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Environment, Ecology and Biodiversity

139 questions

All types139Multiple choice73Multiple select24Matching26Ordering16
Question 101Question →

Arrange the following major international environmental agreements in chronological order of their adoption, from the earliest to the most recent:

Drag items to arrange them in the correct order

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Answer

The correct chronological order of adoption is: Ramsar Convention on Wetlands (1971), followed by the Montreal Protocol (1987), the Kyoto Protocol (1997), and finally the Paris Agreement (2015).
The Ramsar Convention was signed in 1971 to protect wetlands. The Montreal Protocol followed in 1987 to protect the stratospheric ozone layer. The Kyoto Protocol was established in 1997 to enforce greenhouse gas emission commitments. Finally, the Paris Agreement was adopted in 2015 to strengthen the global response to climate change.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the adoption year for each international convention/agreement
Ramsar Convention was adopted in 1971; Montreal Protocol in 1987; Kyoto Protocol in 1997; Paris Agreement in 2015.
Establishing the precise timeline of international environmental treaties is necessary to sequence them chronologically.
2
Sequence the events from the earliest year to the latest year
1971 (Ramsar) → 1987 (Montreal) → 1997 (Kyoto) → 2015 (Paris).
Ordering the dates chronologically gives the final sequence.

Key Concept

Chronology of International Environmental Treaties
Question 102Question →

Consider the following statements regarding atmospheric pollutants:
1. Primary pollutants are emitted directly from identifiable sources into the atmosphere.
2. Ground-level ozone is a secondary pollutant formed through chemical reactions between nitrogen oxides (NOxNO_x) and volatile organic compounds (VOCsVOCs) in the presence of sunlight.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

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Answer: Both 1 and 2

Answer

Both statements 1 and 2 are correct.
Both statements are correct. Primary pollutants are emitted directly from sources (e.g., carbon monoxide from motor vehicles). Ground-level (tropospheric) ozone is a secondary pollutant formed via atmospheric photochemical reactions between precursor emissions of nitrogen oxides (NOxNO_x) and volatile organic compounds (VOCsVOCs).

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Evaluate Statement 1 regarding primary pollutants
Statement 1 is correct
Primary pollutants (such as carbon monoxide, sulfur dioxide, and particulate matter) enter the atmosphere directly from natural or anthropogenic sources.
2
Evaluate Statement 2 regarding ground-level ozone formation
Statement 2 is correct
Ground-level ozone is a classic secondary pollutant produced when primary precursors like NOxNO_x and VOCsVOCs interact photochemically in sunlight.

Key Concept

Classification of Air Pollutants: Primary vs. Secondary Pollutants
Question 103Question →

With reference to water pollution indicators, thermal pollution dynamics, and industrial emission control technologies, which of the following statements are correct?

Select all that apply

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Answer: Biological Oxygen Demand (BOD) measures the amount of dissolved oxygen needed by aerobic organisms to decompose biodegradable organic matter, whereas Chemical Oxygen Demand (COD) measures the oxygen required for chemical oxidation of both biodegradable and non-biodegradable organic pollutants.; Thermal discharge into natural water bodies reduces the solubility of dissolved oxygen while simultaneously increasing the metabolic rates and oxygen demands of aquatic organisms.

Answer

The statements distinguishing BOD from COD and describing the dual impact of thermal pollution on dissolved oxygen and metabolic rates are correct.
The statement differentiating BOD and COD correctly highlights that COD includes both chemically degradable refractory compounds and biological organics, making COD higher than BOD. The statement on thermal pollution accurately captures the thermodynamic principle of gas solubility alongside biological metabolic escalation in warmer water.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the statement regarding Biological Oxygen Demand (BOD) versus Chemical Oxygen Demand (COD).
BOD measures biodegradable organic fraction via biological oxidation, while COD measures total oxidizable organic content (biodegradable + non-biodegradable) via strong chemical oxidation. Therefore, COD>BODCOD > BOD always holds true for domestic and industrial effluent.
Understanding wastewater quality parameters requires differentiating biological breakdown from chemical breakdown.
2
Evaluate the statement concerning thermal pollution mechanisms in aquatic environments.
Water temperature exhibits an inverse relationship with dissolved oxygen (DO) concentration. Simultaneously, Q10 metabolic principles dictate that higher temperatures increase aquatic animal metabolic rates, compounding oxygen stress.
Thermal pollution creates a synergistic ecological hazard: reduced oxygen availability combined with heightened biological oxygen demand.
3
Evaluate the statement regarding Electrostatic Precipitators (ESPs).
ESPs remove particulate pollutants (fly ash, dust) via high-voltage corona electrodes, not gaseous compounds like SO2SO_2 or VOCs.
Industrial control devices specialize by pollutant phase; gaseous emissions require wet/dry scrubbers or catalytic reactors.
4
Evaluate the statement concerning cultural eutrophication and dissolved oxygen.
Excessive nutrient enrichment causes algal blooms that prevent light penetration. Subsequent decay of dead algae by aerobic bacteria consumes massive amounts of oxygen, producing severe benthic hypoxia.
Eutrophication leads to net oxygen deficit across deeper aquatic zones despite high surface photosynthetic activity.

Key Concept

Wastewater parameters (BOD/COD), thermal pollution mechanics, and air pollution control equipment operating principles
Question 104Question →

Match the following Indian environmental institutions and organizations listed in List I with their corresponding legal status, parent mandate, or founding framework in List II:

Click a left item, then click its matching right item

Items

Botanical Survey of India (BSI)
National Biodiversity Authority (NBA)
Central Zoo Authority (CZA)
Wildlife Institute of India (WII)

Matches

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Answer

Botanical Survey of India (BSI) matches with the subordinate office founded in 1890 for floral research; National Biodiversity Authority (NBA) matches with the statutory body under the Biological Diversity Act, 2002; Central Zoo Authority (CZA) matches with the statutory body under the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972; and Wildlife Institute of India (WII) matches with the autonomous institution established in 1982 in Dehradun.
Botanical Survey of India (BSI) is a colonial-era institution founded in 1890 operating as a subordinate office under MoEFCC. National Biodiversity Authority (NBA) is a statutory autonomous regulatory body formed under the Biological Diversity Act, 2002 in Chennai. Central Zoo Authority (CZA) is a statutory body constituted under the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972 (via the 1991 amendment). Wildlife Institute of India (WII) is an autonomous research institution under MoEFCC established in 1982 at Dehradun.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the legal origins and founding nature of Botanical Survey of India (BSI).
BSI is an apex taxonomic research organization established in 1890 under the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change, making it a subordinate office for plant resource appraisal.
Tracing institutional origins helps differentiate colonial-era apex survey bodies from post-independence statutory entities.
2
Evaluate National Biodiversity Authority (NBA) and its enabling legislation.
NBA was set up in 2003 as a statutory body pursuant to the Biological Diversity Act, 2002, headquartered in Chennai.
Connecting regulatory bodies with their respective parent enabling Acts confirms statutory versus executive status.
3
Identify the statutory backing for the Central Zoo Authority (CZA).
CZA was created under the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972 following the 1991 legislative amendment to regulate recognition and standards of wild animal housing in zoos.
Distinguishes statutory wildlife protection boards from autonomous academic and research societies.
4
Determine the legal status and location of Wildlife Institute of India (WII).
WII is an autonomous institute established in 1982 under MoEFCC in Dehradun, focusing on wildlife science, management capacity building, and research.
Distinguishes autonomous research institutes from statutory regulatory authorities.

Key Concept

Classification of Indian Environmental Institutions by Statutory vs. Autonomous vs. Subordinate Status and Enabling Legislation
Estimated Time:1m 30s
Question 105Question →

Which international treaty provides a dedicated global framework for conserving terrestrial, aquatic, and avian migratory species throughout their geographic ranges by coordinating range-wide actions through legally binding agreements and collaborative Memoranda of Understanding?

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Answer: Convention on the Conservation of Migratory Species of Wild Animals (Bonn Convention)

Answer

Convention on the Conservation of Migratory Species of Wild Animals (Bonn Convention)
The Convention on the Conservation of Migratory Species of Wild Animals (also known as the Bonn Convention or CMS), signed in 1979 under the auspices of the United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP), is the only global treaty dedicated to the conservation of migratory species, their habitats, and their migration routes. It categorizes endangered migratory species under Appendix I (strict protection) and species needing international agreements under Appendix II.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the primary domain of the treaty described in the stem.
The target domain focuses specifically on terrestrial, avian, and aquatic migratory species and their transboundary migration corridors.
Different international treaties target distinct ecological domains such as habitat types, trade regulation, or overall biodiversity.
2
Evaluate international conventions by their legal instruments and primary mandate.
The Convention on the Conservation of Migratory Species of Wild Animals (CMS or Bonn Convention) uniquely utilizes legally binding regional Agreements and non-legally binding Memoranda of Understanding (MoUs) among range states.
Migratory species require cross-border cooperation as they move across international boundaries during their life cycles.

Key Concept

Bonn Convention (CMS) Scope and Structure
Estimated Time:1m 0s
Question 106Question →

Match the environmental pollution control devices listed in List-I with their primary targeted pollutant or function in List-II:

Click a left item, then click its matching right item

Items

Electrostatic Precipitator
Catalytic Converter
Wet Scrubber
Incinerator

Matches

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Answer

Electrostatic Precipitator matches with Particulate matter from industrial flue gases; Catalytic Converter matches with Carbon monoxide and unburnt hydrocarbons in vehicle exhaust; Wet Scrubber matches with Gaseous emissions such as sulfur dioxide (SO2SO_2); and Incinerator matches with Thermal disposal of hazardous solid and medical waste.
Electrostatic Precipitators are designed to capture solid suspended particles from industrial flue gases. Catalytic Converters reduce vehicular exhaust emissions by converting carbon monoxide and unburnt hydrocarbons into less harmful compounds. Wet Scrubbers clean exhaust streams by dissolving gaseous pollutants like sulfur dioxide in liquid spray. Incinerators thermally break down solid hazardous and biological wastes.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Match Electrostatic Precipitator with its primary application.
Electrostatic Precipitators trap charged particulate matter from flue gases.
High-voltage electrodes charge dust particles which collect on grounded plates.
2
Match Catalytic Converter with its targeted emissions.
Catalytic Converters target toxic vehicle emissions such as carbon monoxide and hydrocarbons.
Noble metal catalysts facilitate complete combustion of exhaust gases.
3
Match Wet Scrubber with its targeted pollutant type.
Wet Scrubbers target acidic gas emissions such as SO2SO_2.
Liquid absorbents spray and dissolve gaseous pollutants.
4
Match Incinerator with its primary waste treatment role.
Incinerators handle thermal destruction of hazardous solid and infectious wastes.
Controlled high-temperature burning decomposes organic hazardous materials.

Key Concept

Pollution Control Technologies and Abatement Equipment
Question 107Question →

Which international agreement, also known as the Washington Convention, was adopted to ensure that international trade in specimens of wild animals and plants does not threaten their survival?

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Answer: Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and Flora (CITES)

Answer

Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and Flora (CITES)
The Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and Flora (CITES) was signed at Washington, D.C. on March 3, 1973. Because of its signing location, it is commonly designated as the Washington Convention.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the primary domain of the treaty described
The target treaty governs international commercial trade in wild animal and plant species to ensure their survival.
Matching treaty focus areas allows proper classification among global environmental agreements.
2
Associate the formal treaty title with its popular geographic name
The Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and Flora (CITES) was signed in Washington, D.C. in 1973 and is widely referred to as the Washington Convention.
State PSC examinations frequently evaluate knowledge of primary objectives alongside popular treaty aliases.

Key Concept

International Wildlife Trade and CITES (Washington Convention)
Question 108Question →

With reference to the strategies established for biological conservation, consider the following statements:

1. Gene banks, tissue culture repositories, and arboreta are categorized as ex-situ conservation strategies because biological material is maintained outside natural habitats.
2. Biodiversity Heritage Sites notified under the Biological Diversity Act, 2002, operate as ex-situ preservation zones designed exclusively for captive breeding.
3. In-situ conservation enables wild populations to undergo ongoing evolutionary adaptation within their natural ecological settings.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

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Answer: 1 and 3 only

Answer

1 and 3 only
The correct evaluation selects the option containing statements 1 and 3 only. Off-site repositories such as gene banks, tissue culture collections, and arboreta collect and maintain biological specimens away from native habitats, making them ex-situ methods. In-situ conservation protects natural habitats, allowing populations to co-evolve naturally. In contrast, Biodiversity Heritage Sites are legally protected natural ecosystems conserved on-site (in-situ).

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze Statement 1 regarding gene banks, tissue culture repositories, and arboreta.
Statement 1 is correct. Ex-situ conservation refers to off-site preservation of components of biological diversity outside their natural habitats. Gene banks, tissue culture culture collections, botanical gardens, and arboreta fit this definition.
Off-site facilities hold living collections or germplasm under controlled conditions distinct from their wild environments.
2
Analyze Statement 2 regarding Biodiversity Heritage Sites (BHS).
Statement 2 is incorrect. Biodiversity Heritage Sites, notified under Section 37 of the Biological Diversity Act, 2002, are well-defined, ecologically fragile ecosystems conserved in-situ (on-site). They are not ex-situ captive breeding facilities.
BHS aim to preserve wild or domesticated biodiversity in their natural ecosystem surroundings alongside local community participation.
3
Analyze Statement 3 regarding evolutionary adaptation in in-situ conservation.
Statement 3 is correct. A primary ecological advantage of in-situ conservation (such as in national parks and biosphere reserves) is that species interact naturally with biotic and abiotic selection pressures, sustaining natural evolutionary processes.
On-site protection maintains intact ecosystems where natural selection continues operating without artificial intervention.

Key Concept

Distinction between in-situ (on-site) and ex-situ (off-site) biodiversity conservation strategies, including biological reserve designations under national legislation.
Estimated Time:2m 0s
Question 109Question →

Which of the following statements best explains why the pyramid of biomass in an aquatic ecosystem, such as a deep lake or ocean, is typically inverted?

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Answer: The standing crop of phytoplankton at any given moment is small due to their rapid turnover rate and short lifespan, while supporting a larger biomass of longer-lived primary consumers.

Answer

The standing crop of phytoplankton at any given moment is small due to their rapid turnover rate and short lifespan, while supporting a larger biomass of longer-lived primary consumers.
In aquatic ecosystems (like oceans and lakes), the pyramid of biomass is inverted because the standing crop of primary producers (phytoplankton) present at any given moment is small compared to the biomass of primary consumers (zooplankton/fish). Phytoplankton have very short lifespans and high turnover rates, continually replenishing the food supply despite low instantaneous biomass.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Define biomass pyramid dynamics in aquatic environments.
In aquatic ecosystems, primary producers are predominantly microscopic phytoplankton with extremely rapid life cycles.
Understanding standing crop versus productivity rate is necessary to explain inverted pyramids.
2
Compare turnover rates of producers and consumers.
Because phytoplankton reproduce and are consumed rapidly, their instantaneous biomass (standing crop) measured at any single point in time is low, even though total energy generation over time is high.
This rapid turnover enables a small mass of producers to sustain larger, longer-lived consumers like zooplankton and fish.

Key Concept

Inverted Pyramid of Biomass in Aquatic Ecosystems
Estimated Time:45s
Question 110Question →

Which one of the following endemic Indian species is correctly matched with its corresponding biodiversity hotspot and primary natural habitat?

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Answer: Lion-tailed Macaque — Western Ghats — Tropical evergreen forest canopy

Answer

Lion-tailed Macaque — Western Ghats — Tropical evergreen forest canopy
The correct option accurately pairs the Lion-tailed Macaque with the Western Ghats biodiversity hotspot and its native tropical evergreen canopy habitat.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Examine the geographic distribution and habitat of the Lion-tailed Macaque.
The Lion-tailed Macaque (Macaca silenus) is endemic exclusively to undisturbed upper canopy patches of tropical evergreen rainforests in the Western Ghats hotspot of South India.
It is an arboreal primate dependent on dense, continuous evergreen canopy for foraging and survival.
2
Evaluate the hotspot and habitat pairings for the other species.
Sangai belongs to Manipur (Indo-Burma hotspot / Loktak phumdis), Nilgiri Tahr belongs to Western Ghats shola grasslands, and Namdapha Flying Squirrel belongs to Arunachal Pradesh (Himalaya / Indo-Burma transition zone).
Cross-referencing biogeographical regions demonstrates that the remaining pairings misassign either the hotspot or the primary habitat type.

Key Concept

Endemic Species Distribution across Indian Biodiversity Hotspots
Question 111Question →

Match the international environmental conventions and protocols in List-I with their primary objective or environmental focus in List-II:

Click a left item, then click its matching right item

Items

Montreal Protocol
Basel Convention
Ramsar Convention
Minamata Convention

Matches

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Answer

Montreal Protocol matches with Phasing out substances that deplete the ozone layer; Basel Convention matches with Regulation of transboundary movements of hazardous wastes; Ramsar Convention matches with Conservation and sustainable use of wetlands; Minamata Convention matches with Protection of human health and environment from mercury emissions.
Each international agreement corresponds directly to its defined domain: Montreal Protocol targets ozone-depleting substances, Basel Convention governs transboundary movements of hazardous waste, Ramsar Convention protects wetlands, and Minamata Convention controls toxic mercury contamination.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the primary focal area of the Montreal Protocol.
Protection of the ozone layer by phasing out ODS (Ozone Depleting Substances).
Adopted in 1987 under the Vienna Convention umbrella specifically for controlling substances like CFCs.
2
Identify the primary focal area of the Basel Convention.
Control of transboundary movements and disposal of hazardous wastes.
Adopted in 1989 to prevent illegal dumping of toxic wastes from developed to developing nations.
3
Identify the primary focal area of the Ramsar Convention.
Conservation and wise use of wetlands of international importance.
Signed in Ramsar, Iran in 1971, focusing exclusively on wetland ecosystem preservation.
4
Identify the primary focal area of the Minamata Convention.
Addressing toxic mercury emissions and releases.
Named after Minamata city in Japan, which suffered severe mercury poisoning in the 20th century.

Key Concept

Primary Mandates of Major International Environmental Treaties
Question 112Question →

Consider the following statements regarding major international environmental conventions and protocols:

1. The Nagoya Protocol operationalizes the fair and equitable sharing of benefits arising from the utilization of genetic resources under the Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD).
2. The Kigali Amendment explicitly brought Hydrofluorocarbons (HFCs)—which are non-ozone depleting greenhouse gases with high global warming potential—under the phasedown schedule of the Montreal Protocol.
3. The Rotterdam Convention establishes a legally binding global mechanism designed for the complete ban and elimination of all persistent toxic industrial chemicals.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: 1 and 2 only

Answer

1 and 2 only
The correct combination comprises statements 1 and 2. The Nagoya Protocol addresses benefit-sharing of genetic resources under the CBD, and the Kigali Amendment incorporates hydrofluorocarbons (HFCs) into the Montreal Protocol despite their non-ozone depleting nature. Statement 3 is false because the Rotterdam Convention regulates international trade transparency through Prior Informed Consent (PIC), whereas chemical prohibition is governed by the Stockholm Convention.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze Statement 1 regarding the Nagoya Protocol.
Statement 1 is correct. Adopted in 2010 under the Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD), the Nagoya Protocol sets out obligations regarding access to genetic resources, benefit-sharing, and compliance.
It directly targets the third key objective of the CBD.
2
Analyze Statement 2 regarding the Kigali Amendment.
Statement 2 is correct. The Kigali Amendment (2016) amended the Montreal Protocol to phase down the production and consumption of HFCs.
Although HFCs were introduced as ozone-friendly replacements for CFCs and HCFCs, they are powerful greenhouse gases; regulating them under the Montreal Protocol prevents significant additional global warming.
3
Analyze Statement 3 regarding the Rotterdam Convention.
Statement 3 is incorrect. The Rotterdam Convention (1998) promotes shared responsibility in the international trade of certain hazardous chemicals through the Prior Informed Consent (PIC) procedure.
The convention responsible for banning and eliminating toxic persistent industrial chemicals is the Stockholm Convention on Persistent Organic Pollutants (POPs), not the Rotterdam Convention.

Key Concept

Specific mandates and operational frameworks of international environmental agreements (Nagoya Protocol, Kigali Amendment, Rotterdam Convention)
Estimated Time:1m 15s
Question 113Question →

Air pollutants are broadly classified into primary and secondary pollutants based on their origin. Which of the following is classified as a secondary air pollutant?

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Answer: Ground-level Ozone (O3O_3)

Answer

Ground-level Ozone (O3O_3) is a secondary air pollutant because it forms in the atmosphere through chemical reactions between primary pollutants in the presence of sunlight.
Ground-level ozone (O3O_3) is formed when primary air pollutants such as nitrogen oxides (NOxNO_x) and volatile organic compounds (VOCs) react chemically in the atmosphere under sunlight, defining it as a secondary air pollutant.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the definition of primary vs secondary pollutants
Primary pollutants are emitted directly from sources, while secondary pollutants are formed through atmospheric reactions between primary pollutants.
Classification depends on whether the substance is emitted directly or produced chemically post-emission.
2
Evaluate the origin of Ground-level Ozone
Ground-level Ozone (O3O_3) is formed via photochemical reactions involving NOxNO_x and VOCs triggered by solar radiation.
No direct emission source releases ground-level ozone as a primary pollutant.

Key Concept

Classification of Air Pollutants (Primary vs. Secondary Pollutants)
Estimated Time:45s
Question 114Question →

Consider the following statements regarding environmental regulatory and statutory authorities in India:

1. The Central Ground Water Authority (CGWA) was constituted as a statutory body under Section 3(3) of the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986.
2. The National Board for Wildlife (NBWL) is an executive body formed via administrative order and is chaired by the Union Minister of Environment, Forest and Climate Change.
3. The Genetic Engineering Appraisal Committee (GEAC) is a statutory committee operating under rules notified pursuant to the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: 1 and 3 only

Answer

1 and 3 only
The option selecting statements 1 and 3 only is correct. The Central Ground Water Authority is indeed a statutory body under Section 3(3) of the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986. Similarly, the Genetic Engineering Appraisal Committee is a statutory committee under the 1989 Rules of the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986. The statement regarding the National Board for Wildlife is incorrect because it is a statutory body under the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972 (Section 5A) and is headed by the Prime Minister.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Evaluate Statement 1 regarding the Central Ground Water Authority (CGWA).
Statement 1 is correct.
CGWA was constituted under Section 3(3) of the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986 to regulate and control groundwater development and management in the country.
2
Evaluate Statement 2 regarding the National Board for Wildlife (NBWL).
Statement 2 is incorrect.
NBWL is a statutory body constituted under Section 5A of the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972 (amended in 2002). It is chaired by the Prime Minister of India, not the Union Minister of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (who chairs its Standing Committee).
3
Evaluate Statement 3 regarding the Genetic Engineering Appraisal Committee (GEAC).
Statement 3 is correct.
GEAC is a statutory committee under the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change, established under the 'Rules for the Manufacture, Use, Import, Export and Storage of Hazardous Microorganisms/Genetically Engineered Organisms or Cells, 1989' framed under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986.

Key Concept

Statutory basis and apex governance structures of key Indian environmental institutions
Question 115Question →

Match the conservation initiatives and methodologies listed in List-I with their corresponding conservation framework and technical attributes in List-II.

Click a left item, then click its matching right item

Items

Sacred Groves
Cryopreservation
Gene Sanctuaries
Botanical Gardens

Matches

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Answer

Sacred Groves match with in-situ preservation through traditional community guardianship; Cryopreservation matches with ex-situ ultralow temperature storage at −196∘C-196^\circ\text{C}; Gene Sanctuaries match with in-situ protection of wild genetic strains in natural habitats; and Botanical Gardens match with ex-situ living plant collection facilities.
Sacred Groves represent traditional community-led in-situ conservation within natural habitats. Cryopreservation is a specialized ex-situ technique utilizing liquid nitrogen at −196∘C-196^\circ\text{C}. Gene Sanctuaries protect wild progenitors on-site in their natural habitats (in-situ). Botanical Gardens represent off-site ex-situ living collections managed for scientific research.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Categorize each item in List-I into either in-situ (on-site natural environment) or ex-situ (off-site artificial/laboratory environment) frameworks.
Sacred Groves and Gene Sanctuaries are in-situ mechanisms. Cryopreservation and Botanical Gardens are ex-situ mechanisms.
Correct classification between natural ecosystems and off-site repositories is essential for resolving the matching pairs.
2
Match Sacred Groves and Gene Sanctuaries to their specific in-situ definitions in List-II based on community involvement versus specific crop progenitor conservation.
Sacred Groves correspond to traditional community guardianship of natural forest patches, whereas Gene Sanctuaries target genetic strains of wild relatives.
Sacred Groves rely on cultural traditions while Gene Sanctuaries are scientifically designated protected zones for wild crop relatives.
3
Match Cryopreservation and Botanical Gardens to their specific ex-situ attributes in List-II.
Cryopreservation involves germplasm storage in liquid nitrogen at −196∘C-196^\circ\text{C}, whereas Botanical Gardens involve living plant collections.
Cryopreservation utilizes cryo-technologies while botanical gardens maintain living physical specimens in cultivated grounds.

Key Concept

Distinction between in-situ (on-site natural habitat protection) and ex-situ (off-site artificial preservation) biodiversity conservation mechanisms.
Question 116Question →

Match the international environmental conventions listed in List-I with their primary subject matter in List-II:

Click a left item, then click its matching right item

Items

Basel Convention
Rotterdam Convention
Aarhus Convention
Espoo Convention

Matches

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Answer

Basel Convention matches with Control of Transboundary Movements of Hazardous Wastes and their Disposal; Rotterdam Convention matches with Prior Informed Consent Procedure for Certain Hazardous Chemicals in International Trade; Aarhus Convention matches with Access to Information, Public Participation, and Access to Justice in Environmental Matters; Espoo Convention matches with Environmental Impact Assessment in a Transboundary Context.
Each agreement addresses a specific mechanism in global environmental governance: the Basel Convention regulates transboundary movements of hazardous wastes; the Rotterdam Convention mandates the Prior Informed Consent procedure for hazardous chemical trade; the Aarhus Convention grants public access to environmental information, participation, and justice; and the Espoo Convention regulates transboundary environmental impact assessments.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the mandate of the Basel Convention.
It targets hazardous waste management, reduction, and movement across international borders.
Adopted in 1989, it protects human health and the environment against adverse effects of hazardous wastes.
2
Determine the operational mechanism of the Rotterdam Convention.
It establishes the Prior Informed Consent (PIC) procedure for hazardous chemical trade.
It ensures importing countries receive critical safety information before hazardous chemicals enter their borders.
3
Identify the procedural focus of the Aarhus Convention.
It codifies public rights regarding environmental information access, decision-making participation, and legal justice.
Signed under UNECE in 1998, it links government accountability to environmental rights.
4
Determine the key objective of the Espoo Convention.
It mandates cross-border Environmental Impact Assessments (EIA) for proposed national projects.
Adopted in 1991, it encourages multilateral consultation prior to approving potentially damaging transboundary developments.

Key Concept

Scope and legal objectives of international environmental governance conventions regarding waste, chemical trade, procedural rights, and transboundary impact assessments.
Question 117Question →

Match the core ecological concepts in List-I with their corresponding structural and functional descriptions in List-II:

Click a left item, then click its matching right item

Items

Ecotone
Ecological Niche
Standing Crop
Inverted Biomass Pyramid

Matches

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Answer

Ecotone matches with the transition zone between communities exhibiting the edge effect; Ecological Niche matches with the functional role and resource utilization space; Standing Crop matches with the total mass of living organic material present per unit area at a given time; Inverted Biomass Pyramid matches with the trophic structural state typical of pelagic ocean ecosystems.
Each ecological concept accurately corresponds to its defining structural attribute: Ecotone is the boundary zone exhibiting the edge effect; Ecological Niche defines the functional role and resource space; Standing Crop quantifies living organic biomass at a given moment; and the Inverted Biomass Pyramid characterizes aquatic marine systems where producer standing crop is smaller than consumer standing crop.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the spatial structural boundaries in ecosystem ecology
Identify Ecotone as the overlapping boundary between adjacent ecosystems characterized by the edge effect
Ecotones naturally house species from both adjoining ecosystems plus edge-specialized species
2
Distinguish between habitat space and functional ecological roles
Map Ecological Niche to the multi-dimensional functional role and resource interaction space of an organism
Habitat is an organism's address, whereas niche is its ecological profession
3
Evaluate ecosystem quantitative parameters measuring organic material
Associate Standing Crop with the instantaneous total dry weight/mass of living organisms per unit area
Standing crop measures living organic matter at a snapshot in time, distinguishing it from non-living nutrients
4
Examine structural trophic anomalies across terrestrial and aquatic ecosystems
Connect Inverted Biomass Pyramid to marine aquatic systems
Primary producers in open water (phytoplankton) have small standing crops but extremely high turnover rates compared to primary consumers

Key Concept

Structural components of ecosystems including spatial transitions, functional roles, biomass quantification, and aquatic trophic pyramids
Question 118Question →

Consider the following statements regarding species endemism and global biodiversity hotspots overlapping the Indian territory:

1. Neo-endemic species are evolutionary phylogenetically ancient species that were formerly widespread but are now restricted to narrow geographical refugia.
2. The Indo-Burma biodiversity hotspot covers the entire plain of the Brahmaputra valley along with all low-lying agricultural floodplains of North-East India.
3. The Andaman Islands group falls under the Indo-Burma biodiversity hotspot, whereas the Nicobar Islands group forms part of the Sundaland hotspot.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: 3 only

Answer

The correct option is the one stating that statement 3 only is correct.
The third statement is correct because the Andaman Islands fall biogeographically within the Indo-Burma hotspot, whereas the Nicobar Islands belong to the Sundaland hotspot. Statement 1 is false as it confuses palaeo-endemism with neo-endemism. Statement 2 is false because the Brahmaputra floodplain is excluded from the Indo-Burma hotspot bounds.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze Statement 1 regarding types of endemic species.
Statement 1 is incorrect.
Endemic species are broadly categorized into palaeo-endemics (ancient species formerly widespread, now confined to small refugia, e.g., Ginkgo biloba) and neo-endemics (recently evolved species via hybridization or polyploidy). Statement 1 incorrectly describes neo-endemics using the definition of palaeo-endemics.
2
Analyze Statement 2 regarding the spatial delineation of the Indo-Burma Hotspot in India.
Statement 2 is incorrect.
The Indo-Burma biodiversity hotspot encompasses North-Eastern India south of the Brahmaputra River (and parts of Arunachal Pradesh), but excludes the fertile agricultural floodplains of the Brahmaputra Valley.
3
Analyze Statement 3 regarding the island territories of India.
Statement 3 is correct.
India's island archipelagos are split across two hotspots: the Andaman archipelago is part of the Indo-Burma hotspot, while the Nicobar archipelago forms part of the Sundaland hotspot.

Key Concept

Classification of Endemism and Biogeographical Limits of Indian Biodiversity Hotspots
Question 119Question →

Match the Indian biodiversity hotspot regions (List-I) with their corresponding characteristic endemic flora or fauna indicators (List-II).

Click a left item, then click its matching right item

Items

Western Ghats Region
Eastern Himalayas Region
Indo-Burma Region (Northeast India)
Sundaland Region (Nicobar Islands)

Matches

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Answer

Western Ghats Region corresponds to Nilgiri Tahr and Neelakurinji; Eastern Himalayas Region corresponds to Red Panda and Himalayan Yew; Indo-Burma Region corresponds to Mrs. Hume's Pheasant and Hoolock Gibbon; Sundaland Region corresponds to Nicobar Megapode and Tree Fern.
Each Indian biodiversity hotspot contains distinct geographical boundaries and characteristic endemic indicators. The Western Ghats is defined by Nilgiri Tahr and Neelakurinji; the Eastern Himalayas host the Red Panda and Himalayan Yew; Indo-Burma encompasses Mrs. Hume's Pheasant and the Hoolock Gibbon in Northeast India; and Sundaland covers the Nicobar group containing the endemic Nicobar Megapode.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the endemic indicator species for the peninsular mountain chain of the Western Ghats.
The Nilgiri Tahr and Neelakurinji belong exclusively to the Western Ghats montane ecosystems.
These species require high-altitude shola grasslands specific to southwestern India.
2
Associate the Eastern Himalayan high-altitude temperate forest species.
The Red Panda and Himalayan Yew represent the Eastern Himalayas hotspot flora and fauna.
The Eastern Himalayas provide cold temperate coniferous and bamboo habitats required by these species.
3
Match Northeastern Indian non-Himalayan hills (Indo-Burma boundary) with its unique faunal species.
Mrs. Hume's Pheasant and India's only ape, the Hoolock Gibbon, belong to the Indo-Burma hotspot boundary in India.
These species inhabit the dense tropical and subtropical rainforest patches south of the Brahmaputra valley.
4
Link the island ecosystem of the Nicobar group to the Sundaland hotspot.
The Nicobar Megapode and tree ferns represent island endemism within the Sundaland hotspot.
The Nicobar Islands fall under the Sundaland hotspot, distinct from the Andaman Islands which belong to Indo-Burma.

Key Concept

Geographical Mapping of Endemic Flora and Fauna across India's Four Biodiversity Hotspots
Question 120Question →

Which of the following environmental legislations in India is commonly referred to as the 'Umbrella Legislation' for providing a comprehensive statutory framework for environmental protection?

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Answer: Environment (Protection) Act, 1986

Answer

Environment (Protection) Act, 1986
The Environment (Protection) Act, 1986 is known as the 'Umbrella Legislation' because it creates an overarching administrative and legislative framework to coordinate activities under existing single-medium environmental laws, such as the Water Act 1974 and Air Act 1981.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the scope of the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986.
It covers water, air, soil, and noise pollution under a single statutory umbrella.
Earlier laws (Water Act 1974 and Air Act 1981) were domain-specific and lacked comprehensive coverage.
2
Relate the designated name 'Umbrella Legislation' to Indian environmental law.
The 1986 Act is specifically termed umbrella legislation because it bridges regulatory gaps and empowers the central government to coordinate state and central pollution authorities.
Enacted under Article 253 of the Constitution of India to implement decisions made at the 1972 United Nations Conference on the Human Environment.

Key Concept

Environment (Protection) Act, 1986 as Umbrella Legislation
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