Psychiatry

814 questions

Question 181Question →

A 34-year-old woman with a history of severe opioid use disorder has been receiving methadone maintenance therapy at a specialized clinic for the past two years. Her current daily dose is 80 mg, and she has maintained abstinence from illicit opioids. Due to a recent job offer in a rural area without access to a methadone clinic, she requests to transition to office-based buprenorphine/naloxone therapy. Arrange the following steps in the most appropriate chronological sequence for safely transitioning this patient from methadone to buprenorphine therapy.

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Answer

The correct sequence is to first taper the methadone dose, then discontinue it for 36-72 hours, assess for objective signs of moderate-to-severe withdrawal, administer the initial buprenorphine test-dose, and finally up-titrate to a maintenance dose.
Transitioning a patient from methadone (a long-acting full mu-opioid agonist) to buprenorphine (a high-affinity partial agonist) carries a significant risk of precipitated withdrawal. The standard induction protocol involves first tapering the methadone to a lower dose (typically 30-40 mg daily) to decrease tissue stores. Next, methadone must be stopped completely for 36 to 72 hours due to its long half-life. Before administering buprenorphine, the clinician must confirm that the patient is in moderate-to-severe withdrawal (e.g., Clinical Opiate Withdrawal Scale [COWS] score > 12), indicating that sufficient mu-receptors are vacant. Only then can the initial test-dose of buprenorphine be given, followed by daily up-titration to a maintenance dose that suppresses cravings.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Recall the pharmacological differences between methadone and buprenorphine.
Methadone is a long-acting full mu-opioid agonist, while buprenorphine is a partial agonist with very high receptor affinity.
Administering buprenorphine while methadone is still bound to receptors will displace the methadone and precipitate severe withdrawal.
2
Determine the first clinical step to safely clear methadone from the patient's system.
The baseline methadone dose must first be tapered to 30-40 mg/day.
Tapering reduces the total body store of this highly lipophilic drug, making the subsequent transition safer and more tolerable.
3
Determine the required washout period.
Methadone must be discontinued completely for 36-72 hours.
Methadone's long half-life necessitates a longer washout period compared to short-acting opioids like heroin (which only require 12-24 hours).
4
Identify the clinical threshold required prior to buprenorphine induction.
Objective signs of moderate-to-severe withdrawal (e.g., COWS > 12) must be present.
Confirming significant withdrawal ensures that the mu-opioid receptors are sufficiently vacant to accept a partial agonist.
5
Sequence the final pharmacological induction steps.
Administer the initial test-dose of buprenorphine, followed by daily titration.
A low initial test-dose assesses patient tolerance without precipitating massive withdrawal, and subsequent titration achieves the required therapeutic maintenance level.

Key Concept

Buprenorphine is a high-affinity partial mu-opioid agonist that can precipitate severe withdrawal if administered before a full agonist has sufficiently cleared from the receptors. Transitioning from methadone requires tapering the dose, a 36-72 hour washout period, confirmation of moderate-to-severe withdrawal, and careful induction.
Question 182Question →

A 72-year-old woman is brought to the outpatient geriatric psychiatry clinic by her son due to a 6-month history of significant cognitive decline. He reports that she has become increasingly withdrawn, spends most of the day in bed, and has stopped managing her household finances. During the interview, she makes poor eye contact, exhibits psychomotor retardation, and frequently answers "I don't know" rather than attempting to answer orientation or memory questions. Her Montreal Cognitive Assessment (MoCA) score is 19/30. Medical history is significant for bipolar I disorder that was well-controlled on lithium for two decades; however, she discontinued all medications 14 months ago following the death of her husband. Her son notes she has not had any periods of elevated mood, decreased need for sleep, or rapid speech since stopping her medication. Vital signs and physical examination are normal. Laboratory studies, including complete blood count, comprehensive metabolic panel, thyroid-stimulating hormone, and vitamin B12 levels, are within normal limits. The physician determines that her cognitive deficits are secondary to a severe mood episode rather than a primary neurodegenerative process. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial pharmacological intervention for this patient?

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Answer: Lurasidone

Answer

Lurasidone
The patient's presentation of cognitive decline, psychomotor retardation, apathy, and prominent "I don't know" answers in the setting of a recent stressor is classic for pseudodementia (cognitive impairment secondary to major depression). Because she has a history of bipolar I disorder, her current state is an acute episode of bipolar depression. Lurasidone is a second-generation (atypical) antipsychotic that is FDA-approved for the treatment of bipolar depression. It effectively targets both the mood and secondary cognitive symptoms without the high risk of inducing a manic switch.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the patient's cognitive presentation.
The patient demonstrates psychomotor retardation and gives "I don't know" responses, which are classic signs of cognitive impairment secondary to depression (pseudodementia) rather than true dementia.
Differentiating pseudodementia from major neurocognitive disorder is the critical first step before initiating treatment.
2
Determine the specific type of affective episode.
The patient has a known history of bipolar I disorder and discontinued her mood stabilizer 14 months ago. Her current symptoms represent a bipolar depressive episode.
Major depressive episodes in bipolar disorder must be treated differently than unipolar major depressive disorder.
3
Select the appropriate pharmacotherapy.
Lurasidone is chosen as the initial intervention.
Lurasidone is an atypical antipsychotic approved for bipolar depression and does not carry the risk of precipitating mania, unlike SSRI monotherapy.

Key Concept

Patients with a history of bipolar I disorder who present with severe depression and secondary cognitive impairment (pseudodementia) should be treated with mood stabilizers or atypical antipsychotics approved for bipolar depression (e.g., lurasidone, cariprazine) to avoid SSRI-induced manic switching.
Estimated Time:1m 30s
Question 183Question →

A 35-year-old man is diagnosed with major depressive disorder in the outpatient clinic. Over the next year, he experiences persistent symptoms despite good medication adherence, requiring a progressive escalation of his treatment plan. Arrange the following management steps in the standard chronological order for escalating treatment of major depressive disorder, proceeding from initial pharmacological therapy to the management of highly refractory disease.

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Answer

The correct sequence of treatment escalation is: 1) Initiate SSRI monotherapy, 2) Optimize the SSRI dosage, 3) Augment with a different medication class, 4) Initiate electroconvulsive therapy.
The standard pharmacological management of major depressive disorder follows a stepped-care approach to balance efficacy with side effects. Treatment begins with first-line monotherapy, usually an SSRI. If the initial response is inadequate after an appropriate duration (typically 4 to 6 weeks), the dose is optimized to the maximum tolerated amount. If the patient remains non-responsive, the next step involves switching to another agent or augmenting with a different class of medication (such as bupropion or an atypical antipsychotic) to target multiple neurotransmitter pathways. Finally, for patients who prove to be highly treatment-resistant after multiple adequate pharmacological trials, neuromodulation therapies like electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) are indicated.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the first-line treatment for major depressive disorder.
Initiate monotherapy with an SSRI.
SSRIs have a favorable side effect profile and are the standard initial pharmacological choice for MDD.
2
Determine the next step for a patient with inadequate response to the initial SSRI dose.
Optimize the dosage of the initial SSRI.
Before abandoning a medication trial, the dose should be maximized to ensure the lack of response is not simply due to under-dosing.
3
Determine the step for a patient who fails an optimized dose of monotherapy.
Augment with a medication from a different class.
Augmentation (e.g., with bupropion, mirtazapine, or second-generation antipsychotics) leverages different neurotransmitter systems to achieve a therapeutic response.
4
Identify the treatment of choice for severe, refractory depression.
Initiate electroconvulsive therapy (ECT).
ECT is typically positioned at the end of the treatment algorithm for outpatients who have exhausted multiple medication trials without success.

Key Concept

Stepped-care treatment algorithm for major depressive disorder
Question 184Question →

A 32-year-old woman is evaluated in the psychiatric clinic for severe, persistent anxiety and intrusive thoughts. Over the past 6 months, she has been consumed by an overwhelming fear that her hands are contaminated with deadly environmental bacteria. This has led her to wash her hands up to 50 times a day, with her daily washing routines occupying nearly 4 hours. She has a past psychiatric history of bipolar I disorder, which has been stable on valproate for the last 3 years. Recently, she was diagnosed with a complex skin and soft tissue infection and was started on a 14-day course of oral linezolid 3 days ago. She is deeply distressed by her psychiatric symptoms and is requesting immediate treatment. Vital signs are within normal limits, and physical examination is unremarkable except for dry, cracked skin on her hands. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient's psychiatric symptoms?

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Answer: Initiate exposure and response prevention therapy

Answer

Initiate exposure and response prevention therapy
The correct approach is to initiate exposure and response prevention (ERP) therapy. The patient's clinical presentation of intrusive thoughts and time-consuming, repetitive behaviors confirms the diagnosis of Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder (OCD). First-line treatments for OCD include serotonergic medications (such as SSRIs or clomipramine) and ERP, a specialized form of cognitive-behavioral therapy. However, this patient is currently taking linezolid for a skin infection. Linezolid possesses reversible monoamine oxidase inhibitor (MAOI) activity. Co-administering an MAOI with an SSRI or a serotonergic TCA risks precipitating life-threatening serotonin syndrome. Furthermore, the patient has a history of Bipolar I Disorder; utilizing antidepressant monotherapy risks inducing a manic episode. ERP is a highly efficacious, non-pharmacological first-line treatment that safely avoids both medication interactions and mood destabilization.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the primary psychiatric diagnosis based on the clinical presentation.
The patient has ego-dystonic obsessions (fear of contamination) and compulsions (excessive hand washing) lasting >1 hour/day, confirming Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder (OCD).
Accurate diagnosis is required to select evidence-based treatment pathways.
2
Evaluate for pharmacological contraindications based on current medications.
The patient is taking linezolid, which is a reversible, non-selective MAOI. This strictly contraindicates the use of serotonergic drugs (SSRIs, SNRIs, TCAs) due to the risk of serotonin syndrome.
First-line pharmacotherapy for OCD typically involves SSRIs, which must be ruled out in this scenario.
3
Evaluate the patient's psychiatric history for treatment limitations.
The patient has Bipolar I Disorder. Antidepressant monotherapy carries a high risk of inducing a manic switch.
Treatment must not destabilize her underlying, well-controlled bipolar disorder.
4
Select the safest and most effective first-line intervention.
Exposure and response prevention (ERP) therapy is selected.
ERP is a highly effective, first-line treatment for OCD that avoids both the risk of serotonin syndrome and manic switch.

Key Concept

Management of Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder in the setting of complex pharmacological and psychiatric comorbidities.
Question 185Question →

A 26-year-old man is brought to the outpatient psychiatric clinic by his sister due to severe depressive symptoms for the past 3 weeks. He reports sleeping 14 hours a day, profound fatigue, and an inability to experience pleasure. Two years ago, he had a distinct episode of severe grandiosity, racing thoughts, decreased need for sleep, and auditory hallucinations commanding him to "lead the world." This prior episode lasted for exactly 3 weeks before remitting completely. He was recently prescribed selegiline for his low mood by a different provider, but he stopped taking it 2 days ago because he felt it was not working. His vital signs are within normal limits. Mental status examination reveals psychomotor retardation and a blunted affect, but no current psychosis. Laboratory studies show a TSH of 2.8 µU/mL (normal: 0.4-4.0 µU/mL) and a normal free T4. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the pharmacologic management of this patient?

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Answer: Initiate quetiapine therapy

Answer

The most appropriate next step is to initiate quetiapine therapy.
The correct answer identifies that the patient is experiencing an acute depressive episode in the context of Bipolar I disorder (diagnosed by his past 3-week episode of mania with psychotic features). Quetiapine is a first-line, FDA-approved treatment for acute bipolar depression. It safely targets depressive symptoms without the high risk of precipitating a manic switch associated with traditional antidepressants.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Diagnose the patient's underlying psychiatric condition based on his history.
The patient has Bipolar I disorder.
The patient presents with a major depressive episode but has a history of a distinct 3-week episode of grandiosity, decreased need for sleep, and psychosis, which meets the criteria for a manic episode.
2
Determine the appropriate treatment for an acute depressive episode in Bipolar I disorder.
Select a medication approved for bipolar depression, such as quetiapine, lurasidone, or olanzapine-fluoxetine combination.
Standard antidepressants (like SSRIs) as monotherapy are contraindicated due to the risk of precipitating mania.
3
Evaluate the patient's recent medication history to avoid drug interactions.
The patient discontinued selegiline (an MAOI) only 2 days ago.
A minimum 14-day washout period is required before starting any serotonergic agents to prevent serotonin syndrome, ruling out immediate SSRI use even as an adjunct.

Key Concept

Management of acute bipolar depression
Estimated Time:1m 0s
Question 186Question →

A 70-year-old man is brought to the clinic by his son due to memory issues that began 2 months ago, shortly after the sudden death of his wife. The patient frequently complains about his memory, stating, "My brain is just broken; I can't remember anything." During cognitive testing, he puts forth poor effort and frequently answers "I don't know" to questions, though he can often provide the correct answers when gently prompted. He also reports early morning awakenings, decreased appetite, and a 4-kg (8.8-lb) weight loss over this period. His physical and neurological examinations are unremarkable. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

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Answer: Major depressive disorder

Answer

Major depressive disorder
The correct answer is major depressive disorder. In elderly patients, severe depression can present with significant cognitive impairment, a condition historically termed 'pseudodementia'. Key distinguishing features from true neurocognitive disorders (like Alzheimer disease) include a rapid onset (often following a stressor), prominent complaints about memory loss (insight is intact), poor effort on testing (giving 'I don't know' answers rather than confabulating), and the presence of vegetative depressive symptoms like insomnia and weight loss.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the time course of the cognitive symptoms.
The symptoms began acutely 2 months ago after a major life stressor (death of his wife).
Dementia typically has an insidious, chronic onset, whereas depression-related cognitive impairment (pseudodementia) often has a rapid onset linked to a stressor.
2
Evaluate the patient's attitude toward his cognitive deficits and his performance on cognitive testing.
He complains about his memory loss and frequently answers 'I don't know', but answers correctly when prompted.
Patients with genuine dementia typically lack insight, try to cover up their deficits, and guess or confabulate answers. Patients with depression highlight their deficits and put forth poor effort ('I don't know').
3
Identify any associated systemic or mood symptoms.
He has early morning awakenings, decreased appetite, and significant weight loss.
These are classic vegetative symptoms of major depressive disorder (SIGECAPS).

Key Concept

Major depressive disorder in the elderly can present with prominent cognitive deficits (pseudodementia), distinguished from true dementia by acute onset, prominent complaints of memory loss, 'I don't know' answers, and associated vegetative symptoms.
Question 187Question →

A 24-year-old woman is brought to the clinic by her husband due to severe sadness and social withdrawal for the past 6 weeks. She has been sleeping 12 to 14 hours a day, has poor appetite, and struggles to concentrate on daily tasks. She frequently complains of feeling cold. Laboratory studies show a thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) level of 1.5 µU/mL and a normal free T4 level. Her husband notes that two years ago, she had a 3-week period where she barely slept, spoke so rapidly it was hard to interrupt her, and recklessly spent thousands of dollars on unneeded home renovations. The patient is currently not taking any medications. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?

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Answer: Initiate quetiapine

Answer

Initiate quetiapine
The patient is currently experiencing a major depressive episode. However, her history of a 3-week period characterized by decreased need for sleep, rapid speech, and impulsive spending meets the criteria for a manic episode. This confirms a diagnosis of bipolar I disorder, currently in a depressed phase. The most appropriate treatment for bipolar depression includes atypical antipsychotics such as quetiapine or lurasidone, or mood stabilizers such as lithium. Quetiapine is a first-line agent for this presentation.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the patient's current symptoms.
The patient has severe sadness, hypersomnia, poor appetite, and poor concentration lasting 6 weeks.
To establish the presence of a major depressive episode.
2
Identify key historical information.
The patient had a distinct 3-week episode of decreased need for sleep, rapid speech, and impulsive spending two years ago.
To differentiate between unipolar major depressive disorder and bipolar disorder.
3
Formulate a diagnosis.
The combination of a current major depressive episode and a past manic episode indicates a diagnosis of bipolar I disorder, currently in a depressed phase.
To guide appropriate pharmacotherapy selection.
4
Select the appropriate treatment.
Quetiapine is selected as it is an FDA-approved first-line treatment for bipolar depression.
Antidepressant monotherapy (like SSRIs or SNRIs) must be avoided to prevent a manic switch.

Key Concept

Bipolar I Disorder, Depressed Phase
Estimated Time:1m 0s
Question 188Question →

A 22-year-old man presents to the psychiatry clinic complaining of profound fatigue, poor concentration, and severe sleep disturbances. Five weeks ago, he was held at gunpoint during a convenience store robbery. Since the incident, he has experienced recurrent nightmares about the event, actively avoids the neighborhood where the store is located, and feels constantly "on edge." He also describes distressing periods where he feels as though he is floating outside of his own body. His past medical history is significant for a major depressive episode at age 19. At that time, he was prescribed fluoxetine; however, within two weeks of starting the medication, he developed a severe episode of elated mood, pressured speech, and a decreased need for sleep that lasted for eight days. The fluoxetine was discontinued, and he subsequently stabilized. He also reports a separate episode two years ago during which he heard voices telling him he was special; this lasted for three weeks and resolved entirely without treatment. The patient admits that due to his recent severe distress, he restarted taking leftover fluoxetine from his old prescription three days ago. He is requesting additional medication to help him cope. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient's current condition?

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Answer: Discontinue fluoxetine and initiate trauma-focused cognitive behavioral therapy

Answer

The most appropriate next step is to discontinue the fluoxetine and initiate trauma-focused cognitive behavioral therapy.
The correct answer involves stopping the offending medication and utilizing a safe, non-pharmacologic first-line treatment. This patient meets the diagnostic criteria for Post-Traumatic Stress Disorder (PTSD) with dissociative features, given his exposure to a life-threatening event, intrusive nightmares, avoidance behaviors, hyperarousal, and depersonalization lasting for more than one month (5 weeks). While selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) like fluoxetine are typically first-line pharmacotherapy for PTSD, this patient has a history of an SSRI-induced manic episode lasting 8 days, which suggests an underlying Bipolar I Disorder diathesis. In patients with bipolar disorder, SSRI monotherapy is contraindicated due to the high risk of precipitating acute mania. Therefore, the recently restarted fluoxetine must be discontinued. Trauma-focused cognitive behavioral therapy (TF-CBT) is an equally effective, first-line non-pharmacologic treatment for PTSD that carries no risk of mood destabilization, making it the most appropriate next step.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Diagnose the current acute presentation based on symptom duration and characteristics.
The patient has Post-Traumatic Stress Disorder (PTSD) with dissociative features, as his intrusion, avoidance, hyperarousal, and depersonalization symptoms have lasted for greater than 1 month (5 weeks) following a life-threatening trauma.
Accurate diagnosis of the trauma-related disorder is required to establish the baseline indication for treatment.
2
Analyze the patient's past psychiatric history for treatment contraindications.
The patient developed an 8-day manic episode directly following fluoxetine initiation at age 19. This establishes an underlying Bipolar I diathesis.
A history of antidepressant-induced mania fundamentally alters the algorithm for pharmacological management of depression or anxiety disorders.
3
Evaluate the safety of the patient's current self-medication.
The patient recently restarted fluoxetine, which places him at imminent risk of a recurrent manic episode.
SSRI monotherapy is contraindicated in patients with bipolar disorder.
4
Select the safest, evidence-based first-line treatment for the current diagnosis.
Discontinue the contraindicated fluoxetine. Initiate trauma-focused cognitive behavioral therapy (TF-CBT), which is a first-line treatment for PTSD that carries no risk of mood destabilization.
First-line treatments for PTSD include SSRIs/SNRIs or TF-CBT; given the pharmacological contraindication, psychotherapy is the definitive choice.

Key Concept

Management of Post-Traumatic Stress Disorder in patients with comorbid bipolar disorder requires avoiding SSRI monotherapy and prioritizing non-pharmacologic first-line therapies like trauma-focused CBT.

Alternative Method

If pharmacotherapy is absolutely necessary and non-pharmacologic therapies fail, treating this patient would first require establishing a mood-stabilizing foundation (e.g., a second-generation antipsychotic like quetiapine, or valproate/lithium) before considering cautious reintroduction of trauma-targeted agents, though evidence for specific PTSD pharmacotherapy in bipolar patients remains complex.
Estimated Time:1m 30s
Question 189Question →

A 28-year-old woman presents to the emergency department reporting a sudden onset of intense chest pain, palpitations, shortness of breath, and a feeling of impending doom that began 20 minutes ago while she was resting at home. She states, "I thought I was having a heart attack and going to die." This is her fourth similar episode this month. She is now terrified of having another attack and has stopped driving to work out of fear of losing control. Her medical history is notable for a severe depressive episode two years ago. At that time, she was started on citalopram, but within days she developed racing thoughts, a decreased need for sleep, and impulsive spending, which led to her hospitalization. She currently takes no medications. Her temperature is 37.0°C (98.6°F), blood pressure is 128/82 mm Hg, pulse is 110/min, and respirations are 22/min. Physical examination, ECG, and serial cardiac troponins are unremarkable. The patient's acute symptoms resolve completely after reassurance in the emergency department. Which of the following is the most appropriate long-term management strategy for this patient's current psychiatric condition?

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Answer: Cognitive-behavioral therapy

Answer

Cognitive-behavioral therapy
The patient's presentation of recurrent, unexpected panic attacks followed by persistent concern about future attacks and maladaptive avoidance behavior confirms a diagnosis of Panic Disorder. The first-line treatments for panic disorder are selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) and cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT). However, this patient's history of a manic episode immediately following citalopram administration indicates she has underlying Bipolar Disorder. In patients with a history of bipolar disorder, antidepressant monotherapy (such as an SSRI alone) is strongly contraindicated due to the high risk of precipitating a manic switch. Therefore, Cognitive-behavioral therapy is the safest and most appropriate initial long-term management strategy.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Evaluate the patient's acute physical presentation and diagnostic tests.
The acute onset of chest pain and sympathetic hyperactivity, resolving completely with normal cardiac enzymes and ECG, rules out acute coronary syndrome and points to a panic attack.
Medical emergencies must always be ruled out first before attributing cardiopulmonary symptoms to a psychiatric etiology.
2
Analyze the pattern of the psychiatric symptoms.
The patient has had four unexpected panic attacks in a month and exhibits maladaptive behavioral changes (avoiding driving) due to anticipatory anxiety, fulfilling the DSM-5 criteria for Panic Disorder.
Identifying the specific anxiety disorder is necessary to select the correct evidence-based treatment.
3
Review the patient's psychiatric history for crucial contraindications.
The patient experienced a classic manic episode (racing thoughts, decreased need for sleep, impulsivity) shortly after taking an SSRI (citalopram) in the past, establishing an underlying diagnosis of Bipolar I Disorder.
Psychiatric comorbidities profoundly influence psychopharmacological choices, particularly regarding antidepressant use.
4
Select the safest long-term management strategy.
Cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT) is chosen because it is highly effective for Panic Disorder and carries zero risk of precipitating mania, unlike typical first-line pharmacotherapy (SSRI monotherapy).
First-line treatments for panic disorder include CBT and SSRIs; however, SSRIs must be avoided as monotherapy in patients with bipolar disorder.

Key Concept

First-line management of panic disorder in patients with a history of bipolar disorder
Estimated Time:1m 30s
Question 190Question →

A 32-year-old architect is evaluated in the clinic for worsening sadness and inability to concentrate at work over the past month. He reports sleeping up to 14 hours a day and feeling completely drained of energy. He has a history of an emergency department visit 4 years ago when he was brought in by his family for not sleeping for 6 days, talking rapidly, and spending a large portion of his savings on impulsive online purchases while claiming he had a foolproof plan to become a billionaire. He was hospitalized and stabilized at that time but stopped all medications 2 years ago. His vital signs are within normal limits. Physical examination shows no focal neurologic deficits and normal thyroid gland palpation. Mental status examination reveals a man with slumped posture, psychomotor retardation, and a depressed, congruent affect. He denies active suicidal ideation or auditory hallucinations. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?

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Answer: Initiate quetiapine

Answer

Initiate quetiapine
The correct answer is to initiate quetiapine. This patient's current presentation of depressed mood, hypersomnia, anhedonia, and psychomotor retardation for one month easily meets the criteria for a major depressive episode. However, his past history of an elevated mood, decreased need for sleep, rapid speech, impulsive spending, and grandiose delusions lasting 6 days clearly meets the criteria for a manic episode. Therefore, his overarching diagnosis is bipolar I disorder, currently presenting in a depressive episode. First-line pharmacological treatment for acute bipolar depression includes certain second-generation antipsychotics (such as quetiapine or lurasidone) and mood stabilizers (such as lithium or lamotrigine). These agents effectively treat the depressive symptoms without carrying a significant risk of precipitating a manic switch.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the patient's current clinical state.
The patient presents with severe sadness, hypersomnia, and poor concentration lasting one month, indicating a major depressive episode.
Establishing the current mood state is the first step in psychiatric evaluation.
2
Evaluate the past psychiatric history for prior affective episodes.
The history of a 6-day episode of decreased need for sleep, rapid speech, grandiosity, and impulsive spending indicates a past manic episode, establishing the diagnosis of bipolar I disorder.
Differentiating major depressive disorder from bipolar disorder is critical to avoid incorrect pharmacological treatment.
3
Determine the appropriate pharmacotherapy for acute bipolar depression.
Monotherapy with specific second-generation antipsychotics (e.g., quetiapine, lurasidone) or mood stabilizers is the standard of care.
These agents effectively treat the depression without inducing a manic switch.

Key Concept

Patients with bipolar I disorder presenting with a major depressive episode should be treated with specific mood stabilizers or second-generation antipsychotics (e.g., quetiapine, lurasidone). Antidepressant monotherapy is strictly contraindicated due to the high risk of precipitating a manic switch.
Estimated Time:1m 0s
Question 191Question →

A 28-year-old woman is brought to the psychiatric outpatient clinic by her husband due to profound sadness, hypersomnia, and a 4.5-kg (10-lb) weight gain over the past 4 weeks. She reports feeling "slowed down" and states that she has begun hearing a voice repeatedly telling her she is worthless. Review of her medical history reveals that 2 years ago, she experienced a distinct 2-week period where she slept only 2 hours a night without feeling fatigued, spent their entire savings on luxury vehicles, and claimed she could communicate directly with angels; this episode required hospitalization. Her current medications include isocarboxazid, which was prescribed 2 weeks ago by a different physician for her depression. Vital signs are within normal limits. Physical examination shows a depressed affect and psychomotor retardation. Laboratory studies show a free thyroxine (T4) level of 0.5 ng/dL (normal: 0.9–1.7 ng/dL) and a thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) level of 1.5 µU/mL (normal: 0.5–5.0 µU/mL). Which of the following statements is most accurate regarding this patient's diagnosis and management?

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Answer: Her presentation is consistent with bipolar I disorder, currently in a depressed episode with psychotic features.

Answer

Her presentation is consistent with bipolar I disorder, currently in a depressed episode with psychotic features.
The correct answer accurately synthesizes the patient's longitudinal history. A single manic episode (characterized by elevated mood, grandiosity, decreased need for sleep, and functional impairment lasting at least 1 week) is sufficient to diagnose bipolar I disorder. Her current symptoms of anhedonia, hypersomnia, weight gain, and mood-congruent auditory hallucinations signify a major depressive episode with psychotic features.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the patient's prior psychiatric history.
The patient had a 2-week episode of grandiosity, decreased need for sleep, excessive spending, and hallucinations requiring hospitalization.
This establishes a history of a manic episode, which confirms a diagnosis of bipolar I disorder.
2
Assess the patient's current clinical presentation.
She presents with sadness, hypersomnia, weight gain, and auditory hallucinations for 4 weeks.
This meets the criteria for a major depressive episode with mood-congruent psychotic features.
3
Evaluate the laboratory findings.
Low free T4 (0.5 ng/dL) with a normal TSH (1.5 µU/mL).
This rules out primary hypothyroidism, which would present with an elevated TSH.
4
Evaluate the safety of pharmacologic interventions in the context of her current medications.
She is taking an MAOI (isocarboxazid). Adding an SSRI would cause serotonin syndrome. Furthermore, SSRI monotherapy is contraindicated in bipolar disorder.
This rules out options suggesting the use of fluoxetine or citalopram.

Key Concept

Diagnosis of bipolar I disorder requires at least one manic episode; SSRI monotherapy is contraindicated in bipolar depression due to the risk of a manic switch.
Question 192Question →

A 28-year-old woman is brought to the outpatient psychiatric clinic by her partner due to a one-month history of worsening depression. The patient reports profound sadness, anhedonia, extreme fatigue, and sleeping up to 14 hours a day. She has gained 4 kg (8.8 lb) over the past month. She mentions feeling completely worthless but denies any active suicidal plans. Two years ago, the patient was hospitalized for 3 weeks after an episode characterized by a decreased need for sleep, pressured speech, and grandiose delusions of being a divine messenger. She was treated with medication at that time but discontinued it a year ago because she felt her symptoms were cured. Vital signs are within normal limits. Mental status examination reveals a depressed mood, flat affect, and psychomotor retardation. Her laboratory results, including a comprehensive metabolic panel, thyroid-stimulating hormone, and complete blood count, are within normal limits. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Initiate quetiapine

Answer

Initiate quetiapine
The patient's history of a manic episode (decreased sleep, pressured speech, grandiosity) combined with a current major depressive episode establishes the diagnosis of bipolar I disorder, currently in a depressed phase. The treatment of choice for acute bipolar depression includes quetiapine, lurasidone, or lithium. Quetiapine is a second-generation antipsychotic that effectively treats bipolar depression without the risk of precipitating a manic switch, making it the most appropriate next step.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the patient's past psychiatric history.
The patient had a 3-week episode of decreased sleep, pressured speech, and grandiose delusions requiring hospitalization.
This establishes a history of at least one manic episode, fulfilling the diagnostic criteria for bipolar I disorder.
2
Evaluate the patient's current clinical presentation.
The patient exhibits profound sadness, hypersomnia, hyperphagia, and psychomotor retardation lasting for one month.
This presentation confirms an acute major depressive episode occurring in the context of bipolar I disorder (bipolar depression).
3
Determine the appropriate pharmacotherapy for acute bipolar depression.
Select a medication approved for bipolar depression that does not risk a manic switch, such as quetiapine.
Antidepressant monotherapy can precipitate mania in bipolar patients; therefore, specific second-generation antipsychotics or mood stabilizers are the preferred first-line treatments.

Key Concept

The first-line treatment for acute bipolar depression includes specific second-generation antipsychotics (e.g., quetiapine, lurasidone) or mood stabilizers (e.g., lithium), while strictly avoiding antidepressant monotherapy due to the risk of inducing a manic switch.
Estimated Time:1m 30s
Question 193Question →

A 24-year-old woman is brought to the emergency department by her husband due to worsening depressive symptoms over the past 3 weeks. She reports feeling profoundly sad, sleeping up to 14 hours a day, and experiencing significant psychomotor retardation. For the past 2 weeks, she has been hearing a persistent voice telling her that she is "worthless and should die," and she admits to having a specific plan to overdose on her medications. Her husband reports that 3 years ago, she had a distinct 1-week period where she barely slept, exhibited grandiose behavior, and engaged in impulsive spending that resulted in severe financial debt. Three days ago, her primary care provider diagnosed her with major depressive disorder and started her on fluoxetine. Laboratory studies reveal a thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) level of 0.2 mU/L0.2 \text{ mU/L} (normal: 0.5−5.0 mU/L0.5-5.0 \text{ mU/L}) and a free T4 of 0.6 ng/dL0.6 \text{ ng/dL} (normal: 0.9−1.7 ng/dL0.9-1.7 \text{ ng/dL}). Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Admit to the inpatient psychiatric unit and initiate quetiapine

Answer

The most appropriate next step is to admit the patient to the inpatient psychiatric unit and initiate quetiapine.
The correct answer addresses two critical factors: patient safety and appropriate psychopharmacology. The patient's active suicidal plan necessitates immediate inpatient psychiatric hospitalization. Diagnostically, her history of a 1-week manic episode establishes Bipolar I Disorder. Her current presentation is a severe bipolar depressive episode with psychotic features (auditory hallucinations). Quetiapine is a first-line treatment for bipolar depression and its antipsychotic properties will concurrently treat her hallucinations. The fluoxetine prescribed by her primary care provider is inappropriate monotherapy for bipolar disorder and should be discontinued.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the patient's psychiatric history to establish the primary diagnosis.
The history of a 1-week episode of decreased sleep, grandiosity, and impulsive spending confirms a past manic episode, establishing a diagnosis of Bipolar I Disorder.
A single manic episode is sufficient to diagnose Bipolar I Disorder, fundamentally altering the treatment algorithm for any subsequent depressive episodes.
2
Evaluate the current clinical presentation.
The patient has a 3-week history of severe depression with 2 weeks of mood-congruent auditory hallucinations and a specific suicidal plan.
This presentation indicates a current major depressive episode with psychotic features, which represents a psychiatric emergency.
3
Determine the appropriate setting for care.
Inpatient psychiatric admission is required.
The patient has active suicidal ideation with a specific plan and access to lethal means (medications), making outpatient management unsafe.
4
Select the appropriate pharmacotherapy.
Initiate an atypical antipsychotic approved for bipolar depression, such as quetiapine.
Quetiapine provides established monotherapy efficacy for bipolar depression while simultaneously treating the concurrent psychotic features. Fluoxetine (an SSRI) must be discontinued as it is inappropriate monotherapy for bipolar disorder.

Key Concept

Management of severe Bipolar I depression with psychotic features requires inpatient admission for safety and treatment with medications effective for both mood and psychosis (e.g., quetiapine), while avoiding antidepressant monotherapy.
Estimated Time:2m 0s
Question 194Question →

A 35-year-old man is brought to the clinic by his husband for couples counseling. The husband complains that the patient is "suffocatingly rigid." For example, the patient insists on packing the dishwasher in a highly specific configuration and will unpack and repack it entirely if the husband does it "incorrectly." The patient recently received a formal warning at his accounting firm because he missed a major filing deadline; he spent three weeks formatting the spreadsheets to look "flawless" rather than submitting the adequate, finalized data on time. He refuses to delegate tasks to junior accountants, stating, "They are careless, and I am the only one who can do it exactly right." He frequently skips social events to organize his home office and refuses to throw away old, broken electronics, claiming they "might be useful someday." During the interview, the patient appears frustrated and says, "My husband is overreacting. I just have high standards. Is it a crime to want things done properly?" He denies any repetitive, intrusive thoughts or sudden urges that cause him distress. Mental status examination reveals a constricted affect and overly formal speech. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Obsessive-compulsive personality disorder

Answer

Obsessive-compulsive personality disorder
The correct answer is Obsessive-compulsive personality disorder (OCPD). This patient exhibits a pervasive pattern of preoccupation with orderliness, perfectionism, and control. Key features present in this vignette include perfectionism that interferes with task completion (missing a deadline to perfectly format spreadsheets), reluctance to delegate tasks (believing others will do it incorrectly), rigidity/stubbornness (insisting the dishwasher be packed a certain way), and hoarding behavior (keeping old electronics). Crucially, personality disorders are ego-syntonic; this patient believes his behavior is entirely rational and is frustrated by his husband's complaints. He does not suffer from the intrusive, distressing thoughts (obsessions) or anxiety-relieving rituals (compulsions) characteristic of obsessive-compulsive disorder.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the patient's behavioral patterns and interpersonal functioning.
The patient demonstrates extreme perfectionism, rigidity, reluctance to delegate, and hoarding behavior, all of which impair his occupational and social functioning.
Identifying the pervasive maladaptive traits is necessary to classify the psychiatric condition.
2
Evaluate the patient's insight and distress regarding his symptoms (ego-syntonic vs. ego-dystonic).
The patient does not find his behavior distressing and believes his high standards are correct (ego-syntonic). He lacks intrusive thoughts and repetitive anxiety-relieving rituals.
Differentiating between ego-syntonic personality traits and ego-dystonic anxiety disorders is the key step to distinguish OCPD from OCD.
3
Differentiate from other personality and developmental disorders based on core motivations.
The patient's social withdrawal is driven by perfectionism, not a lack of desire for relationships (ruling out Schizoid). His sense of superiority is regarding task execution, not grandiosity (ruling out Narcissistic). There is no history of early developmental social deficits (ruling out Autism).
Overlapping symptoms must be excluded based on the underlying psychological drivers to arrive at the single best diagnosis.

Key Concept

Obsessive-compulsive personality disorder (OCPD) is characterized by a pervasive pattern of perfectionism, rigidity, and orderliness that is ego-syntonic, distinguishing it from the ego-dystonic obsessions and compulsions of obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD).
Estimated Time:1m 30s
Question 195Question →

A 32-year-old woman comes to the outpatient clinic 4 months postpartum for a follow-up evaluation of depressive symptoms. Two weeks ago, she presented with a 4-week history of profound despondency, early morning awakenings, anorexia with a 3-kg (6.6-lb) weight loss, and feeling worse in the morning. She reported that these symptoms made it exceedingly difficult to get out of bed and properly care for her infant. At that time, she was diagnosed with major depressive disorder and started on escitalopram 10 mg daily. Today, she states, "The medication isn't working. I still feel incredibly depressed, but now I also feel extremely restless, jittery, and my thoughts are racing." Vital signs are within normal limits. On examination, the patient appears visibly agitated, is pacing the room, and exhibits rapid speech. Upon detailed psychiatric review, she mentions that during her second year of college, she experienced a spontaneous 6-day period where she felt "incredibly energized," slept only 3 hours per night without fatigue, and impulsively maxed out two credit cards on unnecessary clothing. That episode resolved without medical intervention. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in pharmacotherapy?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Discontinue escitalopram and initiate quetiapine

Answer

Discontinue escitalopram and initiate quetiapine
This patient initially presented with a major depressive episode and was appropriately treated for unipolar depression based on the initial assessment. However, her current presentation of profound depression mixed with severe agitation, pacing, and racing thoughts shortly after starting an SSRI is highly suspicious for a treatment-emergent mixed state. A detailed history reveals a prior spontaneous 6-day episode of decreased need for sleep, increased energy, and impulsivity, which meets the DSM-5 criteria for a hypomanic episode. Therefore, her correct diagnosis is Bipolar II disorder. Antidepressant monotherapy (like escitalopram) is contraindicated in bipolar disorder due to the risk of mood destabilization. The most appropriate next step is to discontinue the offending SSRI and initiate a medication that is FDA-approved for acute bipolar depression, such as the atypical antipsychotic quetiapine.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Evaluate the patient's past psychiatric history from the clinical interview.
The patient describes a distinct 6-day period of elevated mood, decreased need for sleep, and impulsive behavior in college.
Identifying past episodes of abnormally elevated mood is crucial to differentiate unipolar major depressive disorder from bipolar disorder. A 4-to-6 day period of these symptoms without marked impairment or hospitalization defines a hypomanic episode, establishing a diagnosis of Bipolar II disorder.
2
Assess the patient's current response to the prescribed SSRI.
After 2 weeks of escitalopram, the patient has worsening depression alongside new-onset severe agitation, restlessness, pacing, and racing thoughts.
When a patient with an underlying bipolar spectrum disorder is treated with antidepressant monotherapy, it can precipitate mood destabilization, leading to a mixed state (depressive symptoms combined with psychomotor agitation and racing thoughts) or a full manic switch.
3
Determine the appropriate pharmacologic intervention.
The SSRI must be stopped, and a medication indicated for acute bipolar depression should be started.
Continuing the SSRI will exacerbate the mixed state. Quetiapine, lurasidone, or a combination of olanzapine and fluoxetine are first-line, FDA-approved treatments for acute bipolar depression that provide efficacy without the high risk of mood destabilization.

Key Concept

Patients presenting with depressive episodes must be carefully screened for a history of mania or hypomania. Antidepressant monotherapy in patients with unrecognized Bipolar II disorder can induce severe agitation, mixed states, or manic switches, necessitating immediate cessation of the antidepressant and initiation of a bipolar-specific agent.
Question 196Question →

A 28-year-old man is evaluated on the inpatient medical floor where he is being treated for a severe asthma exacerbation. The nursing staff reports that his behavior has been highly disruptive. During the morning shift, he told his assigned nurse that she is "the most compassionate and skilled caregiver in this entire hospital." However, later in the afternoon, he became enraged with a different nurse, yelling that she is "cruel, incompetent, and intentionally ignoring me." When the attending physician informs the patient that his respiratory status has improved and he will be discharged the following day, the patient becomes visibly furious. He threatens to stop taking all his asthma medications and walk into oncoming traffic if he is forced to leave. His past medical history is significant for multiple superficial, self-inflicted forearm lacerations and a pattern of intense, unstable romantic relationships. Which of the following are appropriate management steps for this patient? (Select all that apply)

Select all that apply

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Schedule regular multidisciplinary team conferences to maintain a unified approach among all staff; Establish clear, consistent boundaries regarding acceptable conduct and responses to threats

Answer

The appropriate management steps are to schedule regular multidisciplinary team conferences and establish clear, consistent boundaries regarding acceptable conduct.
The patient's presentation of idealization and devaluation (splitting), intense reactions to perceived abandonment (reacting to discharge with threats of self-harm), and history of superficial self-injury strongly point to borderline personality disorder. In a medical setting, patients with this disorder often disrupt care by dividing the staff. The most appropriate management involves unified teamwork. Scheduling regular multidisciplinary team conferences ensures all staff members share information, preventing the patient from successfully pitting providers against one another. Additionally, establishing clear, consistent boundaries regarding acceptable conduct is crucial to provide a structured environment and limit manipulative behaviors.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the patient's underlying psychiatric condition based on the clinical presentation.
The patient exhibits splitting, intense fear of abandonment, emotional lability, and a history of self-harm, which are classic features of borderline personality disorder.
Accurate diagnosis is required to formulate an appropriate management plan for his disruptive behavior on the medical floor.
2
Determine the best evidence-based management strategies for this disorder in an inpatient medical setting.
The most effective strategies involve preventing staff division through open team communication and establishing firm behavioral boundaries.
These interventions provide necessary structure, minimize manipulation, and ensure the medical team can safely deliver care without internal conflict.

Key Concept

Management of Borderline Personality Disorder in the Medical Setting
Question 197Question →

A 54-year-old male architect is evaluated for a first episode of pervasive sadness, early morning awakening, and severe anhedonia. Over the subsequent 14 months, his clinical course is characterized by progressive treatment resistance, ultimately culminating in an inpatient psychiatric admission for life-threatening symptoms. According to evidence-based stepped-care guidelines for Major Depressive Disorder, arrange the following management steps in the most appropriate chronological order, corresponding to his clinical evolution from initial presentation to severe, refractory illness.

Drag items to arrange them in the correct order

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Answer

The correct chronological sequence of stepped-care management is: 1) Screen for bipolar disorder and medical mimics, 2) Initiate SSRI monotherapy, 3) Switch to an SNRI due to non-response and side effects, 4) Augment with aripiprazole for partial response, and 5) Initiate ECT for the development of psychotic features and food refusal.
The management of Major Depressive Disorder follows a highly evidence-based stepped-care algorithm. First, all patients must be screened for bipolar disorder and medical mimics (e.g., hypothyroidism) before initiating treatment to avoid precipitating mania. Second, an SSRI is the appropriate first-line pharmacotherapy. Third, if a patient has a complete lack of response and experiences intolerable side effects, the correct algorithmic step is to switch to a different class of antidepressant (e.g., an SNRI). Fourth, if a subsequent trial yields a partial response and is well-tolerated, the algorithm shifts to augmentation (e.g., adding an atypical antipsychotic like aripiprazole or a mood stabilizer like lithium) to build upon the partial gains. Finally, if the patient clinically deteriorates and develops life-threatening features, such as psychosis, catatonia, or refusal to eat, all standard outpatient pharmacotherapy algorithms are superseded by the need for immediate Electroconvulsive Therapy (ECT).

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Establish diagnosis and safety parameters.
Screen for bipolar disorder and check TSH.
Rule out bipolar disorder and medical mimics to prevent antidepressant-induced mania before any pharmacotherapy is started.
2
Initiate primary pharmacotherapy.
Start SSRI monotherapy.
SSRIs are the first-line standard of care for an uncomplicated initial episode of unipolar major depressive disorder.
3
Manage primary treatment failure.
Switch to an SNRI.
A complete lack of response combined with poor tolerability dictates switching to a different antidepressant class rather than augmenting.
4
Manage partial therapeutic response.
Augment with aripiprazole.
Partial improvement with good tolerability dictates adding an augmenting agent (like a second-generation antipsychotic or lithium) rather than abandoning the current effective drug.
5
Manage life-threatening clinical deterioration.
Initiate Electroconvulsive Therapy (ECT).
The emergence of psychotic features and food refusal represents a psychiatric emergency requiring immediate, highly effective intervention, for which ECT is the gold standard.

Key Concept

Stepped-care pharmacotherapy algorithm for Major Depressive Disorder (MDD), specifically distinguishing indications for switching versus augmentation, and identifying absolute indications for ECT.
Question 198Question →

A 34-year-old woman presents to the clinic accompanied by her sister due to a 4-week history of recurrent, unexpected episodes of intense fear, palpitations, sweating, and chest pain. Each episode peaks within 10 minutes. Because of these attacks, she has stopped going to work and refuses to leave her house, fearing she will be unable to escape if an attack occurs. She has a history of bipolar I disorder, diagnosed after a severe manic episode at age 24, but discontinued her lithium 3 years ago. For the past month, she has also felt profoundly sad, with low energy and hypersomnia. She recently saw another physician who prescribed phenelzine two weeks ago. In the waiting room, the sister pulls the physician aside and asks, 'Is she developing schizophrenia like our mother? I need to know her exact diagnosis.' Vital signs are temperature 37.0°C (98.6°F), blood pressure 128/82 mm Hg, and pulse 108/min. Physical examination is unremarkable. Which of the following are appropriate next steps in this patient's management? (Select all that apply)

Select all that apply

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Initiate cognitive-behavioral therapy; Assessment of serum thyroid-stimulating hormone

Answer

The most appropriate next steps are to initiate cognitive-behavioral therapy and assess serum thyroid-stimulating hormone.
The patient's presentation of recurrent, unexpected episodes of intense fear accompanied by autonomic symptoms and subsequent avoidance behavior is consistent with panic disorder and agoraphobia. Cognitive-behavioral therapy is a first-line treatment for this condition and is particularly appropriate here given the complexities of her medication history and comorbidities. Additionally, because the patient has new-onset autonomic symptoms (tachycardia) and panic attacks, standard practice dictates ruling out physiological causes such as hyperthyroidism by ordering a serum thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) level.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the primary psychiatric syndrome.
The patient exhibits recurrent, unexpected panic attacks leading to agoraphobia (avoiding leaving the house).
This establishes a working diagnosis of panic disorder with agoraphobia.
2
Evaluate for medical etiologies.
The patient has resting tachycardia (108/min) and new-onset panic symptoms.
Basic laboratory testing, including TSH, is required to rule out hyperthyroidism, which can mimic panic attacks.
3
Determine appropriate psychiatric treatment while considering comorbidities.
Cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT) is selected as a safe and effective initial treatment.
Pharmacological interventions like SSRIs are complicated by her bipolar I history (risk of manic switch) and current MAOI use (risk of serotonin syndrome).
4
Address the ethical dilemma regarding the sister's request.
The physician must refuse to disclose the diagnosis.
Without the patient's explicit consent, sharing health information violates patient confidentiality.

Key Concept

Management of panic disorder with agoraphobia in complex patients requires medical rule-out (e.g., TSH), evidence-based psychotherapy (CBT), careful navigation of psychiatric comorbidities (avoiding SSRI monotherapy in bipolar disorder), and strict adherence to medical confidentiality.
Question 199Question →

A 45-year-old male executive presents to the primary care clinic reporting a two-month history of having "zero energy." He describes experiencing a persistently low mood, an inability to enjoy his usual hobbies, and a sensation that his arms and legs are unusually heavy. The patient reports sleeping 12 to 14 hours a day and has gained 7 kg (15.4 lb) over this period. Medical history is notable for migraine headaches, for which he takes sumatriptan as needed; he has used it twice in the past week. Four years ago, the patient experienced a distinct six-day period during which he slept only two hours a night but felt completely rested. During that time, he was highly talkative, unusually confident, and impulsively invested a large amount of money into a risky startup. This caused significant marital friction but did not require hospitalization. Vital signs are within normal limits. Mental status examination reveals psychomotor retardation and a blunted affect, but no delusions or suicidal ideation. Laboratory studies show a thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) level of 1.8 µU/mL (normal: 0.5–5.0 µU/mL) and free T4 of 1.1 ng/dL (normal: 0.8–1.8 ng/dL). Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in pharmacotherapy for this patient?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Initiate quetiapine

Answer

Initiate quetiapine
The patient is currently experiencing a major depressive episode (depressed mood, anhedonia, hypersomnia, weight gain) and has a clear history of a hypomanic episode (6 days of elevated mood, decreased need for sleep, increased productivity, and impulsivity without requiring hospitalization). This establishes a diagnosis of bipolar II disorder, currently in a depressive phase. The first-line pharmacological treatment for acute bipolar depression includes specific second-generation antipsychotics, such as quetiapine or lurasidone. Quetiapine has well-established efficacy for this indication and does not carry the risk of precipitating a mood switch.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the patient's current presenting symptoms.
The patient has a 2-month history of depressed mood, anhedonia, hypersomnia, weight gain, and leaden paralysis, which meets the criteria for a major depressive episode with atypical features.
Establishing the current phase of the illness is necessary to guide acute management.
2
Evaluate the past psychiatric history for episodes of elevated mood.
The patient had a prior 6-day episode of elevated mood, decreased need for sleep, rapid speech, and impulsivity without requiring hospitalization, meeting the criteria for a hypomanic episode.
A history of hypomania changes the diagnosis from major depressive disorder to bipolar II disorder.
3
Select the appropriate pharmacotherapy for bipolar depression.
Quetiapine is selected as it is a first-line agent for acute bipolar depression.
Antidepressant monotherapy must be avoided in bipolar disorders due to the risk of mood switch, making medications like quetiapine, lurasidone, or cariprazine the preferred options.

Key Concept

Patients presenting with a major depressive episode must be screened for past manic or hypomanic episodes; if present, the diagnosis is bipolar disorder, and treatment involves mood stabilizers or specific second-generation antipsychotics rather than antidepressant monotherapy.
Estimated Time:1m 15s
Question 200Question →

Match each clinical presentation to the most likely underlying neurocognitive etiology.

Click a left item, then click its matching right item

Items

A patient exhibits profound early changes in personality, inappropriate social conduct, and hyperorality without initial significant memory loss.
A patient experiences an abrupt, step-wise deterioration in executive function following multiple ischemic events, accompanied by asymmetric reflex abnormalities.
A patient reports vivid recurrent formed visual hallucinations and REM sleep behavior disorder, alongside spontaneous parkinsonian features.
A patient develops a progressive triad of gait apraxia, sudden urinary urgency, and insidious cognitive slowing.

Matches

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Answer

The presentations match as follows: early personality changes pair with Frontotemporal neurocognitive disorder; step-wise ischemic decline pairs with Vascular neurocognitive disorder; visual hallucinations with parkinsonism pairs with Neurocognitive disorder with Lewy bodies; and the triad of gait apraxia, urinary urgency, and cognitive slowing pairs with Normal pressure hydrocephalus.
Each neurocognitive etiology has highly specific, defining clinical features. Frontotemporal disease targets frontal lobe executive and behavioral regulation; vascular disease manifests as discrete, step-wise losses mapping to stroke territories; Lewy body pathology uniquely generates visual hallucinations and parkinsonism; and normal pressure hydrocephalus mechanically impacts periventricular tracts causing a specific triad of gait, bladder, and cognitive symptoms.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the first clinical presentation for distinguishing behavioral symptoms.
Identified prominent personality changes and hyperorality.
These are specific criteria for diagnosing frontotemporal neurocognitive disorder.
2
Evaluate the second presentation for onset and progression pattern.
Identified a step-wise decline associated with ischemic events.
Step-wise progression strongly indicates an underlying cerebrovascular etiology.
3
Review the third presentation for specific neuropsychiatric and sleep disturbances.
Identified visual hallucinations, REM sleep behavior disorder, and parkinsonism.
These form the classic core criteria for neurocognitive disorder with Lewy bodies.
4
Assess the fourth presentation for the classic symptomatic triad.
Identified gait apraxia, urinary incontinence, and cognitive decline.
This triad suggests impaired cerebrospinal fluid reabsorption, pointing to normal pressure hydrocephalus.

Key Concept

Distinctive clinical features of major neurocognitive disorders
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