Examkin

Environment, Ecology and Biodiversity

139 questions

All types139Multiple choice73Multiple select24Matching26Ordering16
Question 121Question →

Regarding specialized environmental monitoring, enforcement, and eco-restoration institutions operating under the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEFCC) in India, which of the following statements are correct?

Select all that apply

Show answer & explanation

Answer: The Wildlife Crime Control Bureau (WCCB) is a statutory multi-disciplinary body constituted under the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972, to combat organized wildlife crime.; The National Afforestation and Eco-Development Board (NAEB) focuses specifically on the regeneration of degraded forest areas and eco-restoration of adjoining lands.

Answer

The correct statements are the one describing the Wildlife Crime Control Bureau as a statutory body under the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972, and the one identifying the mandate of the National Afforestation and Eco-Development Board regarding degraded forest land restoration.
The Wildlife Crime Control Bureau (WCCB) is indeed a statutory body under Section 50Y of the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972. The National Afforestation and Eco-Development Board (NAEB), set up in 1992, specifically works to restore degraded forest lands and eco-sensitive areas.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the legal status of the Wildlife Crime Control Bureau (WCCB).
WCCB was constituted under Section 50Y of the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972, making it a statutory multi-disciplinary intelligence and enforcement body.
Verifying statutory authorization under national wildlife protection legislation.
2
Evaluate the administrative nature of the Forest Survey of India (FSI).
FSI originated from the Pre-Investment Survey of Forest Resources (PISFR) and functions as an attached subordinate office of MoEFCC. It is not a statutory body under the Forest (Conservation) Act, 1980.
Distinguishing executive subordinate agencies from statutory bodies enacted by parliamentary statutes.
3
Assess the institutional mandate of the National Afforestation and Eco-Development Board (NAEB).
NAEB was established in 1992 specifically to promote eco-restoration and regeneration of degraded forests and eco-sensitive zones.
Confirming core focus areas of environmental development boards in India.
4
Check the organizational structure of SACON.
SACON was formed as an autonomous registered society under the Societies Registration Act, 1860, not as a statutory parliamentary body.
Preventing confusion between registered societies/autonomous institutes and statutory organizations.

Key Concept

Classification, statutory framework, and specific mandates of key Indian environmental organizations (WCCB, FSI, NAEB, SACON).
Question 122Question →

With reference to the structural and functional attributes of ecological systems, evaluate the following assertions:

I. The standing crop of an ecosystem refers to the total amount of inorganic nutrients present in the soil or water column at any given time.
II. In deep aquatic ecosystems, the pyramid of biomass can be inverted because the turnover rate of primary producers is exceptionally high relative to primary consumers.
III. The realised niche of a species is typically broader than its fundamental niche because interspecific competition forces the species to expand its resource utilization.

Which of the assertions given above is/are correct?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: II only

Answer

Only assertion II is correct. The standing crop refers to living organic material (biomass), whereas standing state refers to inorganic nutrients. The realised niche is narrower than the fundamental niche due to competition.
Only the assertion stating that the pyramid of biomass in deep aquatic ecosystems can be inverted due to rapid turnover rates of primary producers is correct. Phytoplankton have high productivity and fast growth cycles, enabling a small standing mass to sustain a larger biomass of consumers. The assertion regarding standing crop is incorrect because standing crop measures living biomass, whereas the inorganic nutrient content is termed standing state. The assertion regarding niche size is incorrect because competition shrinks the fundamental niche down to a smaller realised niche.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Evaluate Assertion I regarding ecosystem structural terminology.
Assertion I is incorrect.
The total quantity of inorganic nutrients (such as nitrogen, phosphorus, and calcium) present in an ecosystem's soil or water body at any given time is defined as the 'standing state' (or standing quality). In contrast, 'standing crop' represents the living organic matter (biomass) or total number of living organisms in a given area at a specific time.
2
Evaluate Assertion II regarding ecological pyramids in aquatic systems.
Assertion II is correct.
In open ocean and lake ecosystems, primary producers (phytoplankton) reproduce rapidly and have extremely short life cycles. Because of this high turnover rate, a small standing biomass of phytoplankton can support a significantly larger standing biomass of long-lived primary consumers (zooplankton and fish), creating an inverted biomass pyramid.
3
Evaluate Assertion III regarding ecological niche dynamics.
Assertion III is incorrect.
The fundamental niche represents the full theoretical spectrum of environmental conditions and resources a species can exploit in the absence of biotic interactions. Biological constraints—primarily interspecific competition and predation—restrict the species to a narrower actual range known as the realised niche.

Key Concept

Structural terminology of ecosystems (standing crop vs. standing state), inverted pyramids of biomass, and niche theory (fundamental vs. realised niche).
Estimated Time:2m 0s
Question 123Question →

With reference to biological diversity conservation strategies, consider the following statements:

1. Sacred groves represent an ex-situ conservation mechanism where threatened flora is maintained under controlled laboratory conditions.
2. In-situ conservation permits the continuation of natural evolutionary processes within the native habitat of organisms.
3. Cryopreservation of gametes at ultra-low temperatures functions as an ex-situ preservation method for endangered species.
4. Botanical gardens, biosphere reserves, and national parks are all collectively categorized as in-situ conservation sites.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: 2 and 3 only

Answer

Statements 2 and 3 are correct.
Statement 2 is correct because in-situ conservation preserves species in their natural habitats, allowing natural selection and evolutionary dynamics to proceed. Statement 3 is correct because cryopreservation stores genetic material at ultra-low temperatures outside natural habitats, placing it firmly in the ex-situ category.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Evaluate Statement 1 regarding Sacred Groves
Sacred groves are community-protected natural forest fragments preserved on-site through traditional cultural practices. Thus, they are in-situ conservation strategies, making Statement 1 incorrect.
In-situ strategies protect organisms within their natural ecosystems.
2
Evaluate Statement 2 regarding In-situ Conservation features
In-situ conservation protects wild populations within their natural habitats, allowing ecosystem interactions and evolutionary adaptation processes to continue uninterrupted. Statement 2 is correct.
On-site preservation maintains ecological evolutionary dynamics.
3
Evaluate Statement 3 regarding Cryopreservation
Cryopreservation involves storing biological samples (gametes, seeds, tissues) at sub-zero temperatures (e.g., in liquid nitrogen at -196°C) outside their natural environment. Thus, it is an ex-situ strategy, making Statement 3 correct.
Off-site artificial storage under controlled cryogenic conditions defines ex-situ preservation.
4
Evaluate Statement 4 regarding Botanical Gardens, Biosphere Reserves, and National Parks
Biosphere reserves and national parks are in-situ protected areas, whereas botanical gardens are man-made off-site facilities classified under ex-situ conservation. Statement 4 is incorrect.
Botanical gardens do not protect wild habitats in-situ.

Key Concept

Classification of Biodiversity Conservation Strategies into In-situ (on-site) and Ex-situ (off-site) approaches
Question 124Question →

Minamata disease, a severe neurological disorder caused by industrial water pollution, is primarily associated with the consumption of seafood contaminated by which of the following heavy metals?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Mercury

Answer

Mercury
Minamata disease is a neurological syndrome resulting from severe mercury poisoning. It was first discovered in Minamata City, Kumamoto Prefecture, Japan, where industrial wastewater containing methylmercury was discharged into Minamata Bay, contaminating fish and shellfish consumed by the local population.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the heavy metal pollutant associated with Minamata disease.
Minamata disease is caused by chronic methylmercury poisoning.
Industrial effluents containing inorganic mercury are released into water bodies where bacteria convert them into methylmercury, which bioaccumulates in aquatic food chains.

Key Concept

Heavy Metal Water Pollution and Specific Environmental Diseases
Estimated Time:45s
Question 125Question →

In ecological structural analysis, biological organization spans multiple hierarchical tiers from single organisms to global ecological systems. Based on the fundamental principles of ecosystem structure, arrange the following levels of ecological organization in ascending order of complexity (from the narrowest structural unit to the broadest ecological boundary):

Drag items to arrange them in the correct order

Show answer & explanation

Answer

The correct structural sequence in ascending order of ecological complexity is: Individual Organism → Population → Biotic Community → Ecosystem → Landscape → Biome.
The hierarchical structure of ecological systems progresses from the simplest structural unit (the individual organism) to species populations, biological communities, integrated abiotic-biotic ecosystems, spatial landscape mosaics, and macro-climatic biomes.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the basic biological unit
The Individual Organism represents the single living unit (Trophically/Behaviorally functional entity).
Ecology begins at the organismal level where single individuals absorb resources and respond to stress.
2
Group individuals of the same species
Multiple individuals of the same species occupying a defined space form a Population.
A population introduces emergent properties such as birth rate, death rate, and gene frequency.
3
Combine interacting populations of different species
Multiple interacting populations (plants, animals, microbes) form a Biotic Community (Biocenosis).
Communities focus on interspecific interactions like predation, competition, mutualism, and commensalism.
4
Integrate the physical environment (abiotic factors)
The Biotic Community plus its physical environment (soil, water, atmosphere) forms an Ecosystem.
The ecosystem introduces functional energy flow and nutrient cycling between biotic components and abiotic reservoirs.
5
Scale up to spatial mosaics of distinct ecosystems
A geographic area containing a mosaic of interacting distinct ecosystems constitutes a Landscape.
Landscape ecology studies spatial dynamics and material flow across ecosystem boundaries.
6
Aggregate landscapes under shared macroclimate
Regional geographic divisions with shared dominant vegetation types and regional climate patterns form a Biome.
Biomes encompass multiple landscapes governed by macroclimatic controls such as precipitation and temperature patterns.

Key Concept

Levels of Ecological Hierarchy
Question 126Question →

Arrange the following major international environmental agreements in the chronological order of their adoption, from earliest to latest:

Drag items to arrange them in the correct order

Show answer & explanation

Answer

The correct chronological order of adoption from earliest to latest is: Vienna Convention (1985) → UNCCD (1994) → Rotterdam Convention (1998) → Minamata Convention (2013).
The treaties were adopted in the following years: Vienna Convention in 1985, United Nations Convention to Combat Desertification (UNCCD) in 1994, Rotterdam Convention in 1998, and Minamata Convention on Mercury in 2013.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Determine the year of adoption for the Vienna Convention for the Protection of the Ozone Layer.
The Vienna Convention was adopted in 1985.
It established the umbrella framework for ozone protection prior to the Montreal Protocol.
2
Determine the year of adoption for the United Nations Convention to Combat Desertification (UNCCD).
UNCCD was adopted in 1994.
It stemmed directly from the Rio Earth Summit recommendations of 1992 and was formally adopted in Paris in 1994.
3
Determine the year of adoption for the Rotterdam Convention.
The Rotterdam Convention was adopted in 1998.
It established a multilateral procedure regarding hazardous chemicals in global commerce.
4
Determine the year of adoption for the Minamata Convention on Mercury.
The Minamata Convention was adopted in 2013.
It was negotiated under the auspices of UNEP to curb global mercury pollution and adopted in Kumamoto, Japan.
5
Sequence the conventions by adoption year.
Chronological sequence: Vienna Convention (1985), UNCCD (1994), Rotterdam Convention (1998), Minamata Convention (2013).
Placing the years in ascending order yields the sequence 1985, 1994, 1998, 2013.

Key Concept

Chronological adoption sequence of major global environmental treaties and conventions
Question 127Question →

Arrange the following major Indian environmental legislations in chronological order of their enactment, starting from the earliest to the latest:

Drag items to arrange them in the correct order

Show answer & explanation

Answer

The correct chronological order from earliest to latest is: Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act (1974) → Forest (Conservation) Act (1980) → Biological Diversity Act (2002) → National Green Tribunal Act (2010).
The landmark environmental legislations were enacted in the following chronological sequence: the Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act in 1974, the Forest (Conservation) Act in 1980, the Biological Diversity Act in 2002, and the National Green Tribunal Act in 2010.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the enactment year for each environmental act listed
Water Act: 1974; Forest (Conservation) Act: 1980; Biological Diversity Act: 2002; National Green Tribunal Act: 2010.
Establishing the precise year of enactment is essential to determine chronological sequence.
2
Arrange the acts sequentially by enactment year
1974 (Water Act) comes first, followed by 1980 (Forest Conservation Act), then 2002 (Biological Diversity Act), and finally 2010 (NGT Act).
This establishes the historical timeline of environmental law development in India.

Key Concept

Chronology of Landmark Environmental Acts in India
Question 128Question →

Which of the following statements regarding biodiversity metrics, species endemism, and global hotspots are correct?

Select all that apply

Show answer & explanation

Answer: The Western Ghats hotspot exhibits a remarkably high proportion of endemic amphibian species compared to its total amphibian fauna.; Palaeo-endemic species represent ancient evolutionary lineages whose geographic ranges have contracted to isolated refugia over geological time.

Answer

The correct statements are that the Western Ghats hotspot exhibits a high proportion of endemic amphibians, and palaeo-endemic species represent ancient evolutionary lineages restricted to isolated refugia.
The Western Ghats contains exceptional endemic fauna, particularly among amphibians where over three-quarters of species are found nowhere else. Additionally, palaeo-endemic species are relict lineages from ancient evolutionary times that survive in restricted refugia. Thus, both of these statements are scientifically accurate.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Evaluate the definition of species turnover across communities.
The rate of species replacement along an ecological gradient is beta diversity, whereas alpha diversity measures local richness within a single community.
Differentiating spatial biodiversity indices.
2
Analyze Western Ghats fauna endemic proportions.
The Western Ghats has over 75% endemic amphibians and high endemic reptile density.
Verifying regional endemic patterns in Indian hotspots.
3
Examine the concept of palaeo-endemism.
Palaeo-endemics are ancient relictual species restricted to refugia, distinct from newly evolved neo-endemics.
Categorizing evolutionary types of species endemism.
4
Check quantitative hotspot qualification criteria.
Hotspots require both species endemism (>1,500 endemic vascular plant species) and degree of threat (at least 70% original habitat lost).
Assessing Norman Myers' criteria for global biodiversity hotspots.

Key Concept

Alpha versus Beta diversity, palaeo-endemism versus neo-endemism, and Norman Myers criteria for biodiversity hotspots.
Question 129Question →

Which of the following statements regarding pollutant dynamics, biological indicators, and soil remediation technologies for environmental pollution are correct?

Select all that apply

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Bioaccumulation refers to the accumulation of a toxic chemical inside a single organism over its lifespan, whereas biomagnification describes the progressive increase in contaminant concentration across successive trophic levels of a food web.; Phytoextraction is a phytoremediation mechanism where hyperaccumulator plant species absorb heavy metals from contaminated soils through their roots and translocate them into harvestable shoot tissues.

Answer

The correct statements are: (1) Bioaccumulation refers to toxin accumulation within a single organism while biomagnification is the increase across trophic levels, and (2) Phytoextraction uses hyperaccumulator plants to absorb heavy metals into harvestable shoots.
Bioaccumulation describes contaminant accumulation within an individual organism over time, while biomagnification describes the escalation of lipid-soluble toxin concentrations across sequential trophic levels. Additionally, phytoextraction is an established biological soil remediation process where hyperaccumulator plants draw heavy metals up through root systems into shoots for removal.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze ecotoxicological definitions of bioaccumulation versus biomagnification.
Bioaccumulation occurs at the organism level as lipophilic compounds (e.g., DDT, methylmercury) accumulate faster than they are metabolized. Biomagnification transfers these contaminants up food chains to top predators.
Differentiates population and trophic dynamic terms accurately.
2
Evaluate the ecological role of lichens as environmental bioindicators.
Lichens depend directly on atmospheric precipitation and air quality. Their fungal-algal symbiosis is highly susceptible to atmospheric sulfur dioxide (SO2SO_2), making them terrestrial air quality indicators, not aquatic indicators.
Identifies the correct medium and pollutant indicator pairing.
3
Assess soil phytoremediation mechanisms.
Phytoextraction relies on hyperaccumulators (such as *Brassica juncea* or *Indian mustard*) to extract metals like lead, cadmium, and nickel from soil matrix into shoot systems for harvesting.
Validates sustainable technological control measures for land pollution.
4
Examine water pollution toxicology and human health impacts.
Excessive nitrate (NO3−NO_3^-) oxidizes iron in hemoglobin to methemoglobin, impairing oxygen transport in infants (Methemoglobinemia/Blue Baby Syndrome). Fluorosis is caused by excess fluoride (F−F^-) ions.
Exposes the chemical-pathology mismatch.

Key Concept

Pollutant Dynamics, Ecotoxicology, and Environmental Control Technologies
Estimated Time:2m 0s
Question 130Question →

Consider the following statements regarding international environmental agreements:

1. The Rotterdam Convention establishes the Prior Informed Consent (PIC) procedure for certain hazardous chemicals and pesticides in international trade.
2. The Stockholm Convention targets the elimination or restriction of Persistent Organic Pollutants (POPs).
3. The Basel Convention primarily focuses on the protection of the ozone layer by phasing out chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs).

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: 1 and 2 only

Answer

Statements 1 and 2 only are correct.
Statements 1 and 2 are correct. The Rotterdam Convention facilitates information exchange and informed consent regarding international trade of dangerous pesticides and industrial chemicals. The Stockholm Convention restricts toxic, persistent bioaccumulative chemicals known as POPs. Statement 3 is incorrect because the control of ozone-depleting substances is regulated under the Montreal Protocol, whereas the Basel Convention addresses the transboundary movement and management of hazardous wastes.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Evaluate Statement 1 regarding the Rotterdam Convention.
Statement 1 is correct. The Rotterdam Convention (adopted 1998) promotes shared responsibility in the international trade of hazardous chemicals by establishing the legally binding Prior Informed Consent (PIC) procedure.
Verify the primary objective of the Rotterdam Convention.
2
Evaluate Statement 2 regarding the Stockholm Convention.
Statement 2 is correct. The Stockholm Convention (adopted 2001) is a global treaty aimed at eliminating or restricting the production, use, and release of Persistent Organic Pollutants (POPs).
Verify the primary objective of the Stockholm Convention.
3
Evaluate Statement 3 regarding the Basel Convention.
Statement 3 is incorrect. The Basel Convention (adopted 1989) regulates the transboundary movements of hazardous wastes and their disposal. Ozone layer protection is governed by the Vienna Convention and Montreal Protocol.
Identify treaty objective misattribution.

Key Concept

Distinction between international chemical and waste treaties (Rotterdam, Stockholm, Basel, and Montreal)
Estimated Time:1m 0s
Question 131Question →

Under which Article of the Constitution of India, inserted through the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act of 1976, is a Directive Principle laid down requiring the State to protect and improve the environment and to safeguard the country's forests and wildlife?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Article 48A

Answer

Article 48A of the Constitution of India explicitly directs the State to protect and improve the environment and safeguard forests and wildlife.
Article 48A was inserted into Part IV (Directive Principles of State Policy) of the Indian Constitution by the 42nd Amendment Act, 1976. It explicitly states that the State shall endeavor to protect and improve the environment and safeguard the forests and wildlife of the country.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the constitutional amendment and part referenced in the question.
The 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act of 1976 introduced environmental provisions into both the Directive Principles of State Policy (Part IV) and Fundamental Duties (Part IV-A).
Determining the distinction between State directives and citizen duties is necessary to pick the exact article.
2
Differentiate between Article 48A and Article 51A(g).
Article 48A directs the State ('The State shall endeavour to protect and improve the environment...'), while Article 51A(g) mandates citizens ('It shall be the duty of every citizen of India...').
The stem specifically asks for the constitutional directive binding upon the State.

Key Concept

Constitutional Mandate for Environmental Protection in India (Article 48A)
Question 132Question →

Consider the following statements regarding the structural concepts and functional attributes of ecosystems:

1. The fundamental niche of a species encompasses the full spectrum of physical conditions and resources it can theoretically utilize in the absence of interspecific competition and predation.
2. The standing state of an ecosystem represents the total amount of living organic biomass present across all trophic levels at a specific point in time.
3. An ecotone frequently exhibits greater species density and population richness than either of the adjoining ecological communities, a phenomenon known as the edge effect.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: 1 and 3 only

Answer

Statements 1 and 3 only are correct.
The statements evaluating fundamental niche (statement 1) and ecotone edge effects (statement 3) accurately state core ecological principles. Statement 2 misidentifies standing state as living organic biomass, whereas standing state refers strictly to the quantity of inorganic nutrients in the soil or abiotic environment.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze Statement 1 regarding ecological niche concepts
Statement 1 is correct. G.E. Hutchinson defined the fundamental niche as the full potential range of physical and biological conditions under which an organism can survive and reproduce in the absence of negative biotic interactions like competition.
It distinguishes the theoretical potential (fundamental niche) from the restricted actual occupancy (realized niche).
2
Analyze Statement 2 regarding structural ecosystem terms
Statement 2 is incorrect. Standing state refers to the total amount of inorganic nutrients (such as nitrogen, phosphorus, carbon, and calcium) present in the abiotic component of an ecosystem at any given time. Conversely, standing crop refers to the total living organic biomass.
Confusing standing state with standing crop is a common conceptual error.
3
Analyze Statement 3 regarding ecosystem boundaries and ecotones
Statement 3 is correct. An ecotone is a transition zone between two distinct biological communities (e.g., marshland between land and water). The edge effect describes the tendency for ecotones to harbor greater species diversity and higher population densities than either adjacent community.
Ecotones contain environmental conditions and resources from both adjoining biomes, supporting specialized edge species alongside species from both ecosystems.

Key Concept

Structural terminology of ecosystems: Niche dimensions, Standing State vs Standing Crop, and Ecotone Edge Dynamics
Question 133Question →

The National Tiger Conservation Authority (NTCA) is a statutory body constituted under the provisions of which of the following Indian legislations?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972

Answer

The National Tiger Conservation Authority (NTCA) is constituted under the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972.
The National Tiger Conservation Authority (NTCA) is a statutory body under the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change. It was constituted under Section 38 IV-B of the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972, enacted through the Wildlife (Protection) Amendment Act of 2006.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the mandate of the National Tiger Conservation Authority (NTCA).
The NTCA is responsible for overseeing Project Tiger and standardizing tiger conservation guidelines across Indian states.
Understanding the primary mandate helps locate its governing enabling legislation.
2
Recall the legal framework establishing the NTCA.
The Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972 was amended in 2006 to insert Section 38 IV-B, granting statutory status to the NTCA.
Statutory bodies derive their powers and structure directly from designated Acts of Parliament.

Key Concept

Statutory legal framework of national conservation authorities in India
Estimated Time:45s
Question 134Question →

Assess the fundamental criteria for global biodiversity hotspots, spatial diversity metrics, and regional species endemism. Which of the following statements are correct?

Select all that apply

Show answer & explanation

Answer: To qualify as a global biodiversity hotspot under the Norman Myers framework, a region must have lost at least 70% of its original primary native vegetation.; The Nicobar group of islands in India is biogeographically classified under the Sundaland biodiversity hotspot rather than the Indo-Burma hotspot.

Answer

The correct statements are the assertion regarding Norman Myers' hotspot habitat loss threshold of 70% and the statement classifying the Nicobar Islands under the Sundaland hotspot.
The valid statements correctly highlight Norman Myers' classic hotspot criterion (a minimum 70% loss of primary vegetation) and accurately map the Nicobar Islands to the Sundaland biodiversity hotspot.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Evaluate the quantitative threshold for biodiversity hotspots
Norman Myers established two strict criteria: containing at least 1,500 endemic vascular plant species and having lost at least 70% of original primary habitat. Thus, the statement regarding 70% vegetation loss is correct.
Hotspot designation relies on high endemism combined with severe habitat threat.
2
Verify the biogeographical classification of Indian island territories
The Andaman Islands belong to the Indo-Burma hotspot, while the Nicobar Islands extend into the Sundaland hotspot. Thus, the statement regarding the Nicobar Islands' location in Sundaland is correct.
Administrative units of India cross distinct global biodiversity hotspots.
3
Differentiate between alpha, beta, and gamma diversity metrics
Alpha diversity measures local species richness within a single site. Beta diversity assesses species turnover between habitats across a gradient. The statement defining local richness as beta diversity is incorrect.
Whittaker's diversity metrics categorize spatial scales of biodiversity distinctly.
4
Analyze the geographical range and habitat of the Sangai deer
The Sangai (Brow-antlered deer) is naturally confined to the phumdis of Keibul Lamjao National Park in Manipur, placing it in the Indo-Burma region rather than the Western Ghats. The statement locating it in the Western Ghats is incorrect.
Endemic species must be correctly associated with their specific regional hotspots.

Key Concept

Biodiversity Hotspot Criteria, Endemic Species Distribution, and Ecological Diversity Indices
Question 135Question →

Consider the following statements regarding in-situ and ex-situ biological techniques used for environmental pollution control (bioremediation):

1. Bioaugmentation involves modifying environmental conditions by adding nutrients and electron acceptors to enhance the metabolic activity of indigenous microbial populations.
2. Biosparging is an in-situ remediation process that injects air under pressure into the saturated zone below the water table to promote aerobic biodegradation of organic pollutants.
3. Phytostabilization utilizes plants to immobilize soil and groundwater contaminants through absorption and precipitation, thereby preventing their migration rather than removing them from the site.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: 2 and 3 only

Answer

2 and 3 only
Statements 2 and 3 are correct. Biosparging is an effective in-situ technique that forces air under pressure into the saturated zone to supply oxygen to indigenous microbes, enhancing the biodegradation of volatile hydrocarbons and organic contaminants in groundwater. Phytostabilization utilizes tolerant plants to immobilize heavy metals and organic pollutants within the soil or rhizosphere, reducing their leaching potential into groundwater without requiring plant harvesting. Statement 1 is incorrect because the process of modifying site conditions by supplying nutrients and electron acceptors to boost native microflora is defined as biostimulation; bioaugmentation specifically entails introducing exogenous, laboratory-cultured, or genetically modified microbes into the contaminated media.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze Statement 1 regarding microbial remediation terminology.
Statement 1 describes 'biostimulation' (adding nutrients/oxygen to stimulate existing indigenous microbes) rather than 'bioaugmentation' (adding specialized, externally cultured microbial strains to the polluted site). Therefore, Statement 1 is incorrect.
Conflating biostimulation with bioaugmentation is a common technical conceptual error in bioremediation strategies.
2
Evaluate Statement 2 regarding groundwater remediation mechanisms.
Biosparging specifically involves injecting air under pressure directly into the saturated zone below the water table, facilitating volatile transport and stimulating aerobic biodegradation of organic pollutants. Therefore, Statement 2 is correct.
Biosparging targets the saturated groundwater zone, whereas bioventing targets the unsaturated vadose zone.
3
Evaluate Statement 3 regarding phytoremediation sub-types.
Phytostabilization involves using plant root systems to sorb, precipitate, or bind contaminants in the soil/rhizosphere, rendering them bio-unavailable and preventing off-site migration. Therefore, Statement 3 is correct.
Phytostabilization focuses on contaminant containment and stabilization rather than extraction (phytoextraction) or volatile emission (phytovolatilization).

Key Concept

Bioremediation and Phytoremediation Control Mechanisms
Question 136Question →

Match the environmental pollution control technologies in List-I with their corresponding primary operating mechanisms and target pollutants in List-II.

Click a left item, then click its matching right item

Items

Electrostatic Precipitator (ESP)
Wet Scrubber
Three-Way Catalytic Converter
Cyclone Separator

Matches

Show answer & explanation

Answer

Electrostatic Precipitator matches with corona discharge ionization for fine particulate matter collection; Wet Scrubber matches with neutralization and chemical absorption of acidic flue gases (SO2SO_2); Three-Way Catalytic Converter matches with simultaneous oxidation of hydrocarbons and COCO alongside reduction of NOxNO_x; and Cyclone Separator matches with centrifugal force separation of coarse particulate matter (>10 μm>10\,\mu\text{m}).
The pairings correctly match each pollution control device with its distinct physical or chemical mechanism. Electrostatic Precipitators rely on high-voltage corona discharge to ionize and collect fine particulate matter. Wet Scrubbers utilize liquid absorption to neutralize acidic gaseous pollutants such as SO2SO_2. Three-Way Catalytic Converters promote simultaneous oxidation of carbon monoxide/hydrocarbons and reduction of nitrogen oxides. Cyclone Separators use gas vortex velocity and centrifugal forces to isolate coarse suspended particles.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze particulate control technologies based on physical separation mechanisms
Electrostatic Precipitators utilize high-voltage electric fields (corona discharge) to charge and capture fine particles (PM2.5PM_{2.5} and PM10PM_{10}), whereas Cyclone Separators rely purely on mechanical inertia and centrifugal force to drop out coarse particulates (>10 μm>10\,\mu\text{m}).
Differentiating electrostatic particle charging from mechanical vortex inertia links Electrostatic Precipitator to fine particle ionization and Cyclone Separator to coarse particle centrifugal removal.
2
Analyze gaseous pollutant mitigation methods across stationary industrial and mobile sources
Wet Scrubbers spray liquid reagents to neutralize acidic gases such as SO2SO_2 in industrial stack gases, while Catalytic Converters use solid-state noble metals to remediate vehicle exhaust gases (COCO, NOxNO_x, unburnt hydrocarbons).
Distinguishing liquid-gas chemical scrubbing from solid-phase heterogeneous catalysis establishes the correct matches for gas treatment equipment.
3
Verify complete pair alignment across List-I and List-II
Electrostatic Precipitator aligns with fine particle ionization; Wet Scrubber aligns with acidic gas scrubbing (SO2SO_2); Three-Way Catalytic Converter aligns with multi-pollutant automotive redox catalysis; Cyclone Separator aligns with coarse particulate centrifugal separation.
Ensures precise technological mapping without overlapping operating principles.

Key Concept

Operating Principles of Air Pollution Control Equipment and Industrial Emission Reduction Technologies
Question 137Question →

Norman Myers introduced the concept of biodiversity hotspots to identify geographic regions experiencing critical habitat degradation alongside exceptionally high endemic species concentration. According to the established quantitative criteria, what is the minimum threshold of endemic vascular plant species a region must possess to be designated as a global biodiversity hotspot?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: At least 1,500 endemic species of vascular plants (or > 0.5% of the global total)

Answer

At least 1,500 endemic species of vascular plants (or > 0.5% of the global total)
According to the criteria formalized by Norman Myers and adopted by Conservation International, a region must meet two quantitative conditions to be recognized as a biodiversity hotspot: (1) high endemism, specifically harboring at least 1,500 endemic vascular plant species (> 0.5% of global total), and (2) high degree of threat, having lost 70% or more of its primary original vegetation.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the quantitative criteria established by Norman Myers (1988/2000) for global biodiversity hotspots.
Two main criteria are identified: species endemism threshold and habitat loss threshold.
Hotspots prioritize conservation areas with extreme biological richness under severe threat.
2
Evaluate the baseline biological richness requirement.
A region must harbor at least 1,500 species of endemic vascular plants, representing more than 0.5% of the world's total plant species.
Vascular plants serve as the foundational indicator group for ecosystem diversity.
3
Evaluate the threat level requirement.
The region must have lost at least 70% of its original primary natural vegetation.
This confirms that the ecosystem is under high threat of destruction.

Key Concept

Hotspot Criteria and Endemism Thresholds
Estimated Time:1m 0s
Question 138Question →

Arrange the following environmental acts and policies of India in chronological order of their enactment or official adoption, starting from the earliest to the latest:

Drag items to arrange them in the correct order

Show answer & explanation

Answer

The correct chronological sequence from earliest to latest is: Public Liability Insurance Act (1991), Energy Conservation Act (2001), National Environment Policy (2006), and Compensatory Afforestation Fund Act (2016).
The correct chronological arrangement reflects the historical progression of Indian environmental laws: the Public Liability Insurance Act was enacted in 1991 in the aftermath of the Bhopal Gas Leak tragedy, followed by the Energy Conservation Act in 2001, the comprehensive National Environment Policy in 2006, and the Compensatory Afforestation Fund Act in 2016.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the year of enactment or adoption for each legislation and policy
Public Liability Insurance Act: 1991; Energy Conservation Act: 2001; National Environment Policy: 2006; Compensatory Afforestation Fund Act: 2016.
Establishing the precise year for each milestone is required to construct an accurate timeline.
2
Arrange the years in ascending order
1991 → 2001 → 2006 → 2016.
Ascending order places the earliest legislation first and the most recent last.
3
Match the ordered years back to the corresponding items
Public Liability Insurance Act (1991) → Energy Conservation Act (2001) → National Environment Policy (2006) → Compensatory Afforestation Fund Act (2016).
This confirms the correct sequence of item placement.

Key Concept

Chronological evolution of key environmental legislations, statutory mechanisms, and policies in post-independence India.
Question 139Question →

With reference to environmental governance and legislation in India, consider the following statements regarding the Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB):

1. The CPCB was established as a statutory organization under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986.
2. It provides technical assistance and guidance to the Central Government and coordinates the activities of State Pollution Control Boards.
3. It is entrusted with powers and functions under both the Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974 and the Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1981.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: 2 and 3 only

Answer

Statements 2 and 3 are correct. Statement 1 is incorrect because the Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB) was constituted under the Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974, not the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986.
The option selecting statements 2 and 3 only is correct. The Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB) is a statutory organization constituted in September 1974 under the Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974. Later, it was also entrusted with powers and functions under the Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1981. It serves as a field formation and provides technical services to the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change while coordinating activities across State Pollution Control Boards.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Evaluate Statement 1 regarding the parent legislation of the CPCB.
Statement 1 is incorrect. The Central Pollution Control Board was established in September 1974 under the Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974.
Although CPCB plays a key role under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986, its statutory creation stems from the Water Act of 1974.
2
Evaluate Statement 2 regarding technical assistance and coordination functions.
Statement 2 is correct.
CPCB advises the Central Government on pollution control matters and coordinates the activities of State Boards to resolve disputes and standardize technical procedures.
3
Evaluate Statement 3 regarding statutory coverage under multiple Acts.
Statement 3 is correct.
CPCB was later entrusted with functions and powers under the Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1981, alongside its original mandate under the Water Act, 1974.

Key Concept

Statutory origins and mandate of the Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB)
PreviousPage 7 / 7
Environment, Ecology and Biodiversity Practice Questions — State PSC Exam — Page 7 | Examkin