Tüm alıştırma soruları

4581 soru

Soru 1341Soru

Arrange the following major political events and dynastic milestones of ancient India in correct chronological sequence from the earliest to the latest:

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Cevap

The correct chronological sequence from earliest to latest is: Accession of Bimbisara to the throne of Magadha (c. 544 BCE), followed by Establishment of the Mauryan Empire by Chandragupta Maurya (c. 321 BCE), followed by Accession of Kanishka I and commencement of the Shaka Era (c. 78 CE), and lastly Accession of Chandragupta I and commencement of the Gupta Era (319–320 CE).
The historical events follow a clear chronological progression across ancient Indian history: Bimbisara's reign in Magadha (c. 544 BCE) represents the early Sixth-Century BCE Mahajanapada state formation; Chandragupta Maurya's foundation of the Mauryan Dynasty (c. 321 BCE) occurred in the Fourth Century BCE; Kanishka I's accession and the Shaka Era epoch (c. 78 CE) belongs to the post-Mauryan First Century CE; and Chandragupta I's institution of the Gupta Era (319–320 CE) occurred in the Fourth Century CE.

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1
Identify the approximate historical date for the rise of Magadhan supremacy under Bimbisara.
Bimbisara of the Haryanka dynasty began his reign circa 544 BCE during the Mahajanapada era, making it the earliest event listed.
Establishes the starting point in the 6th century BCE.
2
Determine the date for the overthrow of the Nanda Dynasty and the rise of the Mauryan Empire.
Chandragupta Maurya founded the Mauryan Empire in circa 321 BCE following the collapse of Alexander the Great's satrapies in northwestern India.
Places the Mauryan establishment in the late 4th century BCE.
3
Pinpoint the era mark of the Kushan empire under Kanishka I.
Kanishka I ascended to power in circa 78 CE, which traditionally marks the epoch of the Shaka Era.
Places the Kushan milestone in the 1st century CE.
4
Ascertain the beginning of the Imperial Gupta rule under Chandragupta I.
Chandragupta I's coronation and the commencement of the Gupta Era took place in 319–320 CE.
Confirms the Gupta consolidation in the early 4th century CE as the latest milestone in this sequence.

Anahtar Kavram

Chronological timeline of ancient Indian political entities, dynastic eras, and imperial consolidations from the Mahajanapada period to the Imperial Gupta age.
Soru 1342Soru

Match the major mineral mining deposits in List-I with their corresponding primary mineral resource in List-II, based on the spatial distribution of mineral resources in India:

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Öğeler

Degana (Nagaur, Rajasthan)
Ambadungar (Chhota Udepur, Gujarat)
Hutti (Raichur, Karnataka)
Chavara (Kollam, Kerala)

Eşleşmeler

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Cevap

Degana matches with Tungsten (Wolframite); Ambadungar matches with Fluorite and Rare Earth Minerals; Hutti matches with Primary Lode Gold; and Chavara matches with Heavy Mineral Placer Sands.
The pairing correctly aligns each distinct geological region with its predominant mineral resource: Degana is known for tungsten (wolframite), Ambadungar for carbonatite-hosted fluorite and rare earth elements, Hutti for primary lode gold within Dharwar greenstone schists, and Chavara for coastal placer deposits of heavy mineral sands containing ilmenite and monazite.

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1
Identify the primary mineral mined at Degana in Nagaur, Rajasthan.
Degana is historically and geologically known as India's main tungsten (wolframite) deposit site.
Tungsten mineralization occurs in quartz veins intrusive into the Delhi Supergroup rocks at Degana.
2
Determine the resource associated with Ambadungar in Gujarat.
Ambadungar hosts carbonatite-alkaline complexes containing world-class fluorite deposits alongside rare earth minerals.
Fluorspar mining by GMDC at Ambadungar is a key industrial non-metallic mineral activity in the region.
3
Locate the primary economic activity of Hutti in Karnataka.
Hutti is an operational center for underground primary gold mining operated by Hutti Gold Mines Limited.
It is located in the Archaean schist belts of the Dharwar Craton.
4
Analyze the coastal deposit characteristics at Chavara in Kerala.
Chavara beach sands are rich in heavy minerals including ilmenite, rutile, zircon, sillimanite, and monazite.
Wave action and coastal currents concentrate high-density placer minerals derived from the Western Ghats crystalline rocks.

Anahtar Kavram

Spatial Distribution of Strategic, Metallic, Non-metallic, and Heavy Mineral Placer Resources in India
Tahmini Süre:2m 0s
Soru 1343Soru

In the higher reaches of the Nilgiri, Palani, and Anaimalai hills of South India, temperate evergreen forests are locally known as 'Shola' forests. Which of the following natural vegetation categories do these unique forest patches belong to?

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Cevap: Montane Wet Temperate Forests

Cevap

Montane Wet Temperate Forests
Montane Wet Temperate Forests in the Nilgiris, Anaimalai, and Palani hills are characteristically known as Shola forests. These consist of stunted evergreen trees with thick undergrowth, surrounded by grasslands in high-elevation peninsular plateaus.

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1
Identify the geographical region and altitude
The Nilgiri, Palani, and Anaimalai hills represent high-altitude peninsular montane ecosystems above 1,500 meters.
Vegetation types in Indian mountains vary systematically with elevation and local climate.
2
Correlate local forest terminology with official vegetation classification
The stunted, evergreen temperate forest patches found in sheltered valleys of these southern high hills are classified under Montane Wet Temperate Forests and locally termed 'Sholas'.
Montane wet temperate forests develop under high humidity, low temperatures, and distinct highland topography in South India.

Anahtar Kavram

Montane Wet Temperate Forests and Shola Vegetation in Peninsular India
Soru 1344Soru

Consider the following geographical features of a major river system in Peninsular India:

1. It originates from the Western Ghats near Mahabaleshwar at an elevation of about 1,337 m1,337\text{ m}.
2. Its major right-bank tributaries include the Koyna, Ghataprabha, Malaprabha, and Tungabhadra.
3. The drainage basin is shared across the states of Maharashtra, Karnataka, Telangana, and Andhra Pradesh.

Which of the following river systems matches all the characteristics described above?

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Cevap: Krishna River system

Cevap

Krishna River system
The description accurately defines the Krishna River system. The Krishna rises in the Western Ghats at Mahabaleshwar, has right-bank tributaries including the Koyna, Ghataprabha, Malaprabha, and Tungabhadra, and drains parts of Maharashtra, Karnataka, Telangana, and Andhra Pradesh.

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1
Analyze the origin point
The river originates at Mahabaleshwar in the Western Ghats of Maharashtra.
The Krishna River is the second largest east-flowing Peninsular river and begins near Mahabaleshwar at an altitude of approximately 1,337 m1,337\text{ m}.
2
Identify the right-bank tributary composition
Koyna, Ghataprabha, Malaprabha, and Tungabhadra are confirmed right-bank tributaries of the Krishna River.
These tributaries flow from the south and west into the main Krishna stream, forming a major portion of its right-bank discharge.
3
Verify inter-state basin distribution
The drainage basin spans Maharashtra, Karnataka, Telangana, and Andhra Pradesh.
The total catchment area of the Krishna basin (around 258,948 km2258,948\text{ km}^2) is distributed across these four southern and central Indian states.

Anahtar Kavram

Physical Geography of Peninsular River Basins (Krishna System)
Tahmini Süre:1m 30s
Soru 1345Soru

Match the major rivers of India listed in List I with their corresponding multipurpose dams/projects listed in List II.

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Öğeler

Mahanadi River
Bhagirathi River
Sutlej River
Krishna River

Eşleşmeler

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Cevap

Mahanadi River matches with Hirakud Dam; Bhagirathi River matches with Tehri Dam; Sutlej River matches with Bhakra Nangal Dam; Krishna River matches with Nagarjuna Sagar Dam.
Mahanadi River pairs with Hirakud Dam, Bhagirathi River pairs with Tehri Dam, Sutlej River pairs with Bhakra Nangal Dam, and Krishna River pairs with Nagarjuna Sagar Dam based on their geographic locations and river basin developments.

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1
Identify the major water resource project on the Mahanadi River.
Mahanadi River pairs with Hirakud Dam.
Hirakud Dam is situated in Odisha on the Mahanadi River.
2
Identify the river associated with Tehri Dam.
Bhagirathi River pairs with Tehri Dam.
Tehri Dam is located on the Bhagirathi River in Tehri Garhwal, Uttarakhand.
3
Identify the major dam project on the Sutlej River.
Sutlej River pairs with Bhakra Nangal Dam.
Bhakra Nangal Dam is built on the Sutlej River in northern India.
4
Identify the multipurpose project on the Krishna River.
Krishna River pairs with Nagarjuna Sagar Dam.
Nagarjuna Sagar Dam spans across the Krishna River between Andhra Pradesh and Telangana.

Anahtar Kavram

Major Rivers and Multipurpose River Projects of India
Soru 1346Soru

Match the Constitutional Provisions listed in List-I with their corresponding Legal Classifications given in List-II:

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Öğeler

Protection of life and personal liberty (Article 21)
Separation of judiciary from executive (Article 50)
To abide by the Constitution and respect its ideals (Article 51A)

Eşleşmeler

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Cevap

Protection of life and personal liberty (Article 21) matches with Fundamental Right (Part III); Separation of judiciary from executive (Article 50) matches with Directive Principle of State Policy (Part IV); To abide by the Constitution and respect its ideals (Article 51A) matches with Fundamental Duty (Part IVA).
Each constitutional provision aligns directly with its respective part: Article 21 is a Fundamental Right in Part III, Article 50 is a Directive Principle in Part IV, and Article 51A is a Fundamental Duty in Part IVA.

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1
Classify Article 21 in List-I.
Article 21 is guaranteed under Part III of the Constitution of India as a Fundamental Right.
Articles 12 to 35 in Part III cover basic human freedoms enforceable by courts.
2
Classify Article 50 in List-I.
Article 50 is a Directive Principle of State Policy under Part IV.
Articles 36 to 51 contain non-justiciable constitutional directives to guide state policy.
3
Classify Article 51A in List-I.
Article 51A belongs to Part IVA as a Fundamental Duty.
Part IVA was added by the 42nd Amendment Act in 1976 to prescribe duties of citizens.

Anahtar Kavram

Classification of Constitutional Provisions across Part III, Part IV, and Part IVA
Soru 1347Soru

Consider the following statements regarding the land classification and administrative machinery during the Gupta period:

1. In Gupta epigraphic records, *Kshetra* denoted land under active cultivation, while *Aprahata* referred to uncultivated virgin or forest land.
2. The tenure system known as *Nivi-dharma* referred to a perpetual land grant where the donee had the right to enjoy the revenue yields without the right to alienate the principal land.
3. The imperial official designated as *Sandhivigrahika* was primarily responsible for land measurement, survey, and agricultural tax collection.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

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Cevap: 1 and 2 only

Cevap

Statements 1 and 2 are correct, while statement 3 is incorrect.
In the Gupta Empire, land was systematically classified in inscriptions: *Kshetra* referred to land under cultivation, while *Aprahata* referred to uncultivated virgin forest land. Land tenure under *Nivi-dharma* granted perpetual rights to enjoy income without alienation of the property. The officer *Sandhivigrahika* served as the minister of peace and war (foreign affairs) rather than a land revenue administrator, making statements 1 and 2 the only correct statements.

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1
Analyze Statement 1 regarding Gupta agrarian land classification terms.
Gupta inscriptions (e.g., Pahadpur and Damodarpur copper plates) classify land into distinct categories: *Kshetra* (cultivable land), *Khila* (wasteland), *Aprahata* (forest or virgin land), *Vasti* (habitable land), and *Gapata-sarah* (pasture land). Thus, Statement 1 is correct.
Accurate identification of ancient epigraphic agricultural terminology.
2
Analyze Statement 2 regarding land tenure systems in the Gupta era.
*Nivi-dharma* (or *Akshaya-nivi-dharma*) was a dominant system of land tenure where land was granted in perpetuity. The recipient (donee) was permitted to collect and enjoy the interest or produce from the land, but had no legal right to sell, mortgage, or alienate the property itself. Thus, Statement 2 is correct.
Understanding legal and revenue characteristics of land grants.
3
Analyze Statement 3 regarding the portfolio of the official Sandhivigrahika.
*Sandhivigrahika* (Minister for Peace and War / Foreign Affairs) was an executive portfolio created under the Gupta administration (first prominent holder being Harisena under Samudragupta, as recorded on the Allahabad Pillar). Land assessment and revenue administration were handled by officers such as *Dhruvadhikarana* (revenue collector) or *Pustapala* (record keeper). Thus, Statement 3 is incorrect.
Distinguishing diplomatic titles from revenue administration officers.

Anahtar Kavram

Gupta Administrative Machinery, Epigraphy, and Agrarian Land Tenure Systems
Soru 1348Soru

Who among the following Gupta rulers earned the title 'Kaviraja' due to his patronage of art and his personal proficiency in playing the Veena?

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Cevap: Samudragupta

Cevap

Samudragupta
Samudragupta, one of the most prominent rulers of the Gupta Dynasty, was a great patron of learning, art, and music. In the Allahabad Pillar inscription (Prayag Prashasti), composed by his court poet Harishena, he is described as 'Kaviraja' (King of Poets). Furthermore, gold coins from his reign depict him seated on a couch playing the Veena, confirming his personal musical accomplishments.

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1
Identify the historical context of royal titles and coinage in the Gupta Empire.
The ruler depicted on gold coins playing the lute (Veena) and praised in the Prayag Prashasti (Allahabad Pillar inscription) composed by Harishena is Samudragupta.
Harishena explicitly mentions Samudragupta's poetic title 'Kaviraja' due to his mastery over music and Sanskrit literature.

Anahtar Kavram

Gupta Empire Cultural Patronage and Royal Titles
Soru 1349Soru

Consider the following statements regarding planetary pressure belt shifts, global climate zones, and oceanographic interactions:

1. Mediterranean climate regions (Köppen Csa/Csb) experience their primary rainfall during winter because the Subtropical High-Pressure belt shifts equatorward during the high-sun (summer) season, allowing onshore Westerlies to dominate.
2. The coastal hyper-aridity of the Atacama and Namib deserts is driven by the dynamic interaction of stable, subsiding air from subtropical anticyclones and cold ocean currents offshore.
3. In Köppen's climate classification system, the boundary between B-type (Dry) climates and humid climates relies on a temperature-precipitation threshold that incorporates seasonal distribution of rainfall, rather than a fixed annual precipitation figure.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

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Cevap: 2 and 3 only

Cevap

Statements 2 and 3 are correct.
The correct answer identifies that only statements 2 and 3 are accurate. Coastal deserts like the Atacama and Namib are formed by subtropical atmospheric subsidence intensified by cold offshore currents (Peru and Benguela currents). Furthermore, Köppen's classification defines dry climate boundaries using potential evapotranspiration formulas that consider seasonal precipitation timing alongside temperature. Statement 1 incorrectly attributes Mediterranean winter rain to an equatorward shift of high pressure during summer; in reality, high pressure dominates during summer while the equatorward shift of rain-bearing Westerlies occurs in winter.

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1
Analyze Statement 1 regarding Mediterranean climate mechanisms.
Statement 1 is incorrect. During summer (high-sun season), the Subtropical High-Pressure belt shifts poleward (northward in the Northern Hemisphere), bringing stable, dry descending air. In winter, the belt retreats equatorward, allowing rainy mid-latitude Westerlies to shift over these regions.
Seasonal migration of global pressure belts follows the apparent movement of the sun.
2
Analyze Statement 2 regarding coastal desert formation.
Statement 2 is correct. The Atacama (Peru Current) and Namib (Benguela Current) deserts maintain hyper-arid climates due to upper-level air subsidence in subtropical high-pressure cells combined with cool sea-surface temperatures that inhibit vertical atmospheric convection.
Cold ocean currents chill lower air layers creating strong thermal inversions that prevent precipitation.
3
Analyze Statement 3 regarding Köppen's Group B climate criteria.
Statement 3 is correct. Wladimir Köppen established that effectiveness of precipitation depends on potential evapotranspiration. Thus, dryness thresholds use formulas linking mean annual temperature and the percentage of rainfall falling in summer vs winter.
Summer rain evaporates more quickly than winter rain, requiring higher total rainfall to avoid a dry climate designation.

Anahtar Kavram

Atmospheric Pressure Belt Migration & Köppen Climate Classification
Soru 1350Soru

Consider the following statements regarding the early local Satyagrahas led by Mahatma Gandhi in 1918:

1. The Ahmedabad Mill Strike marked the first instance where Mahatma Gandhi undertook a hunger strike as a political technique during the freedom struggle in India.
2. In the Kheda Satyagraha, Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel played a major role alongside Gandhi in organizing peasants to withhold revenue payment due to crop failure.
3. During the Ahmedabad Mill Strike, Gandhi advised the workers to demand a 35% wage increase after analyzing the mill owners' profits and economic conditions.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

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Cevap: 1, 2 and 3

Cevap

All three statements (1, 2, and 3) are correct.
All three statements are correct. In March 1918, Mahatma Gandhi undertook his first hunger strike in India during the Ahmedabad Mill Strike, convincing workers to demand a 35% wage increase rather than an unviable higher percentage. Shortly after in 1918, Gandhi led the Kheda Satyagraha alongside Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel to support peasants affected by crop failure whose demands for land revenue suspension were rejected by British authorities.

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1
Evaluate Statement 1 regarding the Ahmedabad Mill Strike.
Statement 1 is correct. The Ahmedabad Mill Strike of March 1918 was the first time Mahatma Gandhi used a hunger strike as a weapon of Satyagraha in India to bolster the workers' resolve.
Gandhi went on a fast to pressure the mill owners and prevent workers from giving up their protest.
2
Evaluate Statement 2 regarding the Kheda Satyagraha.
Statement 2 is correct. Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel, along with Indulal Yagnik and others, became a devoted follower of Gandhi during the Kheda Satyagraha (1918), organizing peasants to demand revenue suspension after crop failures.
Kheda was Gandhi's first Non-Cooperation movement on a local scale, and Patel served as the primary field organizer.
3
Evaluate Statement 3 regarding the compromise wage demand.
Statement 3 is correct. While workers originally demanded a 50% plague bonus continuation, Gandhi mediated, conducted an inquiry into living costs, and advised workers to settle on a fair 35% wage hike demand.
The tribunal eventually awarded the full 35% wage increase requested by Gandhi.

Anahtar Kavram

Early Gandhian Local Satyagrahas (Ahmedabad Mill Strike and Kheda Satyagraha, 1918)
Tahmini Süre:1m 30s
Soru 1351Soru

With reference to the evolution of judicial and police administration under British colonial rule in India, consider the following statements:

1. The Cornwallis Code of 1793 strictly separated judicial administration from revenue collection, divesting the District Collector of magisterial and judicial powers.
2. Lord William Bentinck established the four Provincial Courts of Appeal and Circuit at Calcutta, Murshidabad, Dacca, and Patna to expedite rural criminal justice.
3. The police reform introduced by Lord Cornwallis organized districts into circles (thanas), each headed by a native officer known as a Daroga under the supervision of the District Magistrate.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

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Cevap: 1 and 3 only

Cevap

Statements 1 and 3 are correct. Under the Cornwallis Code of 1793, judicial functions were separated from revenue administration to prevent concentration of power in the hands of the Collector. Cornwallis also introduced the Daroga system for police administration. However, statement 2 is incorrect because the Provincial Courts of Appeal and Circuit were established by Lord Cornwallis in 1790/1793 and were later abolished by Lord William Bentinck in 1829.
Statements 1 and 3 are factually correct. The Cornwallis Code (1793) established the principle of separation of powers by separating judicial administration from revenue collection, leaving Collectors strictly with revenue duties. Additionally, Cornwallis organized the police system into circles (thanas) managed by Darogas under District Magistrates. Statement 2 is incorrect because Lord Cornwallis—not Lord William Bentinck—established the four Provincial Courts of Appeal and Circuit; Bentinck abolished these courts in 1829.

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1
Analyze Statement 1 regarding the separation of powers under the Cornwallis Code.
Statement 1 is correct. Cornwallis separated revenue collection from judicial duties. Diwani Adalats were headed by District Judges, taking judicial powers away from Revenue Collectors.
Cornwallis believed combining revenue collection and trial of revenue disputes in the Collector led to administrative corruption and tyranny.
2
Analyze Statement 2 regarding the Provincial Courts of Appeal and Circuit.
Statement 2 is incorrect. Lord Cornwallis established the four Provincial Courts of Appeal and Circuit (Calcutta, Murshidabad, Dacca, Patna). Lord William Bentinck abolished them in 1829 due to delays and inefficiency.
Bentinck transferred their functions to Divisional Commissioners of Revenue and Circuit and later to District Judges.
3
Analyze Statement 3 regarding the police administration reforms.
Statement 3 is correct. Cornwallis modernized police organization by dividing districts into thanas (around 20 miles each) headed by a Daroga, supervised by the Magistrate.
This replaced the traditional zamindari police responsibility with a state-controlled professional police establishment.

Anahtar Kavram

Administrative and Judicial Reforms under Cornwallis and Bentinck
Soru 1352Soru

With reference to the Ryotwari System of land revenue introduced during British colonial rule in India, consider the following statements:

1. The revenue settlement was made directly between the British government and the actual cultivators (ryots).
2. Land revenue demand was permanently fixed and could not be revised by the government in the future.
3. The revenue rates were determined after detailed survey and assessment of soil quality and field productivity.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

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Cevap: 1 and 3 only

Cevap

Statements 1 and 3 are correct.
The Ryotwari system was instituted directly with peasant cultivators (ryots), granting them proprietary rights subject to direct tax payments to the colonial state. Unlike the Permanent Settlement, revenue demands under Ryotwari were not fixed in perpetuity; instead, they were revised periodically (typically every 20 to 30 years) following detailed land measurements and assessments of soil productivity.

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1
Analyze Statement 1 regarding the contracting parties of the land settlement.
The Ryotwari system recognized the peasant (ryot) as the proprietor of the land, establishing a direct relationship with the state without intermediaries.
Devised by Alexander Read and Thomas Munro, this system aimed to eliminate zamindars and collect revenue directly from actual cultivators.
2
Analyze Statement 2 regarding the nature and duration of the revenue demand.
Revenue demand was temporary and subject to revision every 20 to 30 years.
Permanent fixing of revenue was exclusive to the Permanent Settlement of 1793 in Bengal, Bihar, and Odisha.
3
Analyze Statement 3 regarding the basis of land revenue assessment.
Assessment was carried out through systematic soil classification and measurement of plot yields.
Unlike earlier systems, revenue rates were derived from official field surveys and soil fertility evaluations.

Anahtar Kavram

Key features and mechanisms of the colonial Ryotwari Land Revenue System
Soru 1353Soru

With reference to the cultural and architectural developments during the Gupta Empire, consider the following statements:

1. The Dashavatara Temple at Deogarh is one of the earliest surviving Panchayatana-style stone temples in North India.
2. The iron pillar at Mehrauli, which displays remarkable resistance to corrosion, contains an inscription attributing it to the reign of Emperor Chandragupta II.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

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Cevap: Both 1 and 2

Cevap

Both 1 and 2 are correct.
Both statements are historically accurate. The Dashavatara Temple at Deogarh is a pioneer of the Panchayatana layout in classical Gupta temple architecture. Simultaneously, the rust-resistant Mehrauli Iron Pillar bears an inscription referencing King Chandra, who is identified with the Gupta monarch Chandragupta II.

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1
Evaluate Statement 1 regarding the Dashavatara Temple at Deogarh.
Statement 1 is correct. The 6th-century CE Dashavatara Temple at Deogarh (Uttar Pradesh) is dedicated to Lord Vishnu and is widely recognized as one of the earliest surviving stone temples built in the classic Panchayatana layout (a central shrine surrounded by four smaller corner shrines).
It represents a crucial stage in the evolution of North Indian Nagara temple architecture during the Gupta period.
2
Evaluate Statement 2 regarding the Mehrauli Iron Pillar inscription and patronage.
Statement 2 is correct. The iron pillar at Mehrauli (Delhi) features a six-line Sanskrit inscription in Brahmi script naming a ruler designated as 'Chandra', whom historical consensus identifies as Emperor Chandragupta II (Vikramaditya) of the Gupta dynasty.
The pillar demonstrates the high degree of metallurgical mastery achieved during the Gupta Era.
3
Combine evaluations to select the correct option.
Since both statement 1 and statement 2 are true, the option stating 'Both 1 and 2' is correct.
Both statements accurately reflect verified historical facts of the target period.

Anahtar Kavram

Art, Architecture, and Metallurgical Achievements of the Gupta Empire
Tahmini Süre:1m 0s
Soru 1354Soru

Consider the following statements regarding the organizational restructuring and key resolutions of the Indian National Congress (INC) during the Non-Cooperation Movement phase (1920–1922):

1. The Nagpur Session of December 1920 reduced the annual Congress membership fee to four annas to transform the organization into a mass-based political party.
2. The Ahmedabad Session of December 1921 appointed Mahatma Gandhi as the sole executive authority of the Congress with full powers to initiate mass civil disobedience.
3. The Special Session of the INC held at Calcutta in September 1920, which approved the non-cooperation program, was presided over by Motilal Nehru.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

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Cevap: 1 and 2 only

Cevap

Statements 1 and 2 are correct, while statement 3 is incorrect. The Nagpur Session of December 1920 democratized the INC structure by lowering the annual subscription fee to 4 annas (25 paise) and forming linguistic Provincial Congress Committees. The Ahmedabad Session of December 1921 appointed Mahatma Gandhi with sole authority to lead civil disobedience. However, the Calcutta Special Session in September 1920 was presided over by Lala Lajpat Rai, not Motilal Nehru.
The correct response identifies statements 1 and 2 as historically valid. At the Nagpur Session in December 1920, the Congress Constitution was altered under Gandhi's direction to democratize membership by reducing fees to 4 annas per year and forming a 15-member Congress Working Committee (CWC). The December 1921 Ahmedabad Session formally authorized Gandhi with executive command over the movement. Statement 3 is false because the September 1920 Calcutta Special Session was headed by Lala Lajpat Rai.

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1
Evaluate Statement 1 regarding the Nagpur Session (1920).
Statement 1 is correct.
At the Nagpur Session in December 1920 (presided over by C. Vijayaraghavachariar), the Congress Constitution was amended to reduce the annual fee to 4 annas and reorganize committees on a linguistic basis to broaden public participation.
2
Evaluate Statement 2 regarding the Ahmedabad Session (1921).
Statement 2 is correct.
In December 1921 at Ahmedabad (acting president Hakim Ajmal Khan), the Congress passed a resolution granting Mahatma Gandhi sole executive powers to lead the non-violent mass struggle.
3
Evaluate Statement 3 regarding the presidency of the Calcutta Special Session (September 1920).
Statement 3 is incorrect.
The Special Session held at Calcutta in September 1920 to consider Gandhi's proposal for Non-Cooperation was presided over by Lala Lajpat Rai. Motilal Nehru presided over the Amritsar Session in 1919 and the Calcutta Session in 1928.

Anahtar Kavram

INC Session Resolutions and Organizational Changes during the Non-Cooperation Movement
Tahmini Süre:1m 30s
Soru 1355Soru

Which political organization was established in London in 1866 by Dadabhai Naoroji to present Indian grievances before the British public and parliament?

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Cevap: East India Association

Cevap

The East India Association was established in London in 1866 by Dadabhai Naoroji.
The East India Association was organized by Dadabhai Naoroji in London in 1866. Its primary goal was to inform the British public and parliament about the true condition of India and to advocate for Indian welfare.

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1
Identify the founder, year, and venue of establishment given in the question stem.
The target organization was founded in London in 1866 by Dadabhai Naoroji.
Factual matching of pre-Congress political bodies narrows down the correct organization.
2
Evaluate the political organizations listed in the options.
Dadabhai Naoroji established the East India Association in London to raise awareness about Indian grievances in Great Britain.
This distinguishes it from domestic political bodies established in Bengal and Bombay Presidencies.

Anahtar Kavram

Pre-Congress political associations and early nationalist efforts in Britain
Soru 1356Soru

With reference to the hydrological characteristics and drainage network of the Krishna River system in Peninsular India, consider the following statements:

1. The Koyna, Bhima, and Musi rivers are all major left-bank tributaries joining the Krishna mainstem in its upper and middle reaches.
2. The Tungabhadra River, formed by the confluence of the Tunga and Bhadra streams in the Western Ghats, constitutes the largest right-bank tributary of the Krishna River.
3. The Ghataprabha and Malaprabha rivers originate in the Sahyadri range and join the Krishna River from its right bank.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

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Cevap: 2 and 3 only

Cevap

Statements 2 and 3 are correct. The Tungabhadra, Ghataprabha, and Malaprabha are right-bank tributaries of the Krishna River, while the Koyna is also a right-bank tributary (not left-bank). The Bhima and Musi are left-bank tributaries.
The choice specifying statements 2 and 3 only is correct. The Tungabhadra is the principal right-bank tributary formed by the confluence of the Tunga and Bhadra streams. Similarly, the Ghataprabha and Malaprabha originate in the Western Ghats and join the Krishna River from its right bank. Statement 1 is incorrect because the Koyna River is a right-bank tributary, whereas only Bhima, Musi, Munneru, and Dindi are left-bank tributaries.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze statement 1 regarding the bank orientation of Koyna, Bhima, and Musi rivers.
The Koyna River originates near Mahabaleshwar and flows southward before merging with the Krishna River at Karad from the right bank. The Bhima and Musi rivers join the Krishna from the left bank. Thus, statement 1 is incorrect.
Correct identification of left-bank vs. right-bank tributaries is necessary to evaluate statement 1.
2
Evaluate statement 2 concerning the origins and confluence of the Tungabhadra River.
The Tunga and Bhadra rivers originate in the Varaha Parvatha of the Western Ghats (Karnataka) and unite at Koodli to form the Tungabhadra River, which flows northeast to join the Krishna on its right bank near Alampur. Statement 2 is correct.
Verifies the geographic origin and tributary classification of the Tungabhadra.
3
Assess statement 3 regarding the Ghataprabha and Malaprabha tributaries.
Both the Ghataprabha and Malaprabha originate in the Western Ghats (Sahyadris) of Karnataka and flow eastwards to join the Krishna River from the right bank (at Almatti and Kudalasangama respectively). Statement 3 is correct.
Confirms the right-bank tributary status of Ghataprabha and Malaprabha.

Anahtar Kavram

Krishna River System Tributary Bank Classification
Tahmini Süre:2m 0s
Soru 1357Soru

Consider the following statements regarding the structural and organizational changes adopted by the Indian National Congress during its Nagpur Session in December 1920 under Mahatma Gandhi's leadership:

1. The official goal of the Congress was redefined as the attainment of Swaraj through peaceful and legitimate means.
2. A 15-member Congress Working Committee (CWC) was constituted for the first time to function as a permanent executive body directing day-to-day affairs.
3. Provincial Congress Committees were reorganized on a linguistic basis to facilitate mass participation.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

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Cevap: 1, 2 and 3

Cevap

1, 2 and 3
The correct answer includes all three statements. At the December 1920 Nagpur Session of the Indian National Congress, landmark constitutional revisions were adopted to convert Congress into a continuous mass mobilization machinery. These changes included redefining the party creed to attaining Swaraj by peaceful and legitimate means, instituting a 15-member Congress Working Committee (CWC) as the permanent executive, and reorganizing Provincial Congress Committees on a linguistic basis.

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1
Evaluate Statement 1 regarding the redrawn creed/goal of the Indian National Congress.
Statement 1 is correct because the Nagpur Session of December 1920 formally replaced the goal of achieving self-government by constitutional means within the British Empire with the goal of attaining Swaraj through peaceful and legitimate means.
This fundamental alteration signaled the formal transition of Congress into a non-violent revolutionary mass movement.
2
Evaluate Statement 2 regarding permanent executive party leadership.
Statement 2 is correct as a 15-member Congress Working Committee (CWC) was created to supervise party affairs throughout the year.
Prior to 1920, Congress operated primarily as a deliberative body gathering once a year during its annual session.
3
Evaluate Statement 3 regarding regional committee restructuring.
Statement 3 is correct because Provincial Congress Committees (PCCs) were reorganized along linguistic lines rather than British administrative unit boundaries.
Linguistic restructuring enabled Congress to conduct meetings in vernacular languages, thereby bringing rural and regional masses into the national movement.

Anahtar Kavram

Organizational Restructuring of the INC at the Nagpur Session (1920)
Soru 1358Soru

The ocean floor consists of distinct relief zones extending from the mainland coast into the deep ocean. Arrange the following major ocean floor relief features in sequence starting from the coast moving seaward toward the deep ocean basin. Which order represents the correct spatial sequence from land to deep ocean?

Öğeleri doğru sıraya koymak için sürükleyin

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Cevap

The correct seaward sequence of ocean floor relief features starting from the continental coastline is Continental Shelf, followed by Continental Slope, Continental Rise, and finally Abyssal Plain.
Moving seaward from the continental shoreline, the ocean floor transitions sequentially across the continental margin to the deep ocean floor: Continental Shelf (shallow coastal platform) → Continental Slope (steep incline) → Continental Rise (gentle sediment apron at the base of the slope) → Abyssal Plain (flat deep ocean floor).

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1
Identify the feature closest to the coast
The Continental Shelf is the submerged extension of the continent adjacent to the shoreline.
It forms the shallow margin of the ocean basin closest to land.
2
Identify the transition zone descending steeply into deep water
The Continental Slope forms the steep drop-off directly seaward of the shelf break.
It marks the boundary between the continental block and the deep ocean basin.
3
Identify the thick depositional zone at the bottom of the slope
The Continental Rise is located at the base of the continental slope.
Sediments transported down submarine canyons accumulate here before reaching the abyssal floor.
4
Identify the deep flat ocean basin floor
The Abyssal Plain forms the vast, flat region of the deep ocean floor.
It represents the abyssal oceanic crust zone far from the continental landmass.

Anahtar Kavram

Ocean Floor Topography and Continental Margins
Soru 1359Soru

Match the British colonial policies and land revenue systems in List-I with the corresponding Governor-General or British official responsible for their introduction in List-II.

Soldaki öğeye tıklayın, sonra eşleşen sağdaki öğeye tıklayın

Öğeler

Permanent Settlement of Bengal
Subsidiary Alliance System
Doctrine of Lapse
Ryotwari System in Madras

Eşleşmeler

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Cevap

The correct pairings are: Permanent Settlement of Bengal matches with Lord Cornwallis; Subsidiary Alliance System matches with Lord Wellesley; Doctrine of Lapse matches with Lord Dalhousie; and Ryotwari System in Madras matches with Thomas Munro.
Each British administrator is directly linked to their specific policy contribution: Lord Cornwallis established the Permanent Settlement (1793), Lord Wellesley devised the Subsidiary Alliance System (1798), Lord Dalhousie enforced the Doctrine of Lapse (1848), and Thomas Munro introduced the Ryotwari System (1820).

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Identify the key colonial policy or land revenue system on the left.
Connect each policy to its respective British Governor-General or Administrator.
Matching administrative and expansionist measures to their authors is a foundational requirement for State PSC General Studies assessments.

Anahtar Kavram

British Colonial Expansion, Economic Policies, and Administrative Systems
Soru 1360Soru

Match the major multipurpose water reservoir projects in List I with the corresponding rivers on which they are constructed in List II.

Soldaki öğeye tıklayın, sonra eşleşen sağdaki öğeye tıklayın

Öğeler

Ukai Dam
Salal Hydroelectric Project
Hirakud Dam
Nagarjuna Sagar Dam

Eşleşmeler

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Cevap

Ukai Dam matches with Tapti River; Salal Hydroelectric Project matches with Chenab River; Hirakud Dam matches with Mahanadi River; and Nagarjuna Sagar Dam matches with Krishna River.
Ukai Dam is located on the Tapti River, Salal Hydroelectric Project on the Chenab River, Hirakud Dam on the Mahanadi River, and Nagarjuna Sagar Dam on the Krishna River.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Identify the river associated with Ukai Dam.
Ukai Dam is built on the Tapti River in Gujarat.
It is the second largest reservoir in Gujarat constructed on the west-flowing Tapti River.
2
Identify the river associated with Salal Hydroelectric Project.
Salal Project is located on the Chenab River in Jammu & Kashmir.
It is one of the early major power projects constructed under the Indus Waters Treaty framework on the Chenab River.
3
Identify the river associated with Hirakud Dam.
Hirakud Dam is constructed across the Mahanadi River in Odisha.
It is one of the longest earthen dams in the world built across the Mahanadi River.
4
Identify the river associated with Nagarjuna Sagar Dam.
Nagarjuna Sagar Dam is built across the Krishna River.
It forms a critical irrigation and hydroelectric resource spanning Andhra Pradesh and Telangana along the Krishna River.

Anahtar Kavram

Multipurpose River Projects and Drainage System of India
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