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Question 1921Question →

The Munda Ulgulan (Great Tumult) of 1899–1900 was one of the most prominent tribal rebellions against British colonial rule in Chota Nagpur. Which of the following statements regarding this uprising are correct?

Select all that apply

Show answer & explanation

Answer: It aimed to overthrow colonial rule, moneylenders, and landlords to re-establish tribal control and restore traditional 'Khuntkatti' land rights.; Birsa Munda initiated a socio-religious reform movement, asking his followers to give up alcohol, practice cleanliness, and worship a single god (Singbonga).

Answer

The correct statements are those highlighting the movement's goal to restore the traditional Khuntkatti system against landlords/British rule and Birsa Munda's socio-religious reform advocating monotheism and moral purity.
The Munda Ulgulan led by Birsa Munda fought against the erosion of the traditional Khuntkatti land system by feudal landlords and British officials. Simultaneously, Birsa Munda led a socio-religious reform movement that instructed tribal followers to abandon alcohol, maintain moral code, and worship one God, Singbonga.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the socio-economic objectives of the Munda Revolt
Identified that the revolt aimed at ending the harassment by dikus (outsiders) and restoring the traditional Khuntkatti communal landholding system.
Economic alienation and loss of customary land rights were the core triggers of the Ulgulan.
2
Evaluate Birsa Munda's socio-religious reforms
Confirmed that Birsa Munda preached monotheism (worship of Singbonga), moral cleanliness, and abandonment of superstitions and alcoholism.
Socio-religious reform was used to unite the tribal populace into a cohesive movement.
3
Verify the legislative aftermath of the rebellion
Recognized that the colonial government passed the Chota Nagpur Tenancy Act of 1908, not the 1885 Bengal Tenancy Act.
The Chota Nagpur Tenancy Act was specifically framed to safeguard tribal land rights and restrict land transfers to non-tribals.

Key Concept

Munda Ulgulan (1899–1900) under Birsa Munda: Causes, nature, socio-religious aspects, and legislative consequences.
Estimated Time:1m 30s
Question 1922Question →

Which of the following statements regarding the legal status, amendability, and historical adoption of the Preamble to the Constitution of India are correct?

Select all that apply

Show answer & explanation

Answer: The Supreme Court of India ruled in the Kesavananda Bharati case (1973) that the Preamble is an integral part of the Constitution, departing from its earlier view in the Berubari Union case (1960).; The Preamble can be amended under Article 368 of the Constitution, provided that such an amendment does not alter or destroy its basic structural features.

Answer

The correct statements are that the Supreme Court affirmed the Preamble as an integral part of the Constitution in the Kesavananda Bharati case (1973), and that the Preamble can be amended under Article 368 without altering its basic structure.
The correct statements accurately reflect Indian constitutional jurisprudence: the Supreme Court established in Kesavananda Bharati (1973) that the Preamble is an integral part of the Constitution (overruling the 1960 Berubari opinion), and that while it can be amended under Article 368, such amendments cannot alter its basic structure.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Evaluate the statement regarding judicial precedent on the legal status of the Preamble.
In the Berubari Union case (1960), the Supreme Court viewed the Preamble as a key to the minds of the framers but not a part of the Constitution. In the Kesavananda Bharati case (1973), this was overruled, declaring the Preamble an integral part of the Constitution. This statement is correct.
Tracking judicial evolution is necessary to determine the legal standing of the Preamble.
2
Assess the justiciability and enforceability of the Preamble.
The Preamble is neither a source of power to the legislature nor a prohibition upon the powers of the legislature. It is non-justiciable, meaning its provisions are not enforceable in courts of law. This statement is incorrect.
Constitutional law explicitly distinguishes between justiciable rights and non-justiciable constitutional declarations.
3
Examine the amendability of the Preamble under Article 368.
The Supreme Court held that the Preamble can be amended under Article 368, subject to the condition that the 'basic structure' reflected in the Preamble (such as sovereign, democratic, republic nature) is not destroyed. This statement is correct.
Article 368 power is bounded by the Basic Structure doctrine established in 1973.
4
Verify the historical sequence of the adoption of the Preamble by the Constituent Assembly.
Although founded on the Objectives Resolution introduced in December 1946, the Preamble itself was passed by the Constituent Assembly after the rest of the Constitution was finalized to ensure harmony. This statement is incorrect.
Chronological order in the Constituent Assembly proceedings is vital for historical accuracy.

Key Concept

Legal status, justiciability, amendability, and historical adoption of the Preamble to the Indian Constitution.
Question 1923Question →

Consider the following statements regarding the 'Ashtapradhan' administrative council and revenue system established under Chhatrapati Shivaji Maharaj:

1. The Peshwa was responsible for the general administration and finance of the kingdom.
2. The Sumant (Dabir) held charge of military affairs, troop recruitment, and army organization.
3. 'Sardeshmukhi' was an additional ten percent levy claimed on land revenue based on the ruler's assertion of hereditary rights over the region.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: 1 and 3 only

Answer

Statements 1 and 3 only are correct.
The combination specifying statements 1 and 3 only is correct. Under Shivaji Maharaj's Ashtapradhan council, the Peshwa served as the prime minister overseeing civil and financial administration. 'Sardeshmukhi' was indeed an additional 10% tax collected on top of 'Chauth' (25%), justified by Shivaji's claim to hereditary suzerainty. Statement 2 is false because the Sumant (Dabir) was the foreign minister, whereas military administration fell under the Senapati (Sarnaubat).

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze Statement 1 regarding the Peshwa's portfolio.
The Peshwa (Mukhya Pradhan) was the Prime Minister responsible for overall administration, civil affairs, and state finance.
Verifies that Statement 1 is accurate.
2
Analyze Statement 2 regarding the Sumant (Dabir).
The Sumant (Dabir) handled foreign affairs, foreign dignitaries, and diplomatic relations. Military recruitment and defense were led by the Senapati (Sarnaubat).
Identifies Statement 2 as incorrect due to portfolio misattribution.
3
Analyze Statement 3 regarding Maratha revenue demands.
Sardeshmukhi was an extra 10% tax levied on lands outside the core territory based on Shivaji's claim as the Sar-Deshmukh (head headman).
Verifies that Statement 3 is accurate.

Key Concept

Maratha Administration: Ashtapradhan Council Portfolios and Revenue Systems
Question 1924Question →

With reference to the legislative procedure in a bicameral Indian state, for what maximum duration can the Legislative Council delay an Ordinary Bill passed by the Legislative Assembly when the bill is presented to it for the first time?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: 3 months

Answer

The maximum period for which the Legislative Council can delay an Ordinary Bill on its first presentation is 3 months.
According to Article 197 of the Constitution of India, the Legislative Assembly holds overarching authority over Ordinary Bills. When an Ordinary Bill passed by the Legislative Assembly is sent to the Legislative Council for the first time, the Council has four choices: pass it, reject it, suggest amendments, or take no action. In cases of rejection, amendment conflict, or inaction, the Council can delay the bill for a maximum period of 3 months. If the Assembly passes the bill again and sends it to the Council a second time, the Council can only delay it for 1 additional month, making the maximum total delay 4 months.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the relevant constitutional provision for state legislative procedure regarding ordinary bills.
Article 197 of the Constitution of India specifies the restriction on powers of the Legislative Council as to bills other than Money Bills.
Different rules apply to Money Bills (Article 198) and Ordinary Bills (Article 197).
2
Examine the timeline limits imposed on the Legislative Council for the first instance of bill transmission.
When an Ordinary Bill is passed by the Legislative Assembly and transmitted to the Legislative Council, the Council can keep the bill for up to 3 months without passing it.
Article 197(1) mandates that if 3 months elapse from the date on which the bill is laid before the Council without being passed, the Assembly may pass it a second time.
3
Distinguish between the first instance delay and the total cumulative delay possible.
The initial delay limit is 3 months. If re-passed by the Assembly, the Council can delay it for 1 additional month (total 4 months maximum cumulative delay).
The question specifically asks about the first time the bill is presented to the Council.

Key Concept

Powers of State Legislative Council regarding Ordinary Bills under Article 197
Estimated Time:1m 0s
Question 1925Question →

Historically, the cotton textile industry in India was heavily localized in the Mumbai-Ahmedabad region. In subsequent decades, a significant decentralization occurred, with major spinning and weaving centers emerging in Tamil Nadu, Uttar Pradesh, and Punjab. Which of the following combinations of factors best explains this geographical dispersal of the cotton textile industry across India?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Adoption of artificial humidification technology, expansion of the electricity power grid, and growth of interior market demand

Answer

Adoption of artificial humidification technology, expansion of the electricity power grid, and growth of interior market demand
The cotton textile industry is a non-weight-losing industry (1 ton of raw cotton produces approximately 1 ton of cloth). Consequently, it is a footloose industry that can be located near raw materials, market centres, or cheap power sources. The development of artificial humidifiers enabled mills to function in dry interior climates, while widespread electrification and expanding regional markets led to decentralization across Tamil Nadu (Coimbatore), Uttar Pradesh (Kanpur), and Punjab (Ludhiana).

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze historical locational factors of the cotton textile industry
Initially localized in Mumbai and Ahmedabad due to raw cotton availability, humid climate (preventing yarn breakage), port facilities, and capital access.
Understanding initial concentration factors helps identify what changed to allow dispersion.
2
Identify key technological and infrastructure developments facilitating decentralization
Artificial humidification solved the climate constraint, power development (hydro/thermal) freed mills from coal/port dependence, and market expansion made footloose location viable.
Cotton yarn/cloth is a non-weight-losing material, making proximity to market and cheap power primary drivers.

Key Concept

Locational Dynamics and Decentralization of the Indian Cotton Textile Industry
Estimated Time:1m 0s
Question 1926Question →

Match the statutory acts and bodies related to governance in List-I with their respective specific administrative provisions or structural amendments in List-II:

Click a left item, then click its matching right item

Items

Central Vigilance Commission Act, 2003
Protection of Human Rights (Amendment) Act, 2019
Right to Information (Amendment) Act, 2019
Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act, 2013

Matches

Show answer & explanation

Answer

The Central Vigilance Commission Act, 2003 pairs with the whistle-blower disclosure agency designation; the Protection of Human Rights (Amendment) Act, 2019 pairs with reducing the NHRC members' tenure to 3 years with re-appointment eligibility; the Right to Information (Amendment) Act, 2019 pairs with removing fixed 5-year terms in favor of terms prescribed by the Central Government; and the Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act, 2013 pairs with the specific five-member Selection Committee composition.
Each legislation is correctly matched with its specific legal and administrative amendment: CVC Act (2003) empowered the CVC under PIDPI whistle-blower protection; PHRA (2019) reduced NHRC tenure from 5 to 3 years; RTI Amendment Act (2019) allowed executive regulation of commissioner tenure; and the Lokpal Act (2013) established the statutory 5-member appointment panel.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze Central Vigilance Commission Act, 2003
Identified statutory role under PIDPI resolution
The CVC Act, 2003 established CVC as a statutory body oversight mechanism for corruption investigations and whistle-blower complaint handling.
2
Analyze Protection of Human Rights (Amendment) Act, 2019
Identified tenure reduction from 5 to 3 years for NHRC members
The 2019 amendment specifically lowered the tenure limit to 3 years while allowing re-appointment.
3
Analyze Right to Information (Amendment) Act, 2019
Identified federal rulemaking authority over tenure and salaries of Information Commissioners
The 2019 RTI amendment removed fixed statutory tenure (5 years) and tied salaries to central government rules instead of Election Commission parity.
4
Analyze Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act, 2013
Identified statutory appointment committee structure
Section 4 lays down the multi-member panel including the PM, Speaker, Leader of Opposition, CJI/nominee, and eminent jurist.

Key Concept

Statutory Bodies, Tenure Rules, Selection Committees, and Public Governance Amendments
Estimated Time:2m 0s
Question 1927Question →

Consider the following statements regarding the structural and relief characteristics of the Peninsular Plateau of India:

1. The Western Ghats are continuous and can be crossed through passes only, whereas the Eastern Ghats are discontinuous and dissected by major east-flowing rivers.
2. The average elevation of the Western Ghats decreases progressively from north to south.
3. The Eastern Ghats join the Western Ghats at the Nilgiri Hills.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: 1 and 3 only

Answer

Statements 1 and 3 are correct.
The Western Ghats form a continuous relief bar crossed only via specific passes, whereas the Eastern Ghats are discontinuous due to severe river dissection. The two ranges join at the Nilgiri Hills. The statement asserting a northward-to-southward decrease in elevation for the Western Ghats is false because the elevation actually increases southwards.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the structural continuity and drainage impacts on both Ghats (Statement 1).
Statement 1 is true. The Western Ghats form a continuous escarpment traversed primarily through mountain passes (e.g., Thal Ghat, Bhor Ghat, Palghat). In contrast, the Eastern Ghats are highly fragmented and eroded by major east-flowing rivers such as the Mahanadi, Godavari, Krishna, and Kaveri.
Denudational processes and river incision have breached the Eastern Ghats into separate hill massifs.
2
Evaluate the elevation gradient of the Western Ghats from North to South (Statement 2).
Statement 2 is false. The average elevation of the Western Ghats increases southward.
The highest peaks of the Peninsular region, such as Anamudi (2,695 m) and Doddabetta (2,637 m), are located in the southern section of the Western Ghats.
3
Identify the geographical convergence zone of the Western and Eastern Ghats (Statement 3).
Statement 3 is true. The Eastern Ghats meet the Western Ghats at the Nilgiri complex.
The Nilgiri mountain block acts as the knot where both mountain systems converge.

Key Concept

Comparative physiography and relief features of the Western and Eastern Ghats
Estimated Time:1m 15s
Question 1928Question →

Consider the following statements regarding the nature and enforceability of Fundamental Rights (Part III) and Directive Principles of State Policy (Part IV) under the Constitution of India:

1. Fundamental Rights primarily operate as negative obligations restricting State action, whereas Directive Principles serve as positive obligations directing State action toward welfare goals.
2. Any law enacted by Parliament to implement any Directive Principle automatically overrides all Fundamental Rights contained in Part III.
3. A law cannot be declared unconstitutional by courts solely on the ground that it violates or fails to implement a Directive Principle of State Policy.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: 1 and 3 only

Answer

Statements 1 and 3 are correct, while Statement 2 is incorrect.
Statement 1 accurately reflects the functional distinction: Fundamental Rights limit State authority to protect individual freedoms (negative obligations), whereas Directive Principles instruct the State to act positively toward socio-economic welfare. Statement 3 correctly identifies that because Directive Principles are non-justiciable (Article 37), courts cannot invalidate legislation solely for contravening Part IV provisions.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Evaluate Statement 1 on the constitutional nature of Part III and Part IV provisions.
Statement 1 is correct.
Fundamental Rights mostly act as negative injunctions against arbitrary State actions (e.g., Article 14, 15, 21), whereas Directive Principles (Part IV) lay down affirmative, positive guidelines for creating a social and economic democracy.
2
Evaluate Statement 2 regarding the hierarchy and overriding capacity of DPSPs over Part III rights.
Statement 2 is incorrect.
Laws implementing DPSPs do not enjoy blanket immunity or automatic precedence over all Fundamental Rights. Under Article 31C, only laws giving effect to Article 39(b) and 39(c) are protected against Articles 14 and 19, provided they do not destroy the basic structure of the Constitution.
3
Evaluate Statement 3 regarding judicial review and enforceability of non-justiciable principles.
Statement 3 is correct.
According to Article 37, Directive Principles are non-justiciable and non-enforceable by any court. Thus, courts cannot invalidate an Act of Parliament purely because it fails to fulfill a DPSP.

Key Concept

Harmony and Balance between Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles of State Policy
Question 1929Question →

During the South-West monsoon season in India, a temporary interruption in rainfall known as a 'monsoon break' occurs when the low-pressure monsoon trough shifts northward toward the Himalayan foothills. Which of the following spatial rainfall distribution patterns best characterizes the Indian subcontinent during such a break period?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Heavy rainfall becomes concentrated along the Himalayan foothills and parts of Northeast India, while rainfall decreases significantly over the central and northern Indian plains.

Answer

Heavy rainfall becomes concentrated along the Himalayan foothills and parts of Northeast India, while rainfall decreases significantly over the central and northern Indian plains.
During the months of July and August, when the monsoon trough shifts northward to lie close to the foothills of the Himalayas, a 'break' in the monsoon occurs over major parts of India. During this phase, rainfall decreases substantially over the central, western, and northern plains, whereas heavy rainfall becomes concentrated along the Himalayan foothills, Northeastern states, and the catchment areas of Himalayan rivers, often causing floods in these regions.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the meteorological feature described in the stem.
The stem describes a 'monsoon break' caused by the northward displacement of the monsoon trough.
Understanding the position of the monsoon trough is essential for determining spatial rainfall changes.
2
Analyze the atmospheric dynamics of the northward trough displacement.
When the monsoon trough moves north toward the Himalayas, moisture-laden winds encounter the mountainous barrier, resulting in heavy rainfall along the foothills.
Topographic uplift along the Himalayas enhances precipitation locally while rain-bearing depressions fail to form over the plains.
3
Determine the impact on the rest of the country.
With the trough displaced from the central plains, dry spells prevail over central, northern, and western India.
The absence of low-pressure cyclonic disturbances over central India leads to a temporary suppression of widespread rainfall.

Key Concept

Monsoon Break Dynamics and Spatial Rainfall Variation
Question 1930Question →

The 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992 laid down both compulsory (mandatory) provisions that all state governments must incorporate into their local laws, and voluntary provisions left to the discretion of state legislatures. Which of the following are compulsory provisions under the 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act? Select all correct provisions.

Select all that apply

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Indirect election to the post of Chairperson of Panchayats at the intermediate and district levels; Constitution of a State Finance Commission every five years to review the financial position of Panchayats

Answer

The compulsory provisions under the 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act are the indirect election of the chairperson at intermediate and district Panchayat levels, and the establishment of a State Finance Commission every five years.
The compulsory provisions under the 73rd Amendment Act include: (1) Indirect election of Panchayat chairpersons at intermediate and district levels (Article 243C), and (2) Periodic constitution of a State Finance Commission every 5 years (Article 243I). Both are mandatory constitutional obligations for state governments.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Categorize each option into compulsory versus voluntary provisions of Part IX of the Indian Constitution.
Identify constitutional mandates under Articles 243C, 243D, 243G, and 243I.
The 73rd Amendment created a dual framework where certain structural/electoral rules are binding while functional devolution and OBC reservations remain state options.
2
Evaluate the provision regarding indirect election of chairpersons at intermediate and district levels.
Confirmed as a compulsory provision under Article 243C(5)(b).
While village-level chairperson election method is left to states, intermediate and district chairperson elections are strictly indirect by constitutional mandate.
3
Evaluate the provision regarding State Finance Commission constitution.
Confirmed as a compulsory provision under Article 243I.
The 5-year periodic constitution of the State Finance Commission by the Governor is a non-negotiable constitutional requirement.
4
Evaluate the remaining options regarding OBC reservations and Eleventh Schedule devolution.
Both are identified as voluntary provisions under Articles 243D(6) and 243G respectively.
State legislatures hold discretionary authority over whether and how much power or specific reservations for backward classes to grant.

Key Concept

Distinction between Compulsory and Voluntary Provisions of the 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992
Question 1931Question →

Under Article 312 of the Constitution of India, which body holds the exclusive power to pass a resolution enabling the Parliament to create one or more All-India Services common to both the Union and the States?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Rajya Sabha

Answer

Rajya Sabha is the correct answer because Article 312 of the Constitution uniquely empowers the Council of States (Rajya Sabha) to initiate a resolution for creating new All-India Services.
The Rajya Sabha represents the States in the federal structure. Under Article 312, if the Rajya Sabha declares by resolution supported by not less than two-thirds of the members present and voting that it is necessary or expedient in the national interest, Parliament may by law provide for the creation of one or more All-India Services.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the relevant constitutional provision regarding All-India Services
Article 312 deals with the creation of All-India Services.
The Constitution specifies distinct federal provisions for services common to the Union and States.
2
Determine which house of Parliament holds the exclusive initiating power
Rajya Sabha represents the interests of the States and is granted the special power to pass a resolution by a two-thirds majority authorizing Parliament to legislate on All-India Services.
Creating an All-India Service impacts State administration, making the consent of the State-representing house mandatory.

Key Concept

Exclusive Federal Powers of Rajya Sabha under Article 312
Question 1932Question →

Arrange the following key milestones in India's economic planning history and structural reforms in correct chronological order from earliest to latest:

Drag items to arrange them in the correct order

Show answer & explanation

Answer

The correct chronological order is: Establishment of the Planning Commission of India (1950) → Launch of the First Five-Year Plan (1951) → Implementation of LPG Structural Reforms (1991) → Establishment of NITI Aayog (2015).
The correct sequence follows the historical progression of Indian economic policy: The Planning Commission was set up in March 1950, followed by the initiation of the First Five-Year Plan in April 1951. Decades later, India undertook landmark LPG structural reforms in July 1991. Finally, NITI Aayog was established on January 1, 2015, replacing the Planning Commission.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the year of the Planning Commission's establishment
The Planning Commission was established in March 1950.
This marked the official beginning of state-led planned economic development in post-independence India.
2
Identify the start year of the First Five-Year Plan
The First Five-Year Plan covered the period from 1951 to 1956.
It was launched shortly after setting up the Planning Commission.
3
Identify the timeline of major LPG structural reforms
The New Economic Policy introducing LPG reforms was unveiled in July 1991.
This occurred in response to the severe balance of payments crisis of 1991.
4
Identify the date NITI Aayog came into existence
NITI Aayog replaced the Planning Commission on January 1, 2015.
It was established to foster cooperative federalism and bottom-up policy planning.
5
Sequence the events from earliest to latest year
1950 → 1951 → 1991 → 2015.
Arranging the years chronologically yields the final sequence.

Key Concept

Chronology of Economic Planning and Reforms in India
Question 1933Question →

With reference to the lawmaking procedure for financial bills in the Indian Parliament, consider the following statements:

1. A Financial Bill (Category I) under Article 117(1) can be introduced only in the Lok Sabha and requires the prior recommendation of the President.
2. A Financial Bill (Category II) under Article 117(3) can be introduced in either House of Parliament without the prior recommendation of the President for its introduction.
3. Unlike a Financial Bill (Category I), a Financial Bill (Category II) cannot be rejected or amended by the Rajya Sabha once passed by the Lok Sabha.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: 1 and 2 only

Answer

Statements 1 and 2 are correct, while statement 3 is incorrect.
The correct combination includes the first and second statements only. Under Article 117(1), Category I Financial Bills share two characteristics with Money Bills: they must originate in the Lok Sabha and require the recommendation of the President. Under Article 117(3), Category II Financial Bills can originate in either House without prior presidential recommendation at introduction. Category II bills are ordinary in all legislative aspects, meaning the Rajya Sabha holds full powers of amendment and rejection.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze Statement 1 regarding Financial Bill (Category I) under Article 117(1)
Statement 1 is correct. Article 117(1) specifies that a Financial Bill (I), which contains matters listed in Article 110 along with general legislative provisions, can only be introduced in the Lok Sabha and requires the prior recommendation of the President.
Establishing the constitutional prerequisites for introducing a Category I financial bill.
2
Analyze Statement 2 regarding Financial Bill (Category II) under Article 117(3)
Statement 2 is correct. A Financial Bill (II) contains provisions involving expenditure from the Consolidated Fund of India but no Article 110 matters. It can originate in either House and does not require the President's prior recommendation for introduction (though recommendation is needed before consideration/passing).
Evaluating the introduction procedure for Category II financial bills.
3
Analyze Statement 3 regarding Rajya Sabha's powers over Financial Bill (Category II)
Statement 3 is incorrect. A Financial Bill (Category II) is governed by the ordinary bill procedure in all respects. The Rajya Sabha possesses equal powers to amend or reject it, and deadlocks can be resolved via a joint sitting under Article 108.
Distinguishing the powers of the Rajya Sabha over money bills versus ordinary/financial bills.

Key Concept

Distinction between Money Bills, Financial Bills (Category I under Article 117(1)), and Financial Bills (Category II under Article 117(3))
Estimated Time:2m 0s
Question 1934Question →

Under the Constitution of India, when the Vice-President acts as President or discharges the functions of the President during a casual vacancy in the office of the President, which of the following constitutional provisions correctly applies to the Vice-President during this period?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: The Vice-President ceases to perform the duties of the Chairman of the Council of States and is entitled to the emoluments, privileges, and powers of the President of India.

Answer

The Vice-President ceases to perform the duties of the Chairman of the Council of States and is entitled to the emoluments, privileges, and powers of the President of India.
Under Article 64 and Article 65(3) of the Constitution of India, whenever the Vice-President acts as President or discharges the functions of the President, they cease to perform the duties of the ex-officio Chairman of the Council of States (Rajya Sabha). During this period, the Vice-President is entitled to all powers, immunities, privileges, and emoluments associated with the office of the President of India.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the constitutional provisions of Article 64 and Article 65 regarding the Vice-President acting as President.
Article 65(1) states that during a casual vacancy due to death, resignation, or removal of the President, the Vice-President acts as President until a new President takes office.
To determine the structural shift in the Vice-President's role.
2
Examine the status of the Vice-President's ex-officio role as Chairman of the Council of States (Rajya Sabha).
Article 64 (proviso) specifies that during any period when the Vice-President acts as President, the Vice-President shall not perform the duties of the office of Chairman of the Council of States.
To verify whether legislative duties continue during executive discharge.
3
Evaluate the financial entitlements, immunities, and powers of the Vice-President during this interim period under Article 65(3).
The Vice-President has all powers and immunities of the President and is entitled to emoluments, allowances, and privileges specified in the Second Schedule or determined by Parliament.
To confirm complete assumption of presidential authority and remuneration.

Key Concept

Constitutional provisions governing the Vice-President acting as President under Articles 64 and 65
Question 1935Question →

Match each Constitutional Body in List-I with its corresponding Article of the Constitution of India in List-II:

Click a left item, then click its matching right item

Items

Election Commission of India
Comptroller and Auditor General of India
Union Public Service Commission
Finance Commission of India

Matches

Show answer & explanation

Answer

The correct matches are: Election Commission of India matches with Article 324; Comptroller and Auditor General of India matches with Article 148; Union Public Service Commission matches with Article 315; and Finance Commission of India matches with Article 280.
Each constitutional body in India is established by a specific article of the Constitution. The Election Commission is anchored in Article 324, the Comptroller and Auditor General of India in Article 148, the Union Public Service Commission in Article 315, and the Finance Commission in Article 280.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the constitutional article for the Election Commission of India
Part XV, Article 324 governs the Election Commission of India.
Article 324 establishes the body responsible for conducting free and fair elections.
2
Identify the constitutional article for the Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG)
Part V, Article 148 governs the Comptroller and Auditor General of India.
Article 148 creates the CAG as the guardian of the public purse.
3
Identify the constitutional article for the Union Public Service Commission (UPSC)
Part XIV, Article 315 governs the Union and State Public Service Commissions.
Article 315 mandates the establishment of Public Service Commissions for recruitment to civil services.
4
Identify the constitutional article for the Finance Commission of India
Part XII, Article 280 governs the Finance Commission.
Article 280 provides for a quasi-judicial body to recommend tax distribution between the Union and States.

Key Concept

Constitutional Articles Governing Key Bodies in India
Question 1936Question →

Under the Constitution of India, which article explicitly grants every High Court the power of superintendence over all subordinate courts and tribunals within its territorial jurisdiction?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Article 227

Answer

Article 227 grants every High Court the power of superintendence over all courts and tribunals within its territorial jurisdiction.
Article 227 of the Constitution of India explicitly provides that every High Court shall have superintendence over all courts and tribunals throughout the territories in relation to which it exercises jurisdiction. This encompasses both administrative supervision and judicial oversight.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the targeted judicial power in the stem
The requirement is to identify the constitutional provision for a High Court's superintendence over subordinate courts and tribunals.
The Indian Constitution specifies separate articles for writ powers, appellate provisions, and supervisory administrative control.
2
Evaluate the constitutional articles
Article 227 specifically deals with the power of superintendence over all courts and tribunals by the High Court.
This power extends both judicially and administratively over bodies operating within the territorial jurisdiction of the High Court.

Key Concept

High Court Supervisory Jurisdiction under Article 227
Question 1937Question →

Match the given Constitutional Articles concerning the Supreme Court of India with their corresponding structural mandates:

Click a left item, then click its matching right item

Items

Article 137
Article 141
Article 142
Article 144

Matches

Show answer & explanation

Answer

Article 137 matches with the power of review; Article 141 matches with binding precedent across all courts; Article 142 matches with the mandate to pass decrees for doing complete justice; and Article 144 matches with the constitutional directive that civil and judicial authorities act in aid of the Supreme Court.
The pairing accurately reflects the specific constitutional mandates: Article 137 grants review powers over Supreme Court judgments; Article 141 codifies the binding nature of Supreme Court law across all Indian courts; Article 142 supplies plenary power to achieve complete justice; and Article 144 obligates all civil and judicial authorities to support and enforce Supreme Court rulings.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze Article 137
Identified as the constitutional provision authorizing the Supreme Court to review its own judgments and orders.
This establishes a specific exception to the general doctrine of finality of judicial decisions.
2
Analyze Article 141
Identified as the provision declaring Supreme Court decisions as binding precedent on all courts in India.
This serves as the core foundation of judicial consistency and judicial federalism in India.
3
Analyze Article 142
Identified as conferring inherent powers to do 'complete justice'.
This article provides plenary equitable jurisdiction that can transcend technical statutory limitations when fundamental rights or constitutional values are at stake.
4
Analyze Article 144
Identified as the mandatory instruction to civil and judicial authorities to act in aid of the court.
This ensures executive and judicial machinery across all state and central departments enforce Supreme Court judgments.

Key Concept

Constitutional Powers and Jurisdictional Mandates of the Supreme Court of India
Question 1938Question →

Which of the following statements regarding the Hindustan Republican Association (HRA) established during the 1920s are correct?

Select all that apply

Show answer & explanation

Answer: It was founded in Kanpur in October 1924 by revolutionary leaders including Sachindra Nath Sanyal, Ram Prasad Bismil, and Jogesh Chandra Chatterji.; Its official manifesto, titled 'The Revolutionary', proclaimed the goal of establishing a Federal Republic of the United States of India.

Answer

The statements confirming its founding at Kanpur in October 1924 by Sachindra Nath Sanyal and others, and its manifesto 'The Revolutionary' aiming for a Federal Republic of the United States of India, are correct.
The statements asserting that the HRA was founded in Kanpur in October 1924 by Sachindra Nath Sanyal, Ram Prasad Bismil, and Jogesh Chandra Chatterji, and that its manifesto 'The Revolutionary' declared the objective of establishing a Federal Republic of the United States of India, accurately capture the founding details and political vision of the movement.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Evaluate the founding origins and key architects of the HRA.
Confirm that the Hindustan Republican Association was established in Kanpur in October 1924 by leaders such as Sachindra Nath Sanyal, Ram Prasad Bismil, and Jogesh Chandra Chatterji.
This establishes historical accuracy regarding its founding context.
2
Examine the programmatic manifesto and constitutional objective of the HRA.
Confirm that its manifesto, 'The Revolutionary' (authored by Sachindra Nath Sanyal in 1925), advocated for an end to colonial rule and proposed a Federal Republic of the United States of India.
The manifesto outlined both political goals and democratic principles like universal suffrage.
3
Analyze the subsequent trajectory and organization of the HRA after Kakori.
Recognize that despite major setbacks during the Kakori trial, the HRA evolved into the HSRA in 1928 rather than disbanding, and was independent of the Indian National Congress.
Differentiates revolutionary organizations from non-violent Congress leadership and identifies the 1928 Feroz Shah Kotla reorganization.

Key Concept

Hindustan Republican Association (HRA) founding, ideology, and manifesto
Question 1939Question →

Consider the following statements regarding statutory accountability bodies and governance frameworks in India:

1. The Selection Committee for the appointment of the Lokpal includes the Leader of the Opposition in the Rajya Sabha as an ex-officio member alongside the Speaker of the Lok Sabha.
2. Under the Right to Information (Amendment) Act, 2019, the term of office and conditions of service of the Chief Information Commissioner and Information Commissioners are prescribed by the Central Government rather than being fixed by statute at 5 years.
3. The Central Vigilance Commissioner holds office for a term of 4 years from the date of entering office or until attaining the age of 65 years, whichever is earlier.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: 2 and 3 only

Answer

Statements 2 and 3 are correct.
The option selecting 2 and 3 only is correct because the RTI (Amendment) Act, 2019 replaced the fixed five-year tenure with terms prescribed by the Central Government, and the CVC Act, 2003 explicitly lays down a tenure of 4 years or up to 65 years of age. Statement 1 is incorrect because the Lokpal Selection Committee includes the Leader of Opposition in the Lok Sabha, not the Rajya Sabha.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze Statement 1 regarding the composition of the Lokpal Selection Committee under the Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act, 2013.
Statement 1 is incorrect. According to Section 4(1) of the Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act, 2013, the Selection Committee consists of the Prime Minister (Chairperson), the Speaker of the Lok Sabha, the Leader of Opposition in the Lok Sabha, the Chief Justice of India (or a Supreme Court judge nominated by CJI), and an eminent jurist. It does NOT include the Leader of Opposition in the Rajya Sabha.
Verify statutory membership provisions of the Lokpal appointment committee.
2
Analyze Statement 2 regarding the Right to Information (Amendment) Act, 2019.
Statement 2 is correct. The 2019 amendment modified Sections 13 and 16 of the RTI Act, 2005, removing the statutory 5-year fixed tenure and linking the term of office, salaries, and allowances of Information Commissioners to rules notified by the Central Government.
Confirm legislative changes introduced by statutory amendments to the RTI framework.
3
Analyze Statement 3 regarding the tenure of the Central Vigilance Commissioner under the CVC Act, 2003.
Statement 3 is correct. Under Section 4 of the Central Vigilance Commission Act, 2003, the Central Vigilance Commissioner holds office for a term of 4 years or until reaching 65 years of age, whichever occurs first.
Verify tenure specifications for the Central Vigilance Commission.

Key Concept

Statutory provisions, appointment committee compositions, and tenure rules governing Indian public policy and anti-corruption bodies (Lokpal, CVC, and CIC).
Question 1940Question →

Match the Constitutional Provisions listed under List-I with their corresponding descriptions or scope listed under List-II:

Click a left item, then click its matching right item

Items

Article 39A
Article 43B
Article 51A(h)
Article 31C

Matches

Show answer & explanation

Answer

The correct pairings are: Article 39A matches with Equal justice and free legal aid to the poor; Article 43B matches with Promotion of voluntary formation and autonomous functioning of co-operative societies; Article 51A(h) matches with Duty to develop the scientific temper, humanism, and the spirit of inquiry and reform; and Article 31C matches with Saving of laws giving effect to certain directive principles.
Article 39A relates to equal justice and free legal aid; Article 43B directs the promotion of co-operative societies; Article 51A(h) outlines the duty regarding scientific temper and humanism; and Article 31C shields laws implementing certain Directive Principles.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the provision under Article 39A.
Article 39A mandates equal justice and free legal aid to underprivileged citizens.
It was incorporated into Part IV (DPSP) via the 42nd Amendment Act of 1976.
2
Identify the provision under Article 43B.
Article 43B promotes the voluntary formation, autonomous functioning, and professional management of co-operative societies.
It was introduced into Part IV (DPSP) by the 97th Amendment Act of 2011.
3
Examine the scope of Article 51A(h).
Article 51A(h) explicitly defines the duty of citizens to foster scientific temper, humanism, and inquiry.
Part IVA enumerates Fundamental Duties added upon the recommendation of the Swaran Singh Committee.
4
Determine the constitutional function of Article 31C.
Article 31C saves legislation giving effect to socialistic directive principles in Article 39(b) and (c) from being invalidated by Articles 14 and 19.
It creates an exception to Fundamental Rights to uphold key Directive Principles.

Key Concept

Constitutional provisions and amendment history of Fundamental Rights, Directive Principles of State Policy, and Fundamental Duties
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