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Indian Polity and Governance

316 questions

All types316Multiple choice161Multiple select68Matching74Ordering13
Question 241Question →

Consider the following statements regarding the State Public Service Commission (SPSC):

1. Although appointed by the Governor of the State, the Chairman and members of an SPSC can be removed from office only by the President of India.
2. The procedure and grounds for the removal of an SPSC member are identical to those prescribed for a Judge of a High Court.
3. Upon ceasing to hold office, the Chairman of an SPSC is eligible for appointment as the Chairman or a member of the Union Public Service Commission (UPSC).

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: 1 and 3 only

Answer

Statements 1 and 3 are correct.
Under Article 316 of the Constitution of India, the Chairman and members of a State Public Service Commission are appointed by the Governor of the state. However, under Article 317, they can be removed from office only by an order of the President of India on the ground of misbehaviour after the Supreme Court, on a reference made by the President, conducts an inquiry and recommends removal. This makes Statement 1 correct and Statement 2 incorrect (since High Court Judges are removed through a parliamentary address under Article 124(4)). Under Article 319, on ceasing to hold office, the Chairman of an SPSC is eligible for appointment as the Chairman or a member of the Union Public Service Commission (UPSC) or as the Chairman of any other SPSC, making Statement 3 correct.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Evaluate Statement 1 regarding appointment and removal authority of SPSC members.
Statement 1 is correct. Under Article 316, SPSC members are appointed by the Governor, but under Article 317, they can only be removed by the President of India.
Constitutional provisions grant independence to SPSC members by restricting the power of removal strictly to the President.
2
Evaluate Statement 2 regarding the removal mechanism for SPSC members vs High Court Judges.
Statement 2 is incorrect. Removal of SPSC members on grounds of misbehaviour requires the President to refer the matter to the Supreme Court for an inquiry. High Court Judges, by contrast, are removed by Parliament passing an address supported by a special majority.
The removal procedures for SPSC members (Article 317) and High Court Judges (Article 217/124) follow distinct constitutional mechanisms.
3
Evaluate Statement 3 regarding post-retirement eligibility of the SPSC Chairman.
Statement 3 is correct. Article 319 explicitly allows the Chairman of an SPSC to be appointed as the Chairman or member of the UPSC, or as the Chairman of another SPSC.
Article 319 prevents government influence while permitting lateral or upward movement to higher constitutional bodies like the UPSC.

Key Concept

Appointment, removal safeguards, and post-retirement eligibility of State Public Service Commission members under Articles 316, 317, and 319 of the Constitution of India.
Question 242Question →

Consider the following statements regarding Public Interest Litigation (PIL) in the Indian judicial system:

1. The traditional rule of *locus standi*, which mandates that only an aggrieved person whose legal right is infringed can move the court, is relaxed in PIL cases.
2. PIL can be filed against a purely private entity for private contractual disputes without any state involvement or public duty element.
3. The Supreme Court of India can entertain informal letters or postcards sent by public-spirited citizens as writ petitions under its epistolary jurisdiction.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: 1 and 3 only

Answer

1 and 3 only
Statements 1 and 3 are correct. The core innovation of Public Interest Litigation (PIL) in India lies in relaxing the traditional rule of *locus standi*, enabling third parties to represent disadvantaged sections of society. Additionally, under the Supreme Court's epistolary jurisdiction (developed by Justice P.N. Bhagwati and Justice V.R. Krishna Iyer), informal letters written to the court can be treated as writ petitions. Statement 2 is incorrect because PILs are directed against public bodies or entities discharging public duties and cannot be filed for private personal disputes.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze Statement 1 regarding locus standi.
Statement 1 is correct.
In traditional litigation, only the person whose rights are directly violated can approach the court. PIL departs from this by allowing any public-spirited citizen or organisation to file a petition on behalf of marginalized individuals who cannot access justice.
2
Analyze Statement 2 regarding maintainability against private entities.
Statement 2 is incorrect.
PIL is designed to enforce fundamental rights, statutory obligations, and public duties against the State (Article 12) or agencies performing public functions. It cannot be invoked for private legal grievances or private contractual enforcement.
3
Analyze Statement 3 regarding epistolary jurisdiction.
Statement 3 is correct.
Through epistolary jurisdiction, the Supreme Court converts simple letters, postcards, or telegrams highlighting social injustices into formal writ petitions under Article 32.

Key Concept

Public Interest Litigation (PIL), Epistolary Jurisdiction, and Locus Standi
Estimated Time:1m 0s
Question 243Question →

Which of the following statements regarding the constitutional provisions and operational safeguards of Constitutional Bodies in India are correct?

Select all that apply

Show answer & explanation

Answer: The administrative expenses of the Union Public Service Commission, including all salaries, allowances, and pensions of its members and staff, are charged upon the Consolidated Fund of India.; The Finance Commission is a quasi-judicial constitutional body constituted by the President of India at the expiration of every fifth year or earlier.

Answer

The statements confirming that the administrative expenses of the Union Public Service Commission are charged upon the Consolidated Fund of India and that the Finance Commission is constituted every fifth year by the President under Article 280 are correct.
The statement regarding the Union Public Service Commission is accurate because Article 322 charges its administrative expenses directly to the Consolidated Fund of India, rendering them non-votable. The statement regarding the Finance Commission is also accurate because Article 280 mandates its constitution by the President every five years or earlier to govern financial devolution.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the financial independence provisions of the Union Public Service Commission.
Article 322 specifies that expenses of the Union Public Service Commission are charged on the Consolidated Fund of India.
Charging expenses on the Consolidated Fund ensures immunity from annual parliamentary vote and secures functional autonomy.
2
Evaluate the removal mechanism for the Comptroller and Auditor General of India.
Removal requires a special majority in both Houses of Parliament, identical to a Supreme Court judge.
A simple majority resolution is insufficient to remove the Comptroller and Auditor General.
3
Verify the constitutional mandate and periodic constitution of the Finance Commission.
Article 280 empowers the President to establish the Finance Commission every five years or earlier.
This requirement maintains a regular mechanism for fiscal federalism and tax devolution.
4
Examine the age limit prescribed for Election Commissioners.
The age limit for Election Commissioners is sixty-five years, not sixty-two years.
The sixty-two-year threshold applies to State Public Service Commission members.

Key Concept

Constitutional Safeguards and Mandates of Independent Bodies in India
Question 244Question →

Regarding the constitutional provisions and legislative powers of the Union Executive of India, which of the following statements are correct?

Select all that apply

Show answer & explanation

Answer: The President can promulgate an ordinance under Article 123 when either of the two Houses of Parliament is not in session.; An ordinance promulgated by the President has the same force as an Act of Parliament, but it automatically ceases to operate six weeks after the reassembly of Parliament.

Answer

The correct statements are that the President can promulgate an ordinance when either House of Parliament is not in session, and that such an ordinance carries the full force of an Act of Parliament but ceases to operate six weeks after Parliament reassembles.
Under Article 123 of the Constitution of India, the President can issue an ordinance when either of the two Houses of Parliament is not in session, because an Act cannot be passed by a single House alone. Furthermore, such an ordinance has the same effect as a parliamentary statute, but it must be submitted to Parliament upon reassembly and automatically lapses six weeks from the date of reassembly unless ratified earlier.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the session prerequisite for Ordinance Promulgation under Article 123.
Since parliamentary legislation requires concurrence from both the Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha, Parliament is deemed unable to pass ordinary legislation if either House is prorogued or not in session.
This establishes the necessity condition allowing the President to promulgate ordinances.
2
Evaluate the legal effect and lifetime limitations of an Ordinance.
An ordinance holds identical legal force to an Act passed by Parliament, but Article 123(2)(a) mandates that it must be laid before Parliament and expires six weeks after Parliament reconvenes unless passed or disapproved sooner.
This maintains parliamentary supremacy over temporary executive lawmaking.
3
Examine the nature of presidential discretion and formal naming of executive actions under Articles 74, 77, and 123.
Ordinance power is executive-driven on the advice of the Council of Ministers under Article 74, and Article 77(1) explicitly dictates that all executive actions are formally taken in the name of the President.
This invalidates assertions claiming independent presidential discretion or executive actions taken in the Prime Minister's name.

Key Concept

Ordinance-Making Power of the President (Article 123) and Conduct of Government Business (Article 77)
Question 245Question →

Which of the following statements regarding the writ jurisdiction and constitutional powers of the Supreme Court and High Courts in India are correct?

Select all that apply

Show answer & explanation

Answer: The High Court under Article 226 has the authority to issue writs not only for the enforcement of Fundamental Rights but also for any ordinary legal right.; The power of judicial review of High Courts and the Supreme Court under Articles 226 and 32 forms part of the basic structure of the Constitution of India.

Answer

The correct statements are that High Courts under Article 226 can issue writs for both Fundamental Rights and ordinary legal rights, and that the power of judicial review under Articles 32 and 226 forms an essential part of the basic structure of the Indian Constitution.
High Courts under Article 226 possess broader subject-matter writ powers than the Supreme Court under Article 32 because High Courts can enforce both Fundamental Rights and ordinary legal remedies. Furthermore, judicial review under Articles 32 and 226 was definitively established as a basic structure feature of the Indian Constitution in L. Chandra Kumar v. Union of India.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Evaluate the scope of High Court writ jurisdiction under Article 226 compared to Supreme Court under Article 32.
Article 226 covers Fundamental Rights and 'any other purpose' (ordinary legal rights), making its subject-matter scope wider than Article 32.
Article 32 is restricted specifically to enforcing Part III Fundamental Rights, whereas Article 226 extends to non-fundamental legal rights.
2
Examine constitutional status of judicial review under Articles 32 and 226.
The Supreme Court in L. Chandra Kumar (1997) declared judicial review under Articles 32 and 226 as part of the basic structure of the Constitution.
Constitutional amendments cannot eliminate judicial review powers of the High Courts or Supreme Court.
3
Assess the nature of contempt powers under Articles 129 and 215.
Articles 129 and 215 grant inherent constitutional status to the Supreme Court and High Courts as Courts of Record with power to punish for contempt.
Statutory law (such as the Contempt of Courts Act) cannot curtail or abrogate constitutional powers vested directly by Articles 129 and 215.

Key Concept

Constitutional Jurisdiction of Supreme Court and High Courts
Question 246Question →

Under Article 324 of the Constitution of India, an Election Commissioner or a Regional Commissioner can be removed from office ONLY on the recommendation of which of the following constitutional authorities?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: The Chief Election Commissioner

Answer

The Chief Election Commissioner
Under the second proviso to Article 324(5) of the Constitution of India, an Election Commissioner or a Regional Commissioner cannot be removed from office except on the recommendation of the Chief Election Commissioner. This specific requirement safeguards non-chief election commissioners from arbitrary removal by the executive branch.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the constitutional provisions governing the removal procedure of Election Commissioners and Regional Commissioners.
Article 324(5) of the Constitution outlines the conditions of service and tenure safeguards for members of the Election Commission of India.
Constitutional safeguards ensure institutional independence while maintaining structural hierarchy within the commission.
2
Analyze the proviso to Article 324(5) regarding non-chief commissioners.
The second proviso to Article 324(5) mandates that any other Election Commissioner or Regional Commissioner shall not be removed from office except on the recommendation of the Chief Election Commissioner.
This provision prevents executive overreach and protects non-chief commissioners from arbitrary dismissal while preserving administrative cohesion.

Key Concept

Removal safeguards and procedural conditions for Election Commissioners under Article 324
Question 247Question →

Under Article 74(1) of the Constitution of India, as amended by the 44th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1978, which of the following statements correctly describes the constitutional position of the President regarding the advice tendered by the Union Council of Ministers?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: The President may require the Council of Ministers to reconsider such advice, but must act in accordance with the advice tendered after such reconsideration.

Answer

The President may require the Council of Ministers to reconsider such advice, but must act in accordance with the advice tendered after such reconsideration.
The correct option accurately states the proviso added to Article 74(1) by the 44th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1978. While the President can request the Council of Ministers to reconsider their advice, the President must act according to the advice tendered after such reconsideration.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the core constitutional provision being tested.
Article 74(1) governs the executive relation between the President and the Council of Ministers headed by the Prime Minister.
Understanding the scope of ministerial advice is essential to understanding the parliamentary form of government in India.
2
Analyze the impact of key Constitutional Amendment Acts.
The 42nd Amendment Act (1976) made Cabinet advice strictly binding on the President. The 44th Amendment Act (1978) introduced a proviso allowing the President to return advice once for reconsideration.
The 44th Amendment restored a limited check by giving the President one-time suspensive power to request reconsideration.
3
Evaluate the binding nature post-reconsideration.
Once the Council of Ministers reconsider the advice and resubmit it (whether modified or unchanged), the President is constitutionally obligated to accept it.
This maintains the supremacy of the elected Council of Ministers responsible to the Lok Sabha.

Key Concept

Presidential Obligation to Ministerial Advice under Article 74
Question 248Question →

With reference to the Appellate Jurisdiction and Special Leave Petitions (SLP) under Article 136 of the Constitution of India, consider the following statements:
1. The Supreme Court may, in its discretion, grant special leave to appeal from any judgment, decree, determination, sentence, or order in any cause or matter passed by any court or tribunal in the territory of India.
2. The provisions of Article 136 do not apply to any judgment, determination, sentence, or order passed by any court or tribunal constituted under any law relating to the Armed Forces.
3. Special Leave Petitions can only be entertained against final orders of a High Court and cannot be granted against interlocutory or interim orders.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: 1 and 2 only

Answer

Statements 1 and 2 only are correct.
The correct option is the one stating that only 1 and 2 are correct. Article 136(1) authorizes the Supreme Court to grant special leave to appeal against any judgment, decree, determination, or order of any court or tribunal in India. Article 136(2) explicitly excludes military tribunals from this provision. Statement 3 is false because Article 136 extends to both final and interlocutory/interim orders.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze Statement 1 regarding the scope of Article 136(1)
Article 136(1) gives plenary discretionary power to the Supreme Court to grant special leave to appeal from any judgment, decree, determination, sentence, or order in any cause or matter passed by any court or tribunal in India.
This establishes the wide constitutional scope of Special Leave Petitions.
2
Analyze Statement 2 regarding the exception under Article 136(2)
Article 136(2) explicitly states that Article 136(1) shall not apply to any judgment, determination, sentence, or order passed by any court or tribunal constituted by or under any law relating to the Armed Forces.
Courts-martial and military tribunals are specifically exempted from Article 136 jurisdiction.
3
Analyze Statement 3 regarding final versus interlocutory orders
Article 136 applies to 'any judgment, decree, determination, sentence or order', which means it covers both final judgments as well as interlocutory orders.
Unlike regular constitutional appeals under Articles 132 or 133 which require final orders, Article 136 is an extraordinary discretionary remedy not limited to final orders.

Key Concept

Discretionary Jurisdiction of the Supreme Court under Article 136 (Special Leave Petition)
Question 249Question →

Match each Constitutional Body listed in Column A with its primary constitutional mandate and governing Article specified in Column B. Which of the following combinations correctly pairs every constitutional body with its official provision?

Click a left item, then click its matching right item

Items

Comptroller and Auditor General of India
Finance Commission of India
Election Commission of India
Union Public Service Commission

Matches

Show answer & explanation

Answer

The Comptroller and Auditor General corresponds to Article 148 (Auditing accounts), the Finance Commission corresponds to Article 280 (Distribution of tax proceeds), the Election Commission corresponds to Article 324 (Superintendence of elections), and the Union Public Service Commission corresponds to Article 315 (Conducting civil service examinations).
Each body is correctly mapped to its principal constitutional article: CAG to Article 148, Finance Commission to Article 280, Election Commission to Article 324, and UPSC to Article 315.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the constitutional article and primary mandate of the Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG).
Article 148 provides for the CAG as the guardian of the public purse responsible for auditing Union and State expenditures.
Establishes the link between CAG and Article 148.
2
Identify the constitutional article and role of the Finance Commission.
Article 280 mandates the President to constitute a Finance Commission to recommend fiscal devolution.
Establishes the link between Finance Commission and Article 280.
3
Identify the constitutional provision for the Election Commission.
Article 324 vests the superintendence, direction, and control of parliamentary and state elections in the Election Commission.
Establishes the link between Election Commission and Article 324.
4
Identify the constitutional basis for the Union Public Service Commission (UPSC).
Article 315 provides for Public Service Commissions for the Union and for the States.
Establishes the link between UPSC and Article 315.

Key Concept

Articles and Mandates of Major Indian Constitutional Bodies
Estimated Time:1m 15s
Question 250Question →

Match List-I (Constitutional Articles of the Union Executive) with List-II (Their Respective Provisions) and select the correct matching pair:

Click a left item, then click its matching right item

Items

Article 53
Article 65
Article 71
Article 111

Matches

Show answer & explanation

Answer

Article 53 matches with the vesting of Union executive power in the President; Article 65 matches with the Vice-President acting as President during casual vacancies; Article 71 matches with the adjudication of Presidential or Vice-Presidential election disputes by the Supreme Court; Article 111 matches with Presidential assent options for parliamentary Bills.
Each constitutional article in List-I corresponds directly to its functional mandate in List-II: Article 53 vests Union executive power in the President; Article 65 details the Vice-President's role as acting President; Article 71 establishes Supreme Court authority over presidential election disputes; and Article 111 details presidential options upon receiving parliamentary Bills.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the scope of Article 53
Article 53 declares that the executive power of the Union is formally vested in the President of India.
Establishes the head of the Union Executive authority.
2
Identify the scope of Article 65
Article 65 provides for the Vice-President to act as President during vacancies in the office of the President.
Ensures executive continuity when the presidency becomes vacant.
3
Identify the scope of Article 71
Article 71 vests exclusive jurisdiction in the Supreme Court to adjudicate disputes regarding Presidential and Vice-Presidential elections.
Prevents legislative or administrative interference in presidential election disputes.
4
Identify the scope of Article 111
Article 111 specifies Presidential options regarding Bills passed by Parliament (assent, withholding, or returning non-Money Bills).
Defines the legislative role and veto options of the Union Executive.

Key Concept

Constitutional Articles governing the Union Executive and presidential powers
Question 251Question →

Match the Constitutional Articles relating to the Supreme Court of India in List-I with their corresponding powers and provisions in List-II.

Click a left item, then click its matching right item

Items

Article 137
Article 141
Article 142
Article 144

Matches

Show answer & explanation

Answer

Article 137 matches the power of review of judgments; Article 141 matches the law declared by the Supreme Court being binding on all courts; Article 142 matches the power to enforce orders to do complete justice; and Article 144 matches civil and judicial authorities acting in aid of the Supreme Court.
Each constitutional provision correctly pairs with its respective scope under Part V of the Constitution of India: Article 137 confers review power, Article 141 establishes binding precedent, Article 142 provides plenary power to do complete justice, and Article 144 obligates civil and judicial authorities to act in aid of the Supreme Court.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the constitutional scope of Article 137
Article 137 explicitly empowers the Supreme Court to review its own judgments and orders.
This is a key aspect of judicial review enabling self-correction by the highest court.
2
Identify the constitutional scope of Article 141
Article 141 establishes the doctrine of binding precedent across the Indian judiciary.
It ensures uniformity of law across all subordinate courts.
3
Identify the constitutional scope of Article 142
Article 142 grants plenary powers to the Supreme Court to pass orders for doing complete justice.
It acts as an extraordinary constitutional power to bridge statutory gaps.
4
Identify the constitutional scope of Article 144
Article 144 mandates executive and judicial authorities to assist in enforcing Supreme Court mandates.
It ensures the execution and compliance of Supreme Court judgments across the nation.

Key Concept

Constitutional Provisions governing the Jurisdiction, Precedential Authority, and Plenary Powers of the Supreme Court of India
Question 252Question →

Consider the following statements regarding the statutory framework and operational procedure of the National Green Tribunal (NGT) in India:

1. It is a statutory body established under the National Green Tribunal Act, 2010, for the effective disposal of cases relating to environmental protection.
2. The Tribunal is strictly bound by the procedure laid down under the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, rather than principles of natural justice.
3. The Chairperson of the Tribunal is appointed by the Central Government in consultation with the Chief Justice of India.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: 1 and 3 only

Answer

1 and 3 only
Statements 1 and 3 are correct. The National Green Tribunal is a specialized statutory body established under the NGT Act, 2010. Its Chairperson is appointed by the Central Government in consultation with the Chief Justice of India. Statement 2 is incorrect because Section 19 of the NGT Act explicitly provides that the Tribunal is not bound by the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, but is guided by principles of natural justice.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Evaluate statement 1 regarding the statutory origin of the NGT.
Statement 1 is correct.
The National Green Tribunal was created as a statutory body pursuant to the enactment of the National Green Tribunal Act, 2010.
2
Evaluate statement 2 regarding procedural rules governing NGT hearings.
Statement 2 is incorrect.
As per Section 19(1) of the NGT Act, 2010, the Tribunal is not bound by the procedure laid down by the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, but is guided by principles of natural justice.
3
Evaluate statement 3 regarding the appointment mechanism of the NGT Chairperson.
Statement 3 is correct.
Under Section 6 of the NGT Act, 2010, the Chairperson of the NGT is appointed by the Central Government in consultation with the Chief Justice of India.

Key Concept

National Green Tribunal (NGT) statutory mandate, procedural rules, and appointment mechanism
Estimated Time:1m 0s
Question 253Question →

With reference to the Council of Ministers in the Union Executive of India, which of the following statements accurately specifies the constitutional limitation on the maximum size of the Union Council of Ministers?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: The total number of ministers, including the Prime Minister, shall not exceed 15 percent of the total number of members of the House of the People (Lok Sabha), as mandated by the 91st Constitutional Amendment Act, 2003.

Answer

The total number of ministers, including the Prime Minister, in the Union Council of Ministers shall not exceed 15 percent of the total number of members of the Lok Sabha, introduced by the 91st Constitutional Amendment Act, 2003.
The provision capping the size of the Union Council of Ministers was added to Article 75 by the 91st Constitutional Amendment Act, 2003. It stipulates that the total number of ministers, including the Prime Minister, cannot exceed 15% of the total strength of the Lok Sabha.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the relevant Article and Amendment regarding the size limit of the Council of Ministers.
Article 75 of the Constitution was amended by adding clause (1A) through the 91st Constitutional Amendment Act, 2003.
This amendment was enacted to curb oversized cabinets and excessive government expenditure.
2
Examine the specific numerical limit and denominator specified in Article 75(1A).
The clause sets a ceiling of 15% of the total membership of the House of the People (Lok Sabha), explicitly stating that the Prime Minister is included within this count.
The limitation is anchored exclusively to the lower house (Lok Sabha) to which the Council of Ministers is collectively responsible.

Key Concept

Size limitation of the Union Council of Ministers under Article 75(1A) via the 91st Constitutional Amendment Act, 2003
Estimated Time:1m 0s
Question 254Question →

With reference to the statutory framework governing the Central Information Commission (CIC) under the Right to Information Act, 2005, consider the following statements:

1. The Chief Information Commissioner and Information Commissioners are appointed by the President of India on the recommendation of a statutory selection committee.
2. The selection committee includes the Prime Minister as Chairperson, the Leader of Opposition in the Lok Sabha, and a Union Cabinet Minister nominated by the Prime Minister.
3. The Chief Justice of India or a Supreme Court Judge nominated by the Chief Justice is a mandatory member of this selection committee.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: 1 and 2 only

Answer

Statements 1 and 2 are correct. Statement 3 is incorrect because the Chief Justice of India is not a member of the Selection Committee for the Central Information Commission.
The choice stating '1 and 2 only' is correct. Under Section 12(3) of the Right to Information Act, 2005, the Chief Information Commissioner and Information Commissioners are appointed by the President of India upon the recommendation of a three-member committee consisting of the Prime Minister (Chairperson), the Leader of Opposition in the Lok Sabha, and a Union Cabinet Minister nominated by the Prime Minister. The Chief Justice of India is not a member of this selection panel.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze Statement 1 regarding appointing authority
Under Section 12(3) of the Right to Information Act, 2005, the Chief Information Commissioner and Information Commissioners are appointed by the President of India on the recommendation of a designated committee. Statement 1 is correct.
Identify statutory appointment authority provisions.
2
Analyze Statement 2 regarding Selection Committee composition
Section 12(3) explicitly mandates a three-member committee: (i) Prime Minister (Chairperson), (ii) Leader of Opposition in the Lok Sabha, and (iii) A Union Cabinet Minister nominated by the Prime Minister. Statement 2 is correct.
Verify exact members prescribed by the RTI Act.
3
Analyze Statement 3 regarding judicial representation
Unlike the Selection Committees for NHRC or Lokpal, the Chief Justice of India (or a nominee) is NOT part of the Selection Committee for the Central Information Commission. Statement 3 is incorrect.
Differentiate CIC appointment committee rules from NHRC/Lokpal judicial inclusion requirements.

Key Concept

Selection Committee Composition for Central Information Commission under RTI Act, 2005
Question 255Question →

Consider the following statements regarding the Adjournment Motion in the Indian Parliament:
1. It requires the support of at least 50 members to be admitted in the Lok Sabha.
2. It can be introduced in either House of Parliament.
3. The discussion on an adjournment motion must last for not less than two hours and thirty minutes.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: 1 and 3 only

Answer

Statements 1 and 3 are correct, while Statement 2 is incorrect.
The option stating '1 and 3 only' is correct. An adjournment motion is an extraordinary device introduced in the Lok Sabha to draw the attention of the House to a definite matter of urgent public importance. It requires the support of 50 members to be admitted. Furthermore, because it interrupts the regular business of the House, the debate on this motion must run for a minimum duration of two hours and thirty minutes. It cannot be introduced in the Rajya Sabha because it carries an element of censure.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze Statement 1 regarding admission threshold for Adjournment Motion.
Statement 1 is correct. Under Rule 56 of Lok Sabha Rules, an adjournment motion requires the support of at least 50 members to be admitted.
This requirement ensures that parliamentary business is interrupted only for matters supported by a significant number of members.
2
Analyze Statement 2 regarding applicability across Houses of Parliament.
Statement 2 is incorrect. An adjournment motion involves an element of censure against the Council of Ministers, making it exclusively available in the Lok Sabha.
Rajya Sabha is not allowed to use this device as the Council of Ministers is collectively responsible only to the Lok Sabha.
3
Analyze Statement 3 regarding the duration of discussion.
Statement 3 is correct. The debate on an adjournment motion must last for not less than 2 hours and 30 minutes.
This minimum duration guarantees adequate deliberation on an urgent matter of public importance.

Key Concept

Adjournment Motion and procedural rules of Union Legislature
Estimated Time:1m 30s
Question 256Question →

Arrange the following procedural stages involved in the passage of an Ordinary Bill through a House of the Indian Parliament in their correct chronological order from first to last:

Drag items to arrange them in the correct order

Show answer & explanation

Answer

The correct chronological sequence of stages for passing an Ordinary Bill in a House of Parliament is: (1) Introduction and publication in the Gazette (First Reading), (2) General discussion on the Bill, (3) Reference to and examination by a Select Committee, (4) Clause-by-clause consideration and voting on amendments in the House, and (5) Final voting on the Bill as a whole (Third Reading).
The passage of an Ordinary Bill in either House of the Indian Parliament follows five distinct sequential stages across three readings: First Reading (Introduction and publication in the Gazette), Second Reading - Stage of General Discussion, Second Reading - Committee Stage (detailed scrutiny by a Select Committee), Second Reading - Consideration Stage (clause-by-clause debate and voting on amendments), and Third Reading (final voting on passing the Bill as a whole).

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the First Reading stage of an Ordinary Bill
The legislative process begins with asking for leave to introduce the Bill, followed by its publication in the Gazette of India.
This formal introduction stage is known as the First Reading.
2
Identify the initial phase of the Second Reading
Following introduction, the Bill enters the Second Reading, starting with a general discussion on its broad principles.
The House debates the general scope of the Bill before getting into detailed scrutiny or referring it to a committee.
3
Determine the committee scrutiny phase
After general discussion, the Bill is sent to a Select Committee of the House for thorough clause-by-clause examination.
Committees examine the Bill in detail and prepare a report with suggested amendments.
4
Determine the consideration stage in the House
Upon receiving the committee report, the House considers each clause individually and votes on proposed amendments.
Every clause and amendment must be separately considered and voted upon by the House.
5
Identify the Third Reading stage
The final stage is the Third Reading, where the House votes on whether the Bill as a whole should be passed.
No substantive amendments are allowed at this stage; debate is limited to accepting or rejecting the Bill in its entirety.

Key Concept

Legislative Procedure for Ordinary Bills in Indian Parliament
Estimated Time:1m 30s
Question 257Question →

Match List-I (Articles of the Constitution of India) with List-II (Provisions on Centre-State Relations and Emergency) and select the correct matching combination.

Click a left item, then click its matching right item

Items

Article 248
Article 252
Article 263
Article 360

Matches

Show answer & explanation

Answer

Article 248 matches with Residuary powers of legislation vested exclusively in Parliament; Article 252 matches with Power of Parliament to legislate for two or more States by consent; Article 263 matches with Establishment of an Inter-State Council; Article 360 matches with Provisions regarding Financial Emergency.
Article 248 deals with residuary legislative powers of Parliament, Article 252 outlines parliamentary legislation by consent of states, Article 263 deals with the Inter-State Council, and Article 360 deals with Financial Emergency provisions.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze Legislative Relations under Article 248
Article 248 vests residuary legislative powers (matters not mentioned in List II or List III) solely in the Union Parliament.
This is a key federal feature demonstrating a centralizing tendency in legislative power allocation.
2
Analyze Legislative Relations under Article 252
Article 252 enables Parliament to enact laws on a State List topic if two or more State Legislatures pass resolutions requesting such legislation.
This provision facilitates cooperative legislative action among states through parliamentary enactment.
3
Analyze Administrative and Inter-State Relations under Article 263
Article 263 provides for setting up an Inter-State Council by Presidential order to enhance coordination between the Union and States.
The Sarkaria Commission strongly recommended activating this constitutional provision for institutional consultation.
4
Analyze Emergency Provisions under Article 360
Article 360 authorizes the President to proclaim Financial Emergency when the financial stability or credit of India or any part thereof is threatened.
During a Financial Emergency, the Union executive can direct states to observe specified canons of financial propriety.

Key Concept

Constitutional Framework of Centre-State Relations and Emergency Provisions
Question 258Question →

Match the historic constitutional acts under British rule in List-I with their corresponding statutory provisions in List-II.

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Items

Indian Councils Act, 1892
Indian Councils Act, 1909
Government of India Act, 1919
Indian Independence Act, 1947

Matches

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Answer

The Indian Councils Act of 1892 matches with the authorization of non-official members to discuss the budget; the Indian Councils Act of 1909 matches with separate communal electorates for Muslims; the Government of India Act of 1919 matches with the introduction of dyarchy in provinces; and the Indian Independence Act of 1947 matches with conferring full sovereign status on the Constituent Assembly.
Each historical act corresponds directly to its landmark statutory provision: the 1892 Act allowed budget discussion, the 1909 Act introduced separate electorates, the 1919 Act established provincial dyarchy, and the 1947 Act conferred sovereignty upon the Constituent Assembly.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Examine 19th-century colonial legislative council expansions.
The Indian Councils Act, 1892 granted members the right to discuss the budget and address questions, expanding legislative functions beyond pure lawmaking.
To identify the reform that first permitted limited financial discussion in councils.
2
Analyze early 20th-century electoral structures.
The Indian Councils Act, 1909 formally legalised communal representation by creating separate electorates for Muslim voters.
To associate the Morley-Minto reforms with separate electorates.
3
Evaluate post-WWI administrative decentralization models.
The Government of India Act, 1919 instituted provincial dyarchy, segregating subjects into reserved and transferred portfolios.
To match the Montagu-Chelmsford reforms with dual executive governance.
4
Determine the constitutional impact of the transfer of power.
The Indian Independence Act, 1947 transformed the Constituent Assembly into a sovereign legislature capable of enacting laws and repealing imperial statutes.
To pair the independence statute with assembly sovereignty.

Key Concept

Key legislative features and institutional provisions of British-era constitutional acts leading to independence.
Question 259Question →

Which of the following statements correctly distinguishes between a Censure Motion and a No-Confidence Motion in the Lok Sabha?

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Answer: A Censure Motion must state the specific reasons or grounds on which it is based, whereas a No-Confidence Motion does not require stating any specific grounds.

Answer

A Censure Motion must state the specific reasons or grounds on which it is based, whereas a No-Confidence Motion does not require stating any specific grounds.
The correct statement highlights that a Censure Motion must state the specific reason or policy failure for which it is moved, whereas a No-Confidence Motion requires no specific grounds to be listed when sought for leave in the Lok Sabha.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the constitutional and procedural origin of executive responsibility in the Union Legislature.
Under Article 75(3) of the Constitution of India, the Council of Ministers is collectively responsible to the Lok Sabha.
This responsibility is enforced through parliamentary motions exclusively in the Lok Sabha.
2
Compare the procedural requirements for introducing a Censure Motion versus a No-Confidence Motion.
Rule 198 of the Lok Sabha Rules governs the No-Confidence Motion, which does not require stating any specific reasons. Conversely, a Censure Motion must explicitly state the grounds, specific policies, or actions being censured.
Censure focuses on specific errors of commission/omission, whereas No-Confidence assesses the government's general right to stay in office.
3
Evaluate the consequences of passing each motion.
If a Censure Motion passes, the Council of Ministers is expected to seek a vote of confidence, but resignation is not mandatory. If a No-Confidence Motion passes, the ministry must immediately resign.
A No-Confidence Motion directly tests the majority support required to maintain office.

Key Concept

Procedural distinctions between Censure Motion and No-Confidence Motion in the Lok Sabha
Estimated Time:1m 15s
Question 260Question →

Match the Standing Parliamentary Committees listed under Column I with their corresponding structural compositions or primary legislative functions listed under Column II:

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Items

Public Accounts Committee
Estimates Committee
Committee on Public Undertakings
Committee on Subordinate Legislation

Matches

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Answer

Public Accounts Committee matches with examining CAG audit reports; Estimates Committee matches with consisting exclusively of 30 Lok Sabha members; Committee on Public Undertakings matches with examining reports and accounts of public sector enterprises; Committee on Subordinate Legislation matches with scrutinizing executive delegated legislation.
The Public Accounts Committee directly examines the audit reports of the CAG. The Estimates Committee is unique in having 30 members drawn exclusively from the Lok Sabha. The Committee on Public Undertakings evaluates the accounts and reports of PSUs. The Committee on Subordinate Legislation monitors executive rulemaking under statutory delegation.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the mandate of the Public Accounts Committee (PAC).
PAC is responsible for examining the audit reports of the Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) of India.
It acts as a parliamentary watchdog over government spending.
2
Identify the composition of the Estimates Committee.
The Estimates Committee has 30 members, all of whom are elected solely from the Lok Sabha.
Rajya Sabha has no representation on the Estimates Committee.
3
Identify the role of the Committee on Public Undertakings (COPU).
COPU examines reports, accounts, and autonomy of specified public sector undertakings (PSUs).
It handles financial and administrative oversight specifically for state enterprises.
4
Identify the function of the Committee on Subordinate Legislation.
This committee scrutinizes rules, regulations, and statutory instruments framed by the executive under delegated powers.
It ensures that the executive does not exceed the legislative mandate conferred by parent Acts of Parliament.

Key Concept

Structure, Composition, and Functions of Parliamentary Financial and Standing Committees
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