A 54-year-old man presents to the clinic with a 6-month history of epigastric pain, early satiety, and occasional nausea. He has no history of nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug use. Vital signs are within normal limits. Physical examination reveals mild epigastric tenderness but is otherwise unremarkable. Laboratory studies show a hemoglobin of 11.2 g/dL and a mean corpuscular volume of 78 fL. An upper gastrointestinal endoscopy reveals thickened, erythematous gastric folds in the antrum without frank ulceration. Multiple forceps biopsies are obtained. The histopathology report describes a dense, monomorphic infiltrate of small-to-medium-sized atypical lymphocytes in the lamina propria. These cells are seen infiltrating and destroying the adjacent gastric mucosal glands, forming lymphoepithelial lesions.
Immunohistochemical analysis of the lymphocytic infiltrate reveals the following profile:
- CD20: Positive
- CD3: Negative
- CD5: Negative
- CD10: Negative
- Cyclin D1: Negative
A Warthin-Starry silver stain demonstrates sparse, curved bacilli along the surface epithelium.
Based on these histopathologic and immunohistochemical findings, which of the following is the most accurate diagnosis?
- Extranodal marginal zone lymphomaCevap
- BChronic active gastritis with reactive lymphoid hyperplasia
- CMantle cell lymphoma
- DFollicular lymphoma
- ESmall lymphocytic lymphoma