation cannot be passed, making it constitutionally permissible for the President to issue an ordinance.
Article 123(1) explicitly permits ordinance promulgation when 'except when both Houses of Parliament are in session'.
2
Evaluate the constitutional limitations on the subject matter of ordinances.
Ordinances are subject to the same constitutional limitations as Acts of Parliament and cannot be used to amend the Constitution under Article 368.
The power to amend the Constitution requires special parliamentary majorities and procedure under Article 368, which cannot be bypassed via executive ordinances.
3
Examine the parliamentary approval timeline and life of an ordinance.
An ordinance must be presented to Parliament when it reassembles and lapses automatically six weeks from the date of reassembly unless disapproved or replaced by an Act.
Article 123(2)(a) mandates parliamentary control over executive legislation.
4
Compare the nature of executive satisfaction for the President and the Governor.
Neither executive acts in individual discretion; both act on the binding aid and advice of their respective Council of Ministers.
Articles 74/123 (Union) and Articles 163/213 (State) establish cabinet responsibility for ordinance promulgation.

Key Concept

Ordinance-making power of the President (Article 123) and its constitutional limits
Estimated Time:2m 0s
Question 1914Question

As the designated Incident Commander responding to a high-pressure chlorine gas leak at a municipal water purification plant situated near a densely populated residential suburb, which of the following actions constitute mandatory immediate emergency response measures under standard administrative protocols? (Select all that apply)

Select all that apply

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Order the immediate evacuation of downwind residential sectors while establishing an upwind cordon and advising shelter-in-place with sealed ventilation for non-evacuated nearby areas.; Deploy specialized hazardous material containment teams wearing self-contained breathing apparatus (SCBA) to isolate the damaged valve assembly.

Answer

The mandatory immediate measures are evacuating downwind residential sectors while establishing an upwind safety perimeter, and deploying specialized HazMat containment teams equipped with self-contained breathing apparatus.
In toxic gas emergencies involving heavy gases like chlorine, standard administrative and incident command protocols require establishing an upwind perimeter, evacuating downwind areas, and deploying properly protected HazMat personnel with self-contained breathing apparatus to isolate the leak.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Evaluate the chemical hazard profile and physical characteristics of chlorine gas.
Identified that chlorine is heavier than air, toxic by inhalation, and moves along ground level downwind.
Understanding the physical properties dictates immediate perimeter boundaries and evacuation direction.
2
Assess public safety operations against disaster management statutory guidelines.
Evacuating downwind populations and establishing upwind command posts protects human life.
Standard disaster protocols prioritize life safety and upwind positioning during airborne toxic releases.
3
Determine containment operational protocols.
Authorized specialized HazMat responders with SCBA gear to isolate the source.
Unprotected entry or informal workarounds lead to immediate casualties among emergency personnel.

Key Concept

Standard Operating Procedures for Hazardous Chemical Industrial Incidents
Question 1915Question

Arrange the following procedural stages involved in the enactment of the Budget (Annual Financial Statement) in the Indian Parliament in their correct chronological sequence from the initial stage to final enactment:

Drag items to arrange them in the correct order

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Answer

The correct chronological order of stages in passing the Budget in Indian Parliament is: Presentation of the Budget -> General Discussion -> Scrutiny by Departmental Standing Committees during parliamentary recess -> Voting on Demands for Grants (in Lok Sabha) -> Passing of the Appropriation Bill -> Passing of the Finance Bill.
The statutory and procedural flow of the Indian Parliamentary Budget follows six strict sequential stages. It begins with Presentation of the Budget (Article 112), followed by a broad General Discussion. Parliament then adjourns for recess to let 24 Departmentally Related Standing Committees scrutinize individual ministry demands. Upon reassembling, the Lok Sabha votes on Demands for Grants. Next, the Appropriation Bill (Article 114) is passed to authorize withdrawals from the Consolidated Fund of India. Finally, the Finance Bill is passed to enact tax and revenue proposals.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the inaugural stage of the legislative budget process.
Presentation of the Budget (Annual Financial Statement under Article 112) along with the Finance Minister's speech is the first step.
Parliament cannot discuss financial provisions before they are formally laid.
2
Determine the broad debate stage immediately following presentation.
General Discussion takes place in both Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha.
It allows members to debate overall fiscal policies before detailed scrutiny.
3
Identify the committee evaluation mechanism introduced in 1993.
Recess for Departmentally Related Standing Committees (DRSCs) to examine ministry-wise Demands for Grants.
Houses adjourn temporarily so 24 standing committees can scrutinize detailed estimates and submit reports.
4
Locate the voting phase for expenditure.
Voting on Demands for Grants occurs exclusively in the Lok Sabha.
Under Article 113(2), Rajya Sabha has no voting power on demands for grants.
5
Identify the legislation authorizing expenditure withdrawal.
Passing of the Appropriation Bill under Article 114.
No money can be withdrawn from the Consolidated Fund of India except under appropriation made by law.
6
Identify the final legislation authorizing revenue collection.
Passing of the Finance Bill under Article 110/117.
The Finance Bill legalizes tax proposals, completing the enactment of the Budget.

Key Concept

Stages in Enactment of Budget (Annual Financial Statement) under Indian Constitutional Law and Parliamentary Rules
Question 1916Question

In April 1929, Bhagat Singh and Batukeshwar Dutt threw non-lethal smoke bombs from the visitors' gallery into the Central Legislative Assembly hall in New Delhi. Which pair of colonial legislative measures were actively being forced through the assembly and protested against during this demonstration?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: The Trade Disputes Bill and the Public Safety Bill

Answer

The Trade Disputes Bill and the Public Safety Bill were the two legislations being opposed by Bhagat Singh and Batukeshwar Dutt during the Assembly Bomb Case of April 8, 1929.
On April 8, 1929, Bhagat Singh and Batukeshwar Dutt dropped two low-intensity bombs in the Central Legislative Assembly to protest the passage of the Trade Disputes Bill and the Public Safety Bill. The Trade Disputes Bill aimed to outlaw sympathetic strikes and restrict trade union freedoms, while the Public Safety Bill sought to curb socialist and communist organization by authorizing detention without trial. Their stated intention was not to cause loss of life, but to broadcast their revolutionary manifesto to the nation.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the historical event described in the question stem.
The event is the Central Legislative Assembly Bomb Case carried out by the Hindustan Socialist Republican Association (HSRA) on April 8, 1929.
Establishing the precise historical context allows identification of the specific legislative agenda under debate on that day.
2
Recall the motives and leaflets distributed during the Assembly Bombing.
The HSRA planned the action to 'make the deaf hear' in response to anti-labor and repressive measures, specifically the Public Safety Bill and the Trade Disputes Bill.
The Trade Disputes Bill sought to restrict workers' right to strike, while the Public Safety Bill aimed to empower the British government to deport non-official socialist foreign supporters and detain Indian radicals without standard trial.

Key Concept

Central Legislative Assembly Bomb Case (1929) and anti-colonial labor/security legislation
Question 1917Question

Under which Article of the Constitution of India is the office of the Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) of India established?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Article 148

Answer

Article 148 establishes the office of the Comptroller and Auditor General of India.
The option specifying Article 148 is correct because Chapter V of Part V of the Constitution of India provides for the office, appointment, tenure, and duties of the Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG).

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the constitutional provisions relating to independent constitutional bodies.
Article 148 specifically prescribes an independent Comptroller and Auditor General of India appointed by the President.
The CAG acts as the guardian of the public purse and audits all expenditure from the Consolidated Fund of India.

Key Concept

Constitutional provisions for the Comptroller and Auditor General of India (Article 148)
Question 1918Question

Which of the following statements regarding the writ jurisdiction of the Supreme Court and High Courts under the Constitution of India are correct?

Select all that apply

Show answer & explanation

Answer: The Supreme Court can issue writs only for the enforcement of Fundamental Rights.; A High Court can issue writs for the enforcement of Fundamental Rights as well as for any other legal purpose.; Article 32 is itself a Fundamental Right, whereas Article 226 is not a Fundamental Right.

Answer

The statements stating that the Supreme Court can issue writs only for Fundamental Rights, that High Courts can issue writs for Fundamental Rights as well as any other legal purpose, and that Article 32 itself is a Fundamental Right while Article 226 is not, are all correct.
The Supreme Court's writ jurisdiction under Article 32 is limited to enforcing Fundamental Rights, and Article 32 itself resides in Part III as a Fundamental Right. Conversely, High Courts under Article 226 have a broader subject-matter scope to issue writs for both Fundamental Rights and any other legal rights, though Article 226 itself is not a Fundamental Right.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the constitutional mandate of Article 32 for the Supreme Court.
Article 32 is in Part III of the Constitution, making the right to move the Supreme Court for enforcement of Fundamental Rights itself a Fundamental Right. The Supreme Court cannot issue writs for ordinary legal rights under Article 32.
The scope of Article 32 is restricted to remedies for enforcement of Part III rights.
2
Analyze the constitutional mandate of Article 226 for High Courts.
Article 226 allows High Courts to issue writs for Fundamental Rights and 'for any other purpose', covering statutory and legal rights.
The phrase 'for any other purpose' broadens the remedial scope of High Courts beyond that of the Supreme Court.
3
Compare the scope of writ jurisdictions between Supreme Court and High Courts.
High Court writ jurisdiction is broader in legal scope than Supreme Court writ jurisdiction, though the Supreme Court's territorial jurisdiction spans all of India.
Supreme Court writ powers are confined to Fundamental Rights, whereas High Courts cover both Fundamental Rights and common legal rights.

Key Concept

Writ Jurisdiction of Supreme Court (Article 32) versus High Courts (Article 226)
Question 1919Question

Regarding the exclusive Original Jurisdiction of the Supreme Court of India under Article 131 of the Constitution, which of the following legal propositions accurately reflects its constitutional scope and judicial limitations?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: It is strictly confined to legal rights disputes between the constituent units of the Indian federation and does not extend to suits brought by private citizens or statutory public corporations.

Answer

The exclusive original jurisdiction under Article 131 is strictly confined to legal rights disputes between the constituent federal units (Union and States) and does not extend to suits brought by private citizens or statutory public corporations.
Article 131 of the Constitution endows the Supreme Court with exclusive original jurisdiction in disputes between federal units—the Union and States or among States—concerning legal rights. Judicial interpretation strictly limits 'State' to constituent governments of the federation, excluding statutory corporations, autonomous bodies, and private citizens.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Examine the requisite parties and subject matter for invoking Article 131.
Article 131 requires a dispute between the Government of India and one or more States, or between two or more States, centered on a question of legal right.
This establishes Article 131 as an exclusive federal forum for intergovernmental legal disputes.
2
Analyze judicial interpretation regarding the definition of 'State' under Article 131.
The Supreme Court ruled in landmark decisions (e.g., State of Bihar v. Union of India) that statutory corporations and private individuals do not constitute a 'State' for Article 131 suits.
Non-state entities must seek legal remedies through standard civil suits or writ petitions under Article 32 or Article 226.
3
Identify express constitutional exclusions under the proviso to Article 131.
Disputes arising from pre-constitutional treaties, covenants, engagements, or sanads are explicitly barred from the original jurisdiction of the Court.
Such historical disputes are reserved for executive resolution or advisory references under Article 143.

Key Concept

Scope and federal limitations of Supreme Court's Original Jurisdiction under Article 131
Estimated Time:2m 0s
Question 1920Question

With reference to the constitutional provisions governing Panchayati Raj under Part IX of the Constitution of India (73rd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992), consider the following statements:

1. The provisions of Part IX do not apply to the States of Nagaland, Meghalaya, and Mizoram.
2. Any law enacted by Parliament extending the provisions of Part IX to Scheduled Areas under Article 243M is deemed to be an amendment of the Constitution under Article 368.
3. Panchayats at the intermediate level may not be constituted in a State having a population not exceeding twenty lakhs.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: 1 and 3 only

Answer

Statements 1 and 3 are correct.
Statements 1 and 3 are correct. Under Article 243M(1), Part IX does not apply to the States of Nagaland, Meghalaya, and Mizoram. Under Article 243B(2), states with a population not exceeding 20 lakhs have the option of not establishing an intermediate-level Panchayat. Statement 2 is incorrect because Article 243M(4)(b) explicitly stipulates that laws extending Part IX provisions to Scheduled Areas shall not be deemed constitutional amendments under Article 368.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Evaluate Statement 1 regarding state exemptions under Part IX
Under Article 243M(1), Part IX of the Constitution does not apply to the States of Nagaland, Meghalaya, and Mizoram.
These states possess unique customary traditional councils and local governance frameworks, making standard Part IX provisions non-applicable.
2
Evaluate Statement 2 regarding parliamentary extension to Scheduled Areas and Article 368
Article 243M(4)(b) specifies that any law enacted by Parliament extending Part IX to Fifth Schedule areas (e.g., PESA Act, 1996) shall not be deemed to be an amendment of the Constitution for the purposes of Article 368.
This allows ordinary legislation to adapt Panchayati Raj features without requiring the formal constitutional amendment procedure.
3
Evaluate Statement 3 regarding intermediate Panchayat population threshold
Under Article 243B(2), Panchayats at the intermediate level (Block/Panchayat Samiti level) may not be constituted in a State having a population not exceeding twenty lakhs.
This provides structural flexibility to small states, allowing them to operate a two-tier system (Gram Panchayat and Zilla Parishad).

Key Concept

Exempted Areas (Article 243M) and Tier Exemptions (Article 243B) under the 73rd Amendment
Estimated Time:1m 30s
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