Depressive Disorders

116 questions

Question 41Question →

A 28-year-old woman is diagnosed with major depressive disorder and prescribed an oral selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI). Arrange the following clinical events and milestones in the typical chronological order in which they are expected to occur during her treatment course, from the initial days of therapy to long-term management.

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Answer

The correct sequence begins with immediate side effects, followed by neurovegetative symptom improvement, a period of heightened suicide risk, delayed mood improvement, and finally the continuation phase.
The established clinical timeline for SSRI treatment involves immediate onset of side effects (days 1-7), followed by early improvement in neurovegetative symptoms like energy and sleep (weeks 1-2). Because energy returns before mood improves, patients experience a critical window of increased suicide risk during this mismatch. Finally, core mood symptoms and anhedonia remit (weeks 4-6), allowing the patient to enter the continuation phase of treatment (months 2-8).

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the immediate effects of starting an SSRI.
Gastrointestinal upset and agitation occur within days.
Serotonergic side effects precede therapeutic benefits due to immediate receptor activation.
2
Determine the first depressive symptoms to improve.
Neurovegetative symptoms (sleep, energy, appetite) improve within 1 to 2 weeks.
Physical and vegetative symptoms respond faster than core psychological symptoms.
3
Assess the clinical consequence of mismatched symptom improvement.
A period of elevated suicide risk occurs.
Patients gain the energy to act on suicidal ideation before their subjective mood and hopelessness improve.
4
Identify the timeline for core symptom resolution.
Mood and anhedonia improve after 4 to 6 weeks.
Receptor downregulation and downstream neurogenesis require several weeks to produce emotional recovery.
5
Determine the next phase of treatment after achieving remission.
The continuation phase begins.
Clinical guidelines recommend 4 to 9 months of continued treatment post-remission to prevent relapse.

Key Concept

Timeline of clinical response and side effects for antidepressant pharmacotherapy
Question 42Question →

A 24-year-old woman is evaluated in the psychiatric clinic for worsening mood. For the past two months, she has experienced pervasive sadness, anhedonia, hypersomnia (sleeping 12 to 14 hours a day), and a 6-kg (13-lb) weight gain. She describes her arms and legs as feeling "heavy like lead," though she notes her mood brightens temporarily when her sister comes to visit. Three years ago, she was hospitalized for a one-week episode during which she slept only two hours a night, spoke extremely rapidly, and spent her entire savings. During that admission, she heard a voice telling her she was a prophet, but this hallucination resolved completely within 5 days alongside her other symptoms after she received acute treatment. She is currently taking fluoxetine, which was prescribed by her primary care physician three weeks ago, but she reports no improvement.

Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?

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Answer: Diagnose bipolar I disorder; discontinue fluoxetine and initiate quetiapine

Answer

Diagnose bipolar I disorder; discontinue fluoxetine and initiate quetiapine
The correct answer accurately synthesizes the patient's current atypical depressive episode with her past history of a manic episode (decreased sleep, pressured speech, grandiosity, reckless spending requiring hospitalization for 1 week) to diagnose bipolar I disorder. Because SSRI monotherapy can trigger a manic switch in patients with bipolar disorder, the current fluoxetine must be stopped. Quetiapine is a second-generation antipsychotic with FDA approval and strong efficacy for treating acute bipolar depression.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the current clinical presentation.
The patient is experiencing a severe depressive episode characterized by atypical features, including hypersomnia, leaden paralysis, weight gain, and mood reactivity.
To establish the current mood state.
2
Evaluate the psychiatric history for prior mood episodes.
The patient had a prior episode of decreased need for sleep, pressured speech, and reckless spending lasting one week and requiring hospitalization. This definitively meets the criteria for a manic episode.
To differentiate between unipolar major depressive disorder and bipolar disorder.
3
Assess the timing and duration of past psychotic symptoms.
The hallucinations (hearing a voice) occurred exclusively during the one-week manic episode and resolved simultaneously with the mood symptoms.
To rule out primary psychotic disorders (schizophrenia, schizophreniform) or schizoaffective disorder, which require different timelines or psychosis in the absence of mood episodes.
4
Determine the correct diagnosis and the safest next step in pharmacological management.
The diagnosis is bipolar I disorder, currently depressed. The current fluoxetine (an SSRI) must be discontinued to avoid inducing mania, and a bipolar-appropriate agent like quetiapine should be initiated.
SSRI monotherapy is contraindicated in bipolar disorder, whereas quetiapine is an FDA-approved first-line treatment for bipolar depression.

Key Concept

Patients presenting with depressive episodes must be carefully screened for a history of mania; if bipolar I disorder is diagnosed, SSRI monotherapy should be discontinued to prevent a manic switch, and an appropriate agent like quetiapine should be initiated.
Estimated Time:1m 30s
Question 43Question →

A 72-year-old woman is brought to the emergency department by her husband due to a progressive physical decline over the past week. She has a history of persistent depressive disorder since her late 40s and was diagnosed with a superimposed major depressive episode 6 months ago following her husband's stroke. During the current episode, she sequentially failed 8-week trials of sertraline and venlafaxine at maximum tolerated doses. Four weeks ago, her psychiatrist initiated a combination of fluoxetine 40 mg and bupropion 150 mg daily. Over the past 7 days, she has entirely refused to eat or drink, stating that her "stomach has been replaced by a block of ice" and that eating is a sin. On examination, she is mute, exhibits severe psychomotor retardation, and avoids eye contact. Her temperature is 37.0°C (98.6°F), pulse is 110/min, and blood pressure is 105/65 mm Hg. Her mucous membranes are extremely dry, and skin turgor is poor. Laboratory results show a blood urea nitrogen (BUN) of 48 mg/dL and a serum creatinine of 1.9 mg/dL (baseline 4 weeks ago was 0.8 mg/dL). Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?

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Answer: Admit for medical stabilization and initiate electroconvulsive therapy

Answer

The most appropriate next step is to admit the patient for medical stabilization (including intravenous fluids) and initiate electroconvulsive therapy.
Electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) is the first-line treatment of choice for patients with major depressive disorder who develop life-threatening complications such as severe suicidality, severe malnutrition, or dehydration due to food and fluid refusal. This patient is suffering from unipolar psychotic depression (characterized by the mood-congruent nihilistic delusion that her stomach is a 'block of ice') and has subsequently developed an acute kidney injury from severe dehydration. In this scenario, ECT provides a rapid, life-saving response, whereas waiting 4 to 6 weeks for oral psychopharmacological medications to take effect would likely be fatal. Medical stabilization with intravenous fluids must be initiated concurrently with the psychiatric admission for ECT.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the primary psychiatric diagnosis.
The patient has Major Depressive Disorder, severe, with psychotic features, specifically demonstrating a nihilistic somatic delusion (Cotard syndrome).
She believes her stomach is a 'block of ice' and eating is a sin, which are classic mood-congruent psychotic features.
2
Assess the medical severity and acuity of the presentation.
The patient has life-threatening inanition (refusal to eat or drink), resulting in severe dehydration, tachycardia, and acute kidney injury (BUN 48 mg/dL, Cr 1.9 mg/dL).
Her physical decline and lab values indicate she is medically unstable and cannot wait weeks for oral medications to take effect.
3
Determine the optimal treatment algorithm for this acute presentation.
Urgent electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) is the gold standard for severe, life-threatening psychotic depression, especially in the geriatric population.
ECT provides the most rapid and effective response when a patient's food and fluid refusal creates a life-threatening medical emergency.
4
Evaluate alternative psychopharmacological interventions.
Oral antidepressant-antipsychotic combinations are too slow, and monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOIs) are contraindicated due to the recent fluoxetine use.
Fluoxetine's long half-life necessitates a mandatory 5-week washout period before an MAOI can be safely initiated.

Key Concept

Emergency indications for electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) in Major Depressive Disorder, specifically targeting psychotic depression accompanied by life-threatening inanition.
Question 44Question →

A 24-year-old graduate student presents to the clinic reporting that she has felt "down and empty" for the past 6 weeks. She describes poor appetite, waking up multiple times during the night, low energy, and an inability to enjoy her usual hobbies. She feels guilty about her recently declining academic performance. She has no significant past medical history and takes no medications. Her physical examination is unremarkable. The physician determines that she meets the criteria for a major depressive episode and considers initiating pharmacotherapy with an antidepressant. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the psychiatric evaluation prior to prescribing this medication?

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Answer: Assess for a history of elevated mood, rapid speech, and decreased need for sleep

Answer

Assess for a history of elevated mood, rapid speech, and decreased need for sleep
The correct answer is to assess for a history of elevated mood, rapid speech, and decreased need for sleep. A major depressive episode can be the presenting phase of either Major Depressive Disorder (unipolar depression) or Bipolar Disorder. The DSM-5 criteria for Major Depressive Disorder explicitly state that there must never have been a manic or hypomanic episode. Furthermore, prescribing antidepressant monotherapy (such as an SSRI or SNRI) to a patient with unrecognized bipolar disorder carries a significant risk of inducing a manic switch. Therefore, screening for past hypomania or mania is a mandatory step before initiating antidepressant treatment.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the primary clinical syndrome.
The patient has a 6-week history of low mood, anhedonia, insomnia, fatigue, and guilt, meeting the criteria for a major depressive episode.
Establishing the current syndrome is the first step in psychiatric diagnosis.
2
Determine the safety requirements before initiating antidepressant therapy.
Antidepressants can trigger a manic episode in patients with bipolar disorder. Therefore, a major depressive episode cannot be definitively diagnosed as Major Depressive Disorder until a history of mania or hypomania is ruled out.
Diagnostic criteria for Major Depressive Disorder explicitly require that there has never been a manic or hypomanic episode.
3
Select the appropriate next clinical action.
The clinician must ask about prior episodes of elevated mood, decreased need for sleep, and increased energy/activity.
This screening prevents the iatrogenic harm of inducing a manic switch with antidepressant monotherapy.

Key Concept

Prior to prescribing antidepressant monotherapy for a major depressive episode, clinicians must screen for a history of mania or hypomania to rule out bipolar disorder and prevent an iatrogenic manic switch.
Question 45Question →

A 42-year-old male marketing executive presents to the clinic for a two-month history of pervasive anhedonia, early morning awakening, and an unintentional 5-kg (11-lb) weight loss. He reports that his symptoms have severely impaired his concentration, leading to a recent formal reprimand at work. He is seeking pharmacologic treatment. Assuming this patient will eventually develop treatment-resistant depression over the next year, arrange the following clinical management steps in the standard chronological sequence according to evidence-based stepped-care guidelines.

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Answer

The correct chronological sequence for managing this patient's evolving treatment-resistant depression is: screening for bipolar disorder, titrating the initial SSRI to a maximum dose, augmenting with a second agent for partial response, switching to a different class upon augmentation failure, and finally utilizing ECT for severe treatment-resistant symptoms.
The standard stepped-care escalation for major depressive disorder begins with ruling out bipolar disorder to prevent antidepressant-induced mania. Once unipolar depression is confirmed, a first-line agent (e.g., an SSRI) is initiated and titrated to its maximum tolerated dose to ensure an adequate trial. If the patient has a partial response, augmenting with a second agent (like an atypical antipsychotic) is preferred to build on existing progress. If the augmented regimen fails, cross-tapering to a medication in a different class (e.g., an SNRI) is indicated. Finally, if the patient fails multiple adequate trials and develops severe, life-threatening symptoms such as active suicidality, electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) is the definitive next step for treatment-resistant depression.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Prior to initiating any pharmacotherapy, comprehensively evaluate for bipolar disorder.
A detailed psychiatric history is obtained to rule out past manic or hypomanic episodes.
Antidepressant monotherapy in unrecognized bipolar disorder can induce a manic switch or rapid cycling.
2
Initiate a first-line antidepressant and optimize the dose.
Sertraline is started and titrated to the maximum tolerated therapeutic level over several weeks.
Subtherapeutic dosing is a leading cause of pseudo-resistance; an adequate trial requires maximizing the dose before changing strategies.
3
Implement an augmentation strategy for a partial therapeutic response.
A second-generation antipsychotic (e.g., aripiprazole) is added to the optimized sertraline regimen.
Augmentation is preferred over switching when a patient has a partial response, as it builds upon the partial efficacy already achieved without losing progress.
4
Switch to a different pharmacologic class if the augmented regimen fails.
The patient is cross-tapered from the SSRI to an SNRI (e.g., venlafaxine).
When an optimized and augmented trial fails, switching to an agent with a different mechanism of action (e.g., adding norepinephrine reuptake inhibition) is indicated.
5
Recommend neuromodulation for severe treatment-resistant depression.
Electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) is initiated.
After failing multiple adequate trials of different antidepressant classes, or with the emergence of life-threatening symptoms like severe suicidality, ECT becomes the treatment of choice.

Key Concept

The stepped-care escalation algorithm for major depressive disorder.
Question 46Question →

A 27-year-old primigravida at 16 weeks gestation is brought to the clinic by her partner due to worsening mood. Over the last four weeks, she has felt profoundly sad, lacks energy, and sleeps up to 14 hours a day. She expresses deep guilt and says she feels "empty." Her partner notes that during her second year of college, she experienced a distinct two-week period where she slept only three hours a night, spoke at an unusually rapid pace, and started three different business ventures that rapidly failed. That prior episode resolved without hospitalization. She currently takes a daily prenatal vitamin and an over-the-counter dextromethorphan syrup for a chronic post-viral cough. Vital signs are within normal limits. Recent laboratory testing shows a thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) level of 1.1 mU/L. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in pharmacologic management?

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Answer: Initiate lurasidone

Answer

The most appropriate next step is to initiate lurasidone.
The correct answer involves initiating an atypical antipsychotic approved for bipolar depression. This patient is presenting with a major depressive episode, but her history of a distinct period with decreased need for sleep, rapid speech, and impulsive goal-directed activity establishes an underlying diagnosis of bipolar disorder. In bipolar depression, traditional antidepressant monotherapy is contraindicated. Lurasidone is a first-line, FDA-approved monotherapy for bipolar depression and possesses a favorable safety profile for use during pregnancy.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Evaluate the current symptom profile and duration.
The patient exhibits profound sadness, hypersomnia, anergia, and guilt lasting four weeks, which meets the criteria for a major depressive episode.
Establishing the current phase of the psychiatric illness is required to guide immediate management.
2
Analyze the patient's psychiatric history for prior mood episodes.
The history reveals a distinct two-week period of decreased need for sleep, rapid speech, and increased goal-directed activity, indicating a past manic or hypomanic episode.
A history of mania or hypomania changes the diagnosis from unipolar major depressive disorder to bipolar disorder, fundamentally altering the treatment algorithm.
3
Review current medications and pregnancy status to select a safe intervention.
The patient is pregnant and taking dextromethorphan. Lurasidone is selected over antidepressants (to avoid manic switch) and MAOIs (to avoid serotonin syndrome with dextromethorphan).
Lurasidone is an FDA-approved, first-line agent for bipolar depression with registry data supporting its relative safety during pregnancy.

Key Concept

Discriminating bipolar depression from unipolar depression and selecting appropriate pharmacotherapy
Question 47Question →

Match each depressive disorder or specifier with its most characteristic clinical presentation.

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Items

Major depressive disorder with atypical features
Major depressive disorder with melancholic features
Persistent depressive disorder (dysthymia)
Premenstrual dysphoric disorder

Matches

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Answer

Major depressive disorder with atypical features matches with mood reactivity, hyperphagia, and hypersomnia. Major depressive disorder with melancholic features matches with pervasive anhedonia, early morning awakening, and weight loss. Persistent depressive disorder matches with chronic depressed mood for at least 2 years. Premenstrual dysphoric disorder matches with symptoms occurring in the luteal phase.
Matching depressive disorders to their classic criteria requires recognizing pathognomonic symptom clusters. Atypical features present with mood reactivity and 'reversed' vegetative symptoms (hyperphagia, hypersomnia). Melancholic features present with profound anhedonia and classic vegetative symptoms (insomnia, weight loss). Persistent depressive disorder is defined by chronicity (at least 2 years). Premenstrual dysphoric disorder is defined by its relation to the luteal phase of the menstrual cycle.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Evaluate the clinical description for mood reactivity combined with reversed vegetative symptoms (increased sleep and appetite).
Identified as atypical features.
These are the classic DSM-5 diagnostic criteria for the 'with atypical features' specifier of major depressive disorder.
2
Evaluate the clinical description for complete anhedonia, unreactive mood, and classic vegetative symptoms like early morning awakening.
Identified as melancholic features.
These severe symptoms define the melancholic specifier, separating it from typical or atypical presentations.
3
Evaluate the clinical description regarding the chronicity of the depressed mood.
A duration of 2 years or more without a 2-month gap identifies persistent depressive disorder.
The 2-year timeline is the core defining diagnostic criterion for persistent depressive disorder (dysthymia) in adults.
4
Evaluate the clinical description for mood symptoms strictly tied to the menstrual cycle.
Symptoms restricted to the luteal phase identify premenstrual dysphoric disorder.
The cyclic nature of severe mood symptoms correlating with the luteal phase and resolving with menses is the hallmark of this disorder.

Key Concept

Identifying subtypes and specifiers of depressive disorders based on their distinct clinical criteria
Question 48Question →

A 28-year-old woman presents to the outpatient clinic 3 months postpartum reporting an overwhelmingly sad mood, profound hypersomnia, hyperphagia, and a sensation of extreme heaviness in her arms and legs. She reports significant functional impairment, noting difficulty getting out of bed to care for her infant. To avoid common clinical pitfalls and ensure standard-of-care management, arrange the following steps in the correct chronological sequence, from the immediate diagnostic evaluation to the management of potential treatment refractoriness.

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Answer

The correct sequence begins with screening for bipolarity, followed by ruling out medical/substance etiologies, initiating SSRI monotherapy, allowing 6 to 8 weeks for an adequate trial, and finally utilizing augmentation strategies if only a partial response is achieved.
The standard of care for a new depressive presentation dictates diagnostic safety first (ruling out bipolarity and medical causes), followed by evidence-based initiation of therapy (SSRI), adherence to pharmacodynamic timelines (6-8 week trial), and finally algorithmic escalation (augmentation) for persistent or partially treated symptoms.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Rule out bipolar disorder.
Screen for history of mania/hypomania.
Patients with atypical depression features have a high rate of bipolar disorder; giving SSRI monotherapy to a bipolar patient can trigger a manic episode.
2
Rule out organic pathology.
Obtain labs and toxicology.
Conditions like postpartum thyroiditis or substance use must be excluded to confirm primary unipolar major depressive disorder.
3
Initiate primary treatment.
Prescribe an SSRI.
SSRIs are first-line for major depressive disorder, including cases with atypical or peripartum onset features.
4
Prevent premature discontinuation.
Wait 6 to 8 weeks at a therapeutic dose.
Neurobiological adaptations (e.g., receptor downregulation) take weeks; assessing efficacy too early leads to inappropriate medication changes.
5
Address treatment resistance.
Augment with an atypical antipsychotic or lithium.
If an adequate 6-8 week trial yields only a partial response, augmentation is the evidence-based next step in the stepped-care algorithm.

Key Concept

Algorithmic evaluation and stepped-care management of Major Depressive Disorder
Question 49Question →

Match each patient's clinical presentation of major depressive disorder with the most appropriate initial pharmacological treatment based on their specific comorbidities and symptom profiles.

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Items

A 45-year-old patient with major depressive disorder and poorly controlled diabetic peripheral neuropathy.
A 28-year-old patient with major depressive disorder who strongly wishes to avoid sexual dysfunction and weight gain.
A 78-year-old patient with major depressive disorder presenting with severe insomnia and a 10-lb weight loss over the past month.
A 60-year-old patient with major depressive disorder who was hospitalized for a myocardial infarction two weeks ago.

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Answer

The correct matches link the patient with diabetic neuropathy to Duloxetine; the patient avoiding sexual dysfunction and weight gain to Bupropion; the patient with insomnia and weight loss to Mirtazapine; and the patient with a recent myocardial infarction to Sertraline.
The correct pairings rely on matching the known side effects and secondary indications of antidepressants with specific patient needs. Duloxetine treats neuropathy; bupropion avoids sexual dysfunction; mirtazapine promotes sleep and appetite; and sertraline is safe post-myocardial infarction.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the first patient's comorbidities.
The patient has diabetic peripheral neuropathy in addition to depression.
Identifying comorbid neuropathic pain guides the selection toward an SNRI like duloxetine, which treats both conditions.
2
Analyze the second patient's specific concerns regarding medication side effects.
The patient wants to avoid sexual dysfunction and weight gain.
This rules out most SSRIs and points toward bupropion, an NDRI with a favorable profile regarding sexual function and weight.
3
Analyze the third patient's specific depressive symptoms.
The patient suffers from severe insomnia and significant weight loss.
This points toward mirtazapine, which is known for its sedating and appetite-stimulating side effects.
4
Analyze the fourth patient's recent medical history.
The patient had a myocardial infarction two weeks ago.
This requires a cardiac-safe antidepressant. Sertraline is the SSRI of choice for patients with ischemic heart disease.

Key Concept

Selecting the most appropriate antidepressant based on side-effect profiles and patient comorbidities.
Question 50Question →

A 31-year-old woman comes to the clinic with her husband due to a 4-week history of profound sadness, frequent crying spells, and a feeling of being "completely overwhelmed." She delivered her first child 2 months ago via an uncomplicated vaginal delivery. She states that she sleeps heavily when the infant sleeps but still feels exhausted throughout the day. She has a poor appetite and expresses immense guilt over being a "terrible mother." She denies any thoughts of harming herself or the infant. Her medical history is unremarkable. Vital signs are normal. Laboratory testing shows a thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) level of 4.2μU/mL4.2 \mu U/mL (normal: 0.5−5.0μU/mL0.5-5.0 \mu U/mL) and a free T4 of 1.1ng/dL1.1 ng/dL (normal: 0.8−2.8ng/dL0.8-2.8 ng/dL). During the interview, her husband mentions that during her second trimester of pregnancy, she experienced a 3-week period where she "barely slept for days," rapidly renovated their entire house single-handedly, and spoke so quickly that he struggled to follow her train of thought. He had assumed this was a severe case of "pregnancy nesting." Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in pharmacological management?

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Answer: Initiate quetiapine

Answer

Initiate quetiapine
This patient is currently experiencing a major depressive episode. However, the collateral history from her husband regarding a 3-week period during her pregnancy characterized by a decreased need for sleep, increased goal-directed activity (renovating the house), and pressured speech is diagnostic of a past manic episode. Therefore, her correct diagnosis is Bipolar I Disorder, current episode depressed. First-line pharmacological treatments for bipolar depression include quetiapine, lurasidone, and cariprazine. Quetiapine is highly effective for bipolar depression and is also one of the preferred agents during the postpartum and lactation period due to its minimal excretion into breast milk.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the current psychiatric presentation.
The patient is currently experiencing a major depressive episode with postpartum onset, characterized by sadness, crying spells, guilt, and fatigue.
Establishing the current mood state is the first step in psychiatric evaluation.
2
Evaluate the patient's psychiatric history provided by the husband.
The history of a 3-week period of decreased need for sleep, increased goal-directed activity, and pressured speech meets the criteria for a manic episode.
Collateral history is essential to differentiate unipolar major depressive disorder from bipolar disorder.
3
Synthesize the findings to establish a definitive diagnosis.
A current major depressive episode combined with a past manic episode yields a diagnosis of Bipolar I Disorder, current episode depressed.
The presence of even one manic episode in a patient's lifetime precludes the diagnosis of Major Depressive Disorder.
4
Select the most appropriate evidence-based pharmacotherapy.
Quetiapine is selected as it is a first-line agent for bipolar depression.
Antidepressant monotherapy must be avoided in bipolar disorder to prevent mood destabilization, and quetiapine provides effective treatment while being acceptable during the postpartum/lactation period.

Key Concept

Patients presenting with depressive episodes must be carefully screened for a history of mania or hypomania to distinguish unipolar depression from bipolar depression; antidepressant monotherapy is contraindicated in bipolar disorder due to the risk of precipitating a manic switch.
Question 51Question →

For each of the following patient scenarios involving depressive symptoms or related disorders, select the most appropriate targeted pharmacotherapy or management step.

Click a left item, then click its matching right item

Items

An elderly male patient exhibits severe psychomotor retardation, active delusions of his internal organs rotting, and life-threatening dehydration due to a complete refusal to eat or drink.
A young adult female seeks help for severe low mood and anhedonia. A review of her psychiatric history confirms a distinct past period of inflated self-esteem, hypersexuality, and going days without sleep.
A middle-aged male with unipolar depression reports significant residual hypersomnia, cognitive sluggishness, and fatigue despite a partial mood response to eight weeks of maximum-dose sertraline.
A postmenopausal female patient is evaluated for low mood, anhedonia, and worthlessness. She also suffers from painful diabetic neuropathy and frequent episodes of stress urinary incontinence.

Matches

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Answer

Match the medically compromised patient with psychotic depression to urgent ECT; the patient with bipolar depression to lurasidone; the patient with residual fatigue on SSRIs to bupropion augmentation; and the patient with comorbid neuropathy and stress incontinence to duloxetine.
Each clinical presentation requires a highly specific targeted intervention based on comorbidities, symptom profile, and medical urgency. Psychotic depression with inanition requires immediate ECT. Bipolar depression requires an atypical antipsychotic approved for that phase (like lurasidone). Residual fatigue on an SSRI benefits from NDRI augmentation (bupropion). MDD with neuropathic pain and stress incontinence is optimally treated with a dual-acting SNRI like duloxetine.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Evaluate the elderly male patient with delusions and dehydration.
Diagnosis is Major Depressive Disorder with psychotic features and life-threatening inanition.
Electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) is the gold standard and most rapid treatment for severe depression complicated by psychosis and acute medical compromise, bypassing the delayed onset of pharmacotherapy.
2
Evaluate the young adult female with severe low mood and a past history of hypersexuality/decreased sleep.
Diagnosis is Bipolar I Disorder, currently in a depressive episode.
Standard antidepressant monotherapy (like SSRIs) is contraindicated. Lurasidone is an FDA-approved first-line agent specifically indicated for bipolar depression.
3
Evaluate the middle-aged male with residual fatigue and hypersomnia despite SSRI therapy.
The patient has a partial response to sertraline but suffers from residual amotivational and fatigue symptoms.
Bupropion, an activating NDRI, is the ideal augmentation strategy to target fatigue, poor concentration, and hypersomnia without causing weight gain or sexual dysfunction.
4
Evaluate the postmenopausal female with low mood, neuropathy, and stress incontinence.
Diagnosis is Major Depressive Disorder with comorbid diabetic peripheral neuropathy and stress urinary incontinence.
Duloxetine, an SNRI, treats the core depressive symptoms while also being formally indicated for neuropathic pain and demonstrating off-label efficacy in reducing stress urinary incontinence via increased urethral sphincter tone.

Key Concept

Selecting the most appropriate pharmacological or procedural intervention for complex depressive disorders based on comorbidities, prior treatment response, and acute medical urgency.
Question 52Question →

A 30-year-old man presents to the clinic reporting a 4-week history of persistent sadness, sleeping 12 hours a day, and lacking energy to do his usual activities. He mentions having a history of a distinct 10-day period during his college years when he felt "on top of the world," had racing thoughts, and stayed awake for days working on multiple projects without feeling tired. His only current medication is lisinopril for mild hypertension. A thyroid panel performed last week showed a TSH of 2.1 µU/mL (normal: 0.5-5.0 µU/mL) and a normal free T4. The physician is evaluating pharmacological treatment options. Which of the following statements regarding the management of this patient is most accurate?

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Answer: Prescribing escitalopram monotherapy carries a high risk of precipitating a manic episode.

Answer

Prescribing escitalopram monotherapy carries a high risk of precipitating a manic episode.
The patient is currently experiencing a major depressive episode but has a definitive history of a manic episode (a 10-day period of feeling 'on top of the world', racing thoughts, and decreased need for sleep). This history establishes a diagnosis of Bipolar I Disorder. When treating bipolar depression, antidepressant monotherapy (such as escitalopram) is strongly contraindicated because it carries a high risk of precipitating a manic or hypomanic switch. The standard of care involves using a mood stabilizer or an atypical antipsychotic approved for bipolar depression.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Evaluate the current symptom profile.
The patient has depressed mood, hypersomnia, and anergia lasting for 4 weeks.
Establishing the current syndrome (major depressive episode) is the first step in diagnosis.
2
Analyze the past psychiatric history.
The patient describes a 10-day period of elevated mood, racing thoughts, and decreased need for sleep.
This history clearly meets the diagnostic criteria for a manic episode, changing the primary diagnosis from Major Depressive Disorder to Bipolar I Disorder.
3
Determine the appropriate pharmacological approach and associated risks.
Antidepressant monotherapy is contraindicated.
In patients with underlying bipolar disorder, using an SSRI without a mood stabilizer carries a severe risk of inducing a manic switch.

Key Concept

Screening for a history of manic or hypomanic episodes is a critical step in evaluating any patient with depressive symptoms, as antidepressant monotherapy can precipitate mania in patients with underlying bipolar disorder.
Estimated Time:1m 0s
Question 53Question →

A 34-year-old architect is brought to the emergency department by his spouse due to increasingly erratic behavior. For the past week, he has slept only two hours per night, stating he feels "more energized than ever." He has maxed out multiple credit cards purchasing expensive aviation parts to build a "revolutionary flying vehicle" in his garage. On examination, he paces around the room continuously, and his speech is so rapid and pressured that it is difficult to interrupt. His spouse reports that three weeks ago, the patient visited his primary care provider for profound sadness, hypersomnia, and anhedonia that had persisted for a month. At that visit, he was diagnosed with a psychiatric condition and started on a new daily medication. Which of the following actions by the primary care provider prior to initiating this medication would most likely have prevented the patient's current presentation?

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Answer: Obtaining a detailed history regarding past episodes of decreased need for sleep and increased goal-directed activity

Answer

Obtaining a detailed history regarding past episodes of decreased need for sleep and increased goal-directed activity
The patient is experiencing an acute manic episode, characterized by a decreased need for sleep, rapid and pressured speech, grandiosity (building a "revolutionary flying vehicle"), and excessive involvement in activities with high potential for painful consequences (maxing out credit cards). This episode was highly likely precipitated by the medication he received three weeks ago for his depressive symptoms—most probably an antidepressant. When a patient presents with a major depressive episode, it is critical to differentiate unipolar major depressive disorder from bipolar depression. Antidepressant monotherapy in a patient with bipolar disorder carries a significant risk of inducing a manic switch. Therefore, the primary care provider should have screened the patient for a history of hypomanic or manic episodes (e.g., periods of decreased need for sleep, increased goal-directed activity, racing thoughts) prior to prescribing the antidepressant.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the patient's current clinical presentation.
The patient exhibits a decreased need for sleep, grandiosity, increased goal-directed activity, and pressured speech for one week, which meets the criteria for a manic episode.
Identifying the current syndrome is necessary to understand the adverse outcome of the prior treatment.
2
Connect the current manic episode to the recent medical history.
The manic episode began shortly after the initiation of a new medication for a major depressive episode, strongly suggesting an antidepressant-induced manic switch.
Establishing the etiology of the mania points directly to the management error made during the previous clinic visit.
3
Determine the appropriate preventative clinical action for patients presenting with depression.
Before prescribing antidepressant monotherapy, clinicians must screen for a history of mania or hypomania to rule out bipolar disorder.
Antidepressants can precipitate mania in patients with unrecognized bipolar disorder; identifying this diathesis prevents the inappropriate use of antidepressant monotherapy.

Key Concept

All patients presenting with a major depressive episode must be carefully screened for a past history of manic or hypomanic episodes prior to initiating antidepressant therapy to prevent an antidepressant-induced manic switch.
Question 54Question →

A 42-year-old accountant is evaluated for a two-month history of pervasive sad mood, anhedonia, and poor concentration. He is seeking treatment for the first time. Arrange the following clinical steps in the standard chronological order they should be considered, starting with the initial evaluation and progressing through the escalation of care for increasingly treatment-resistant depression.

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Answer

The correct chronological sequence is: 1) Screen for a prior history of manic or hypomanic episodes, 2) Initiate monotherapy with a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor, 3) Augment the regimen with a second-generation antipsychotic, 4) Refer for electroconvulsive therapy.
The standard approach to a new depressive episode requires first ruling out bipolar disorder by screening for past mania or hypomania. Once unipolar depression is established, a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor is the preferred first-line treatment. If the patient has a partial response despite an adequate trial and dose optimization, augmentation with an agent like a second-generation antipsychotic is indicated. Electroconvulsive therapy is generally reserved for severe, highly treatment-resistant depression that has not responded to multiple pharmacological interventions.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Perform initial safety and diagnostic screening
Screen for a prior history of manic or hypomanic episodes
Administering an antidepressant without ruling out bipolar disorder can precipitate mania.
2
Select first-line therapy for unipolar depression
Initiate monotherapy with a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor
SSRIs have a favorable side effect profile and are the standard initial treatment for major depressive disorder.
3
Manage partial response to monotherapy
Augment the regimen with a second-generation antipsychotic
When dose optimization of an initial agent yields incomplete remission, adding an augmenting agent is appropriate.
4
Address severe, refractory depression
Refer for electroconvulsive therapy
ECT is highly efficacious and is utilized after multiple medication trials fail.

Key Concept

The stepped-care management of major depressive disorder begins with ruling out bipolar disorder, followed by initial SSRI monotherapy, subsequent augmentation for partial responders, and eventually ECT for severe, refractory cases.
Question 55Question →

A 42-year-old executive is diagnosed with severe Major Depressive Disorder (MDD) without psychotic features. Despite excellent medication adherence, the patient's symptoms prove progressively difficult to treat over several months. Arrange the following steps in the standard evidence-based sequence for the management and escalation of care for MDD, from initial presentation through to the management of severe treatment-resistant depression.

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Answer

The correct sequence begins with initiating a first-line monotherapy, followed by optimizing its dose and duration. If there is no response, switching to another monotherapy is indicated. If the new agent yields only a partial response, augmentation is utilized. Finally, ECT is reserved for refractory, treatment-resistant cases.
The pharmacological management of MDD follows a stepped-care approach to balance efficacy and tolerability. Treatment begins with an initial monotherapy (e.g., an SSRI) which must be optimized in dose and duration (4 to 8 weeks) before definitively assessing response. If there is a complete lack of response, switching to another first-line agent is preferred. If a subsequent trial yields a partial response, augmentation is indicated to push the patient toward full remission. Neuromodulation, such as ECT, is utilized for severe, treatment-resistant depression when multiple trials of optimized and augmented pharmacotherapy fail.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the standard first-line treatment for uncomplicated MDD.
Initiation of a first-line agent such as an SSRI.
First-line agents are preferred due to their favorable side-effect profiles and safety.
2
Determine the requirements for an adequate medication trial.
Titration to the maximum tolerated dose for 4-8 weeks.
Antidepressants require time to exert their full clinical effect; premature discontinuation leads to false treatment resistance.
3
Select the appropriate strategy for initial non-response.
Switch to a different monotherapy.
When a patient shows minimal or no response to an initial optimized trial, switching agents is generally preferred over augmentation.
4
Select the appropriate strategy for a subsequent partial response.
Augmentation with an atypical antipsychotic or lithium.
If a patient has a partial response, adding an adjunctive agent can push the patient toward full remission without losing the partial gains achieved.
5
Identify the treatment of last resort for non-psychotic, treatment-resistant depression.
Electroconvulsive therapy (ECT).
ECT is indicated when multiple trials of pharmacotherapy, including augmentation strategies, have failed.

Key Concept

Stepped-care management and escalation algorithm for Major Depressive Disorder
Question 56Question →

A 72-year-old woman is brought to the emergency department by her son due to worsening confusion and refusal to eat or drink. For the past two months, she has experienced profound sadness, early morning awakenings, and a 9-kg (20-lb) weight loss. One week ago, her primary care physician diagnosed her with depression and started her on sertraline 50 mg daily. The son is unsure if the physician took a detailed psychiatric history. Over the last 3 days, the patient has stopped eating and drinking entirely, stating repeatedly, "My intestines are rotting away because of my sins." Her temperature is 37.1°C (98.8°F), blood pressure is 90/60 mm Hg, heart rate is 112/min, and respiratory rate is 16/min. Physical examination shows remarkably dry mucous membranes and decreased skin turgor.

Laboratory TestResult
Blood urea nitrogen45 mg/dL
Creatinine1.9 mg/dL
Thyroid-stimulating hormone2.1 µU/mL
Free thyroxine1.2 ng/dL

After initiating intravenous fluid resuscitation, which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?

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Answer: Refer for electroconvulsive therapy

Answer

The correct answer is referring the patient for electroconvulsive therapy (ECT).
The correct answer is referring the patient for electroconvulsive therapy (ECT). This patient is experiencing a major depressive episode with psychotic features (evidenced by somatic delusions that her intestines are rotting). Furthermore, she has developed life-threatening inanition (complete refusal to eat or drink) leading to severe dehydration and acute kidney injury, as indicated by her hypotension, tachycardia, and elevated blood urea nitrogen and creatinine. While the standard pharmacological treatment for psychotic depression is an antidepressant combined with an antipsychotic, ECT is the first-line, definitive treatment when rapid clinical response is necessary to save the patient's life (e.g., severe suicidality, severe malnutrition, or severe dehydration).

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the primary psychiatric diagnosis based on the timeline and symptoms.
Major depressive disorder with psychotic features.
The patient has a 2-month history of depressive symptoms followed by the recent onset of somatic delusions ("intestines are rotting away").
2
Assess the severity and immediate risks to the patient's health.
Life-threatening inanition and severe dehydration.
The patient has refused food and water for 3 days, leading to hypotension, tachycardia, and acute kidney injury (elevated BUN and creatinine).
3
Determine the most appropriate definitive psychiatric intervention.
Electroconvulsive therapy (ECT).
ECT is the treatment of choice for severe depression when a rapid response is required due to life-threatening conditions like inanition or high suicide risk.

Key Concept

Management of major depressive disorder with psychotic features and life-threatening inanition
Estimated Time:1m 30s
Question 57Question →

Match each clinical presentation to the most appropriate depressive disorder subtype or related diagnosis.

Click a left item, then click its matching right item

Items

A 35-year-old man describes a two-year history of chronically low mood, fatigue, and poor self-esteem, stating 'I have just always been a sad person.'
A 24-year-old woman with a two-month history of severe depression reports sleeping 14 hours a day, significant weight gain, and a heavy, weighted feeling in her limbs.
A 50-year-old man with severe anhedonia, early morning awakening, and a 15-lb weight loss over one month also reports hearing voices telling him he is 'rotten inside.'
A 29-year-old woman reports profound sadness, irritability, and breast tenderness that begin a week prior to her menses and resolve completely a few days after onset.

Matches

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Answer

The correct matches align classic clinical features with their corresponding specific depressive disorder subtypes.
Each clinical vignette provides classic, textbook symptoms that uniquely define a specific depressive disorder or specifier. Matching them correctly requires knowledge of the DSM-5 criteria for Persistent Depressive Disorder (duration > 2 years), MDD with atypical features (hypersomnia, hyperphagia, leaden paralysis), MDD with psychotic features (delusions/hallucinations during a depressive episode), and Premenstrual Dysphoric Disorder (luteal phase symptom onset).

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the chronological duration and severity of the first presentation.
Two years of chronic, mild-to-moderate low mood without prolonged symptom-free periods.
This timeline differentiates Persistent Depressive Disorder from episodic Major Depressive Disorder.
2
Evaluate the specific vegetative symptoms in the second presentation.
Increased sleep, increased appetite/weight, and leaden paralysis are identified.
These reverse vegetative symptoms define the 'atypical features' specifier for MDD.
3
Identify the presence of perceptual disturbances in the third presentation.
Auditory hallucinations accompanying severe depression are noted.
Hallucinations occurring in the context of a major depressive episode establish the 'psychotic features' specifier.
4
Examine the temporal relationship of symptoms in the fourth presentation.
Symptoms are exclusively present in the late luteal phase and resolve with menses.
This cyclical pattern is the diagnostic core of Premenstrual Dysphoric Disorder.

Key Concept

Clinical differentiation of depressive disorder subtypes based on duration, specifiers, and temporal patterns.
Estimated Time:1m 0s
Question 58Question →

A 42-year-old woman presents to the oncology clinic for a routine follow-up. She was diagnosed with estrogen receptor-positive breast cancer 8 months ago, underwent a lumpectomy and radiation therapy, and is currently taking tamoxifen. When asked about her general well-being, she reports an 8-week history of profound fatigue, sleeping up to 14 hours a day, increased appetite with a 4-kg (8.8-lb) weight gain, and a heavy, "leaden" feeling in her arms and legs that makes it difficult to get out of bed. Her functional impairment is significant, and she recently took a leave of absence from her job. A review of her psychiatric history reveals a similar depressive episode at age 22. Further questioning reveals that at age 24, she experienced a 5-day period where she felt "euphoric and invincible," required only 3 hours of sleep per night, and rapidly outlined a 300-page screenplay. This period resolved spontaneously without hospitalization. Last week, her primary care physician diagnosed her with depression and prescribed paroxetine, but the patient discontinued it after 2 days due to mild nausea. She currently takes no medications other than tamoxifen. Vital signs and physical examination are unremarkable. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the pharmacological management of this patient's psychiatric symptoms?

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Answer: Initiate lurasidone

Answer

Initiate lurasidone
This patient meets the criteria for Bipolar II disorder (current episode depressed with atypical features) based on her history of a major depressive episode and a distinct 5-day period of hypomania (euphoria, decreased need for sleep, increased goal-directed activity lasting ≥\geq 4 days without requiring hospitalization). Standard antidepressant monotherapy is generally contraindicated in bipolar depression due to the risk of precipitating a manic or hypomanic switch. First-line treatments for bipolar depression include lurasidone, quetiapine, cariprazine, and the olanzapine-fluoxetine combination. Furthermore, this patient is taking tamoxifen for breast cancer. Tamoxifen is a prodrug that requires activation by the cytochrome P450 2D6 (CYP2D6) enzyme to its active metabolite, endoxifen. Lurasidone does not significantly inhibit CYP2D6 and is an FDA-approved, effective monotherapy for bipolar depression, making it the safest and most appropriate choice.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Diagnose the psychiatric condition based on the timeline and clinical features.
The patient has Bipolar II disorder, currently in a major depressive episode with atypical features.
She has a history of a major depressive episode and a distinct 5-day period of elevated mood, decreased need for sleep, and increased goal-directed activity (hypomania requires ≥4 days without hospitalization/psychosis). Her current episode features hypersomnia, hyperphagia, and leaden paralysis (atypical features).
2
Determine the appropriate class of psychiatric medications.
Standard antidepressant monotherapy (SSRIs, SNRIs, bupropion) is contraindicated due to the risk of precipitating a hypomanic/manic switch.
First-line treatments for bipolar depression include lurasidone, quetiapine, cariprazine, and olanzapine-fluoxetine combination.
3
Analyze the pharmacological constraints presented by the patient's medical history.
The patient is taking tamoxifen, a prodrug that requires activation by the CYP2D6 enzyme into its active metabolite, endoxifen.
Strong CYP2D6 inhibitors (such as paroxetine, fluoxetine, and bupropion) must be strictly avoided to prevent breast cancer recurrence.
4
Select the optimal agent that fulfills both psychiatric and pharmacological requirements.
Lurasidone is selected as it treats bipolar depression effectively without significantly inhibiting CYP2D6.
It addresses the mood episode safely without compromising the patient's oncologic treatment.

Key Concept

Management of Bipolar II depression in patients taking tamoxifen requires avoiding antidepressant monotherapy (due to manic switch risk) and avoiding strong CYP2D6 inhibitors (due to negation of tamoxifen efficacy).
Question 59Question →

A 65-year-old man comes to the clinic accompanied by his husband. He has a history of early-stage colon cancer that was surgically resected 6 months6 \text{ months} ago. For the past two months, the patient has experienced pervasive sadness, a 6 kg6 \text{ kg} (13.2 lb13.2 \text{ lb}) weight loss, severe insomnia, and a complete lack of energy. He has also developed the conviction that his cancer is a direct punishment for his past mistakes. He states, "I just need an antidepressant to get my life back." His only current medication is lisinopril for hypertension. Laboratory studies reveal a low free thyroxine (T4) level and a normal thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) level of 1.2 mIU/L1.2 \text{ mIU/L}. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the evaluation and management of this patient?

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Answer: Screen the patient for a lifetime history of abnormally elevated mood and decreased need for sleep

Answer

Screen the patient for a lifetime history of abnormally elevated mood and decreased need for sleep
The correct answer is to screen the patient for a lifetime history of abnormally elevated mood and decreased need for sleep. This patient presents with a major depressive episode (MDE) characterized by severe melancholic and mood-congruent psychotic features (delusions of punishment). Before initiating any antidepressant therapy for an MDE, it is mandatory to screen for a history of manic or hypomanic episodes. Identifying a past manic episode changes the diagnosis from Major Depressive Disorder (unipolar depression) to Bipolar I Disorder. Prescribing antidepressant monotherapy to a patient with bipolar disorder carries a significant risk of inducing a manic switch. Therefore, careful history-taking regarding periods of elevated energy, impulsivity, and decreased need for sleep is the most critical next step.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the patient's clinical presentation.
The patient meets the criteria for a major depressive episode (depressed mood, weight loss, insomnia, anergia, excessive guilt) that has lasted for 2 months.
Establishing the current syndromic diagnosis is the first step in psychiatric evaluation.
2
Evaluate the medical workup provided in the stem.
The patient has laboratory findings consistent with euthyroid sick syndrome or secondary hypothyroidism (low T4, normal TSH), but primary hypothyroidism is explicitly ruled out.
Medical causes of depression must be considered, but his severe vegetative and mood-congruent psychotic symptoms point to a primary psychiatric etiology requiring specific psychiatric management.
3
Determine the necessary prerequisite before treating a major depressive episode.
A history of mania or hypomania must be ruled out through direct screening.
Antidepressant monotherapy can precipitate a manic switch in patients with underlying bipolar disorder. Therefore, screening for elevated mood and decreased sleep is mandatory before prescribing any antidepressant.

Key Concept

All patients presenting with a major depressive episode must be carefully screened for a lifetime history of manic or hypomanic episodes to rule out bipolar disorder prior to initiating antidepressant monotherapy.
Estimated Time:1m 30s
Question 60Question →

A 61-year-old man, currently in remission from colon cancer, is evaluated in the oncology survivorship clinic for a 2-month history of pervasive low mood, anhedonia, severe fatigue, and feelings of worthlessness. He is not currently taking any psychiatric medications and has no prior psychiatric history. Based on standard psychiatric guidelines for the stepped-care management of Major Depressive Disorder (MDD), arrange the following clinical steps in the most appropriate chronological sequence, assuming the patient exhibits inadequate responses to initial treatments and eventually develops life-threatening clinical features.

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Answer

The correct sequence begins with screening for medical causes and bipolar disorder, followed by initiating an SSRI, titrating the dose for a partial response, augmenting the regimen for non-response, and ultimately referring for ECT if life-threatening inanition develops.
The standard stepped-care algorithm for Major Depressive Disorder begins with ruling out medical mimics (e.g., hypothyroidism) and screening for bipolar disorder. Once unipolar MDD is confirmed, first-line treatment is typically an SSRI with a 4-to-6-week follow-up. If a partial response occurs, dose optimization is the appropriate next step before abandoning the drug. If treatment resistance persists after a maximized dose, augmentation with an agent like an atypical antipsychotic or bupropion is indicated. Finally, ECT is reserved for refractory cases or emergent, life-threatening complications such as inanition (food/fluid refusal), severe suicidality, or catatonia.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Determine the necessary initial psychiatric and medical evaluation steps for a new onset depressive episode.
Identify the need to evaluate thyroid function and screen for bipolar disorder (prior hypomania/mania).
Medical mimics must be ruled out, and unrecognized bipolar disorder can be worsened by antidepressant monotherapy.
2
Select the appropriate initial pharmacotherapy for unipolar Major Depressive Disorder.
Identify the initiation of an SSRI (e.g., sertraline) and schedule follow-up in 4 to 6 weeks.
SSRIs are first-line treatments, and an adequate time frame is required to assess the initial clinical response.
3
Determine the next management step for a partial response to an initial antidepressant trial.
Identify dose titration to the maximum tolerated level.
Dose optimization is indicated before switching or augmenting when a patient shows partial improvement on a tolerated agent.
4
Select the appropriate intervention for treatment resistance following a maximized monotherapy trial.
Identify augmentation with an adjunctive agent, such as aripiprazole.
Augmentation is recommended when a patient fails to remit despite an optimized dose of first-line monotherapy.
5
Determine the definitive treatment for severe MDD complicated by life-threatening features.
Identify urgent electroconvulsive therapy (ECT).
ECT is the most rapid and effective intervention for severe depression complicated by inanition (food/fluid refusal) or catatonia.

Key Concept

Stepped-care management of Major Depressive Disorder (MDD)
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