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Question 2061Question →

A practical nurse is caring for an adult client who weighs 143 lb143\text{ lb} and is prescribed cyclosporine oral solution. The prescribed dosage is 8 mg/kg/day8\text{ mg/kg/day} divided into two equal doses. The pharmacy dispenses cyclosporine oral solution 100 mg/mL100\text{ mg/mL}. How many mL should the nurse administer for one dose?

Record your answer using one decimal place. Do not include units in your answer.

Show answer & explanation

Answer: 2.6

Answer

The practical nurse should administer 2.6 mL per dose.
To determine the correct volume, the client's weight must first be converted to kilograms (143 lb÷2.2=65 kg143\text{ lb} \div 2.2 = 65\text{ kg}). The total daily dose is calculated by multiplying the weight by the prescribed rate (65 kg×8 mg/kg=520 mg/day65\text{ kg} \times 8\text{ mg/kg} = 520\text{ mg/day}). Because the medication is divided into two equal doses, the single dose is 260 mg260\text{ mg} (520 mg÷2520\text{ mg} \div 2). Finally, using the available concentration of 100 mg/mL100\text{ mg/mL}, the required volume is 2.6 mL2.6\text{ mL} (260 mg÷100 mg/mL260\text{ mg} \div 100\text{ mg/mL}).

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Convert pounds to kilograms.
143 lb÷2.2=65 kg143\text{ lb} \div 2.2 = 65\text{ kg}.
The prescribed dose is weight-based in kg, so the client's weight must first be converted.
2
Calculate the total daily dose.
65 kg×8 mg/kg=520 mg/day65\text{ kg} \times 8\text{ mg/kg} = 520\text{ mg/day}.
To find the total amount of medication required for a 24-hour period.
3
Determine the single dose amount.
520 mg÷2 doses=260 mg/dose520\text{ mg} \div 2\text{ doses} = 260\text{ mg/dose}.
The prescription states the daily dose is divided into two equal doses.
4
Calculate the liquid volume to administer.
(260 mg÷100 mg)×1 mL=2.6 mL260\text{ mg} \div 100\text{ mg}) \times 1\text{ mL} = 2.6\text{ mL}.
To determine how many mL provide the required single dose of 260 mg using the available concentration.

Key Concept

Weight-based dosage calculation and administration of divided doses.
Question 2062Question →

A practical nurse (PN) is caring for a client being treated for a pulmonary embolism. The client is receiving a continuous intravenous heparin infusion. The health care provider prescribes oral warfarin 5 mg5\text{ mg} daily to begin today. The client's morning laboratory results show an activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) of 115 seconds115\text{ seconds} (control: 30 seconds30\text{ seconds}) and an International Normalized Ratio (INR) of 1.11.1. The PN assesses the client and notes a blood pressure of 98/62 mm Hg98/62\text{ mm Hg} (baseline 136/84 mm Hg136/84\text{ mm Hg}) and a heart rate of 108 bpm108\text{ bpm} (baseline 74 bpm74\text{ bpm}).

Which of the following is the priority action for the practical nurse to take?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Notify the registered nurse immediately of the assessment findings and laboratory results, and remain with the client.

Answer

The correct action is to immediately notify the registered nurse of the assessment findings and laboratory results while remaining with the client.
The correct answer involves immediately notifying the registered nurse. The client's aPTT is critically elevated at 115 seconds (therapeutic range is generally 1.5 to 2.5 times the control of 30 seconds), indicating profound anticoagulation. Combined with the sudden drop in blood pressure and increase in heart rate, the client is exhibiting early signs of internal hemorrhage. Because managing a circulatory crisis and altering a continuous intravenous infusion of a high-alert medication are outside the practical nurse's scope of practice, the immediate priority is to escalate the situation to the RN while ensuring client safety.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the laboratory values to determine the client's coagulation status.
The aPTT of 115 seconds is critically elevated (therapeutic range is 45-75 seconds), indicating a severe risk for bleeding. The INR of 1.1 is expected because oral warfarin therapy is just being initiated.
Heparin therapy is monitored via aPTT, and warfarin therapy is monitored via INR. Recognizing toxic levels is essential for medication safety.
2
Evaluate the client's vital signs compared to their baseline.
The client has developed new-onset tachycardia (HR 108 bpm) and relative hypotension (BP 98/62 mm Hg).
In the context of a critically high aPTT, these borderline vital signs are early physiological indicators of active internal hemorrhage.
3
Determine the priority action within the practical nurse's scope of practice.
The PN must immediately escalate the findings to the registered nurse (RN).
The client is experiencing a circulatory emergency. Intervening on a continuous high-alert intravenous medication like heparin falls outside the PN scope of practice, making immediate RN notification the only safe priority action.

Key Concept

Pharmacological Therapies, Adverse Effects, and Scope of Practice
Estimated Time:1m 30s
Question 2063Question →

During evening rounds at a continuous care retirement community, a practical nurse observes that a 79-year-old resident is newly disoriented, highly agitated, and repeatedly attempting to climb over the bed rails. Which actions should the nurse take? (Select all that apply.)

Select all that apply

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Answer: Evaluate the resident for underlying sources of discomfort, such as a localized infection or hypoxia.; Place the resident's mattress closer to the floor or use specialized fall mats next to the bed.; Assign a staff member to provide one-to-one supervision until the resident's safety can be assured.

Answer

The correct actions are to evaluate the resident for underlying physiological issues, place the mattress closer to the floor with fall mats, and assign a staff member for direct supervision.
The correct interventions prioritize client safety using the least restrictive methods (such as lowering the bed, using fall mats, and providing a sitter) while actively assessing for an underlying physiological cause for the acute confusion, which is a hallmark of delirium in older adults.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the nature of the clinical change.
The client is experiencing a sudden onset of disorientation and agitation.
Recognizing that acute confusion is an atypical presentation of illness (delirium) rather than normal aging determines the clinical approach.
2
Select interventions that prioritize safety without the immediate use of restraints.
Lowering the bed, using fall mats, and utilizing a one-to-one sitter are chosen.
Nursing standards require attempting and documenting less restrictive alternatives before applying physical or chemical restraints.
3
Investigate the underlying cause of the behavioral change.
The nurse assesses for hypoxia, infection, or pain.
Treating the root physiological cause is the definitive treatment for acute delirium in older adults.

Key Concept

Prioritizing Restraint Alternatives and Recognizing Delirium
Question 2064Question →

A client who is 12 hours postoperative following a lumbar spinal fusion is resting supine in bed. The client suddenly reports severe nausea and begins to actively vomit. Which action should the practical nurse implement first?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Request assistance to immediately logroll the client into a lateral position while maintaining straight spinal alignment.

Answer

Request assistance to immediately logroll the client into a lateral position while maintaining straight spinal alignment.
The immediate priority for an actively vomiting client is securing the airway to prevent aspiration. Because the client has undergone a lumbar spinal fusion, the spine must remain perfectly straight to prevent surgical failure and nerve injury. Logrolling the client as a single unit onto their side with assistance effectively clears the airway while maintaining the mandatory spinal alignment.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the immediate physiological threat.
The client is actively vomiting while lying supine, creating a high risk for aspiration and airway obstruction (an Airway priority).
According to the ABCs (Airway, Breathing, Circulation), clearing the airway takes precedence over all other assessments and interventions.
2
Recognize the specific postoperative physical constraints.
The client has undergone a lumbar spinal fusion, which requires the spine to remain perfectly straight at all times.
Bending, twisting, or flexing the spine (such as sitting up) can disrupt the surgical hardware and cause severe nerve damage.
3
Synthesize the airway need with the positioning constraints to determine the safest action.
The nurse must logroll the client to the side using assistance.
Logrolling is the only basic care mobility technique that safely turns the client to clear emesis from the airway without bending the spinal column.

Key Concept

Postoperative Positioning and Airway Prioritization
Question 2065Question →

A practical nurse (PN) is reinforcing lifestyle modifications for a 42-year-old client with a sedentary occupation, obesity, and a recent diagnosis of essential hypertension. The client expresses frustration about changing their dietary habits and physical activity. Which of the following actions should the PN take? Select all that apply.

Select all that apply

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Answer: Collaborate with the client to identify realistic, incremental goals for daily step counts.; Reinforce the importance of establishing a consistent sleep schedule to help manage stress and blood pressure.

Answer

The correct actions are collaborating with the client to set realistic, incremental physical activity goals and reinforcing the importance of a consistent sleep schedule.
The correct actions focus on empowering the client through collaborative, incremental goal-setting (such as tracking daily steps) and addressing holisitic lifestyle factors (such as sleep hygiene). These approaches are within the practical nurse's scope of practice, promote adherence, and directly address the risk factors associated with obesity and hypertension in a therapeutic manner.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the client's situation.
The client has a sedentary job, obesity, and hypertension, and is expressing frustration about needing to make lifestyle changes.
Understanding the clinical and psychosocial context is essential for selecting appropriate nursing interventions.
2
Evaluate the PN's scope of practice.
The PN can reinforce education, collaborate on goal setting, and collect data, but cannot independently prescribe new medical or dietary therapies.
Ensures that the selected actions remain within legal and professional boundaries.
3
Assess communication and cultural considerations.
Therapeutic communication must be open and non-judgmental. Interventions must account for cultural and personal preferences to be effective.
Lifestyle changes are highly personal; ignoring culture or using non-therapeutic communication reduces client compliance.
4
Select the correct actions based on the analysis.
Setting incremental step goals and reinforcing sleep hygiene are appropriate, supportive, and within the PN scope of practice.
These actions directly address the client's condition safely and therapeutically.

Key Concept

Reinforcing Lifestyle Modifications and PN Scope of Practice
Estimated Time:1m 30s
Question 2066Question →

An adult client is receiving care on a medical unit shortly after undergoing a percutaneous liver biopsy. Upon entering the room, the practical nurse observes that the client is resting flat on their back and reporting mild soreness in the right upper abdomen. Which of the following positioning actions is the priority for the practical nurse to implement?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Assist the client to roll onto their right side and place a small towel under the biopsy site.

Answer

Assist the client to roll onto their right side and place a small towel under the biopsy site.
Following a percutaneous liver biopsy, the client is at significant risk for internal bleeding because the liver is a highly vascular organ. Assisting the client onto their right lateral decubitus position and placing a rolled towel directly under the puncture site applies localized pressure to the liver capsule against the chest wall. This mechanical pressure is critical for facilitating hemostasis and preventing hemorrhage, making it the highest priority action for basic care and comfort in this scenario.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the recent procedure and its most critical complication.
The client had a percutaneous liver biopsy, which carries a high risk of hemorrhage due to the liver's vascularity.
Understanding the primary risk determines the necessary nursing interventions.
2
Determine the anatomical location of the liver.
The liver is located in the right upper quadrant of the abdomen.
Knowing the location is essential to apply localized interventions.
3
Select the position that addresses the complication risk.
Applying direct pressure to the right side is required.
Direct pressure facilitates hemostasis (stopping blood flow) at the puncture site.
4
Evaluate the given options to find the correct positioning technique.
Rolling the client onto the right side with a towel underneath best applies the required pressure.
This specific position compresses the liver capsule against the chest wall, prioritizing circulatory safety over simple comfort.

Key Concept

Post-Procedure Positioning and Hemorrhage Prevention
Estimated Time:1m 15s
Question 2067Question →

A client with suspected acute cocaine toxicity is brought to the emergency department. The client is profoundly restless, diaphoretic, and reports severe, crushing chest pain. In what order should the practical nurse (PN) prioritize the following actions? Arrange the actions from first to last.

Drag items to arrange them in the correct order

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Answer

The correct sequence is to first verify airway patency, then attach cardiac monitoring, obtain complete vital signs, decrease environmental stimuli, and finally assist with administering the prescribed benzodiazepine.
In acute substance toxicity emergencies, care is prioritized using Maslow's hierarchy of needs and the ABCs (Airway, Breathing, Circulation). The nurse must first ensure an open airway and adequate breathing. Next, because cocaine toxicity severely compromises the cardiovascular system, continuous cardiac monitoring is established to detect life-threatening dysrhythmias. Following this, completing the primary data collection with full vital signs (including temperature to check for hyperthermia) is essential. Once physiological stability is assessed, the nurse implements environmental safety measures by decreasing stimuli to reduce agitation. Finally, the nurse assists the RN with pharmacological interventions, such as benzodiazepines, which are the treatment of choice for cocaine-induced agitation and cardiovascular toxicity.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Assess airway and breathing.
Ensures the client has adequate oxygenation.
Airway and breathing (ABCs) are the highest priority in any physiological emergency to sustain life.
2
Initiate cardiac monitoring.
Allows for immediate detection of lethal arrhythmias.
Cocaine causes severe vasoconstriction and tachycardia, making myocardial infarction or arrhythmias the most immediate life-threatening complications.
3
Obtain full vital signs.
Completes the primary data collection.
Vital signs, especially temperature, are critical to detect hyperthermia, a common complication of stimulant overdose.
4
Modify the environment.
Reduces external triggers.
A low-stimulus environment decreases sympathetic nervous system activation and cardiac workload.
5
Assist with medication preparation.
Prepares for pharmacological intervention.
Medications are administered only after immediate physiological assessments and safety measures are established.

Key Concept

Prioritization of Care in Substance Toxicity (ABCs and Nursing Process)
Question 2068Question →

A practical nurse (PN) is performing a 2-hour post-procedure assessment on a client who underwent a left-sided thoracentesis with 1,200 mL of pleural fluid removed. The client's medical history includes hypertension managed with daily metoprolol. The client reports a new, persistent dry cough but denies dyspnea. Current vital signs are: heart rate 86 bpm (baseline 64 bpm), blood pressure 104/66 mm Hg (baseline 142/86 mm Hg), and respiratory rate 18 breaths/min. Which action should the PN take first?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Notify the supervising registered nurse immediately regarding the vital sign trends and the onset of the cough.

Answer

The practical nurse must immediately notify the supervising registered nurse about the vital sign changes and the new cough.
The client is exhibiting early, subtle signs of a severe post-procedure complication, such as a pneumothorax or re-expansion pulmonary edema. The rapid removal of a large volume of pleural fluid (greater than 1,000 mL) significantly increases this risk. A new, persistent dry cough is a key early clinical indicator of these complications. Furthermore, the client's vital signs demonstrate a significant drop in blood pressure and a relative increase in heart rate. Because the client takes metoprolol (a beta-blocker), the heart rate will not elevate as dramatically as expected during hypovolemia or shock, making an increase from 64 to 86 bpm highly concerning. The practical nurse must recognize these borderline changes as signs of clinical deterioration and immediately escalate the situation to the registered nurse.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the client's baseline vital signs compared to current readings, noting the pharmacological effect of the client's medication.
The heart rate has increased by 22 bpm and the blood pressure has dropped significantly. Because the client takes metoprolol (a beta-blocker), the normal compensatory tachycardic response to fluid loss or shock is blunted.
Recognizing relative tachycardia in a beta-blocked patient is essential for identifying early hemodynamic instability.
2
Correlate the vital sign changes with the clinical presentation and the specific risks of the recent procedure.
The rapid removal of a large volume of pleural fluid (1,200 mL) combined with a new, persistent cough points to a developing complication such as a pneumothorax or re-expansion pulmonary edema.
A persistent dry cough is a hallmark warning sign of a severe pulmonary complication following a thoracentesis.
3
Determine the appropriate scope of practice and priority nursing action for the practical nurse.
The PN must recognize this as an unstable, potentially life-threatening situation that requires immediate escalation to the registered nurse for further assessment and intervention.
Independent interventions or assuming the findings are benign exceeds the LPN/LVN scope of practice and delays critical medical care.

Key Concept

Early Recognition of Post-Thoracentesis Complications
Question 2069Question →

A client is recovering in the surgical unit 3 days after a permanent colostomy placement. The client refuses to look at the stoma, turns their head away during pouch changes, and states, "Just do what you have to do so I can go to sleep." Which actions by the practical nurse (PN) are appropriate to support the client's coping? Select all that apply.

Select all that apply

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Provide a supportive, non-judgmental environment by actively listening if the client chooses to express their feelings.; Ensure the client's privacy by closing the door and drawing the curtains during ostomy care.; Introduce small, manageable aspects of care, such as having the client simply hold a clean pouch.

Answer

The appropriate actions are providing a supportive environment, ensuring privacy during care, and introducing small, manageable aspects of care.
The correct actions reflect therapeutic communication and appropriately paced nursing care. Providing a non-judgmental environment encourages the expression of feelings when the client feels ready. Ensuring privacy minimizes embarrassment and promotes dignity during a vulnerable time. Introducing small, manageable steps respects the client's current use of denial as a protective coping mechanism while gently moving them toward eventual adaptation and self-care.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the client's behavior and statements.
The client is demonstrating avoidance and denial regarding the body image change caused by the new colostomy.
Recognizing the current coping mechanism (denial) is essential for selecting appropriate, paced therapeutic interventions.
2
Evaluate the nursing actions for therapeutic value.
Listening actively, ensuring privacy, and introducing care in small steps support the client without forcing immediate confrontation with the stoma.
These actions promote dignity, build trust, and gently guide the client toward acceptance at a pace they can handle.
3
Identify and eliminate non-therapeutic actions.
Providing false reassurance, asking "why" questions, and enforcing rigid grief stages are identified as inappropriate.
These actions block communication, increase the client's anxiety, and fail to recognize the highly individual nature of coping with a body image change.

Key Concept

Coping Mechanisms and Therapeutic Communication
Question 2070Question →

A practical nurse is providing morning care for a client who is recovering from a right total hip arthroplasty performed one day ago. Which of the following basic care and comfort measures are appropriate for this client? (Select all that apply)

Select all that apply

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Use an abduction wedge or pillow between the client's legs while resting in bed.; Provide a raised toilet seat or an elevated bedside commode when assisting with bowel elimination.; Assist the client with washing their upper body while maintaining the legs in a neutral alignment.

Answer

The correct actions include using an abduction wedge between the legs, providing a raised toilet seat for elimination, and maintaining neutral leg alignment during hygiene.
Following a total hip arthroplasty, safe basic care requires maintaining the hip in abduction and avoiding flexion greater than 90 degrees. Interventions such as using an abduction wedge, providing an elevated toilet seat, and keeping legs in neutral alignment during bathing ensure proper hygiene and elimination while actively preventing joint dislocation.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the primary safety risks associated with a total hip arthroplasty.
The main risk during basic care is hip dislocation, which is prevented by avoiding leg adduction and severe hip flexion.
Understanding specific joint precautions is necessary to provide safe comfort care and hygiene.
2
Evaluate each basic care measure against the required hip precautions.
Using an abduction wedge, a raised toilet seat, and maintaining neutral alignment all comply with safety guidelines. Sitting at 90 degrees and turning on the operative side violate these guidelines.
Nursing actions must promote daily comfort and cleanliness without compromising the surgical repair.

Key Concept

Total Hip Arthroplasty Positioning and Comfort Care
Question 2071Question →

Upon entering a client's room to administer a prescribed oral analgesic, the practical nurse observes that the client is awake and watching television. Which action must the nurse take to correctly identify this client before giving the medication?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Ask the client to state their full name and date of birth while checking their identification band.

Answer

Ask the client to state their full name and date of birth while checking their identification band.
The correct answer involves actively asking the client to provide two distinct identifiers (such as full name and date of birth) and comparing this information against their physical identification band and the medication administration record. This active verification process is a fundamental safety standard in pharmacological therapies to prevent administering medications to the wrong client.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Review the basic rights of medication administration.
Identified that verifying the 'Right Client' is the mandatory first step before dispensing any medication.
Ensures the prescribed pharmacological therapy is given to the intended person.
2
Determine the medically acceptable methods for client identification.
Recognized that standard practice requires using two distinct, client-specific identifiers (e.g., full name, date of birth, or medical record number).
Using two distinct identifiers significantly reduces the risk of wrong-patient errors.
3
Evaluate the given options to find the safest, most active identification method.
Selected the option where the client actively states their name and birth date while the nurse cross-checks the identification band.
This method avoids the pitfalls of yes/no questions and relies on approved, permanent identifiers rather than physical locations.

Key Concept

Client Identification Principles in Pharmacological Therapies
Question 2072Question →

A client who is postmenopausal presents to the community clinic to discuss bone health strategies. The client states, "I know I need more calcium, but my religious beliefs prohibit consuming dairy and meat at the same time. To avoid making a mistake, I simply skip dairy altogether." Which response by the practical nurse is most appropriate?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Let us review some calcium-rich, non-dairy foods such as fortified cereals and dark leafy greens.

Answer

The practical nurse should respect the client's religious beliefs by offering acceptable alternatives, such as reviewing non-dairy foods that are high in calcium.
The correct response acknowledges and respects the client's religious dietary restrictions while providing practical, safe alternative lifestyle choices to maintain bone health. Reinforcing teaching about non-dairy sources of calcium falls appropriately within the practical nurse's scope of practice and promotes adherence to health goals without violating personal beliefs.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the primary barrier to the client's health promotion.
The client is avoiding calcium-rich dairy foods due to strict religious rules against mixing meat and dairy.
Understanding the specific barrier is essential to providing culturally sensitive lifestyle modifications.
2
Evaluate the response options for cultural competence and therapeutic communication.
Responses that disregard the religious restriction or use confrontational 'why' questions are eliminated.
Nurses must respect cultural beliefs and use therapeutic techniques to foster a trusting relationship.
3
Determine the appropriate action within the practical nurse's scope of practice.
Reinforcing teaching about alternative, non-dairy calcium sources is selected.
Creating a new, comprehensive nutritional care plan is outside the practical nursing scope, but reinforcing existing dietary knowledge is an appropriate nursing action.

Key Concept

Culturally Competent Health Promotion and Dietary Reinforcement
Estimated Time:1m 0s
Question 2073Question →

A practical nurse (PN) is preparing to administer morning medications to a client who is 2 days postoperative following a bowel resection. The client is receiving continuous intravenous (IV) fluids.

Current client data:

Assessment ParameterClient Result
Apical pulse54 beats/min
Blood pressure118/76 mm Hg
Respiratory rate16 breaths/min
Platelet count45,000/mm345,000/\text{mm}^3
Pain scale (0-10)6

Which of the following medication administration actions by the PN are appropriate? (Select all that apply.)

Select all that apply

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Withhold the scheduled oral metoprolol and notify the registered nurse (RN) regarding the client's heart rate.; Administer the scheduled oral docusate sodium after verifying the client's name and date of birth on the identification band.; Reinforce the registered nurse's previous education regarding the expected side effects of the prescribed analgesic therapies.

Answer

The appropriate actions are to withhold the metoprolol due to bradycardia, administer the docusate after checking two distinct identifiers, and reinforce previous medication education.
The correct actions align with the practical nurse scope of practice and safe medication administration principles. Withholding the beta-blocker is clinically necessary because the client is bradycardic. Verifying the client's name and date of birth on the identification band fulfills the strict requirement for two unique identifiers. Finally, reinforcing prior education provided by the RN is a fundamental responsibility of the practical nurse.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Evaluate the client's vital signs against the scheduled medications.
The apical pulse is 54 beats/min.
Beta-blockers like metoprolol decrease heart rate and are typically withheld if the pulse is less than 60 beats/min.
2
Evaluate the client's laboratory data against the scheduled medications.
The platelet count is critically low at 45,000/mm345,000/\text{mm}^3.
Anticoagulants (such as enoxaparin) are contraindicated with severe thrombocytopenia due to the extreme risk of hemorrhage.
3
Determine which medication administration tasks are within the practical nurse scope of practice.
Oral medication administration and teaching reinforcement are permitted, while IV push administration is generally not.
The PN must practice safely within legal and procedural boundaries, escalating advanced tasks like IV push to the RN.
4
Verify the correct procedure for client identification prior to administration.
Two distinct identifiers must be used (e.g., full name and date of birth).
Using only a first name risks administration errors; strict adherence to the rights of medication administration is required.

Key Concept

Safe medication administration, including evaluating clinical data, adhering to the scope of practice, and applying the rights of medication administration.
Estimated Time:2m 0s
Question 2074Question →

An older adult with a history of heart failure received a scheduled dose of an intravenous loop diuretic at 08000800. By 10001000, the urinary catheter drainage bag contains 850 mL850\text{ mL} of clear yellow urine. The latest laboratory report indicates a serum potassium level of 3.1 mEq/L3.1\text{ mEq/L} (3.1 mmol/L3.1\text{ mmol/L}). Current vital signs include a blood pressure of 102/58 mm Hg102/58\text{ mm Hg}, a heart rate of 110 beats per minute110\text{ beats per minute}, and respirations of 18 per minute18\text{ per minute}. Based on these findings, which action should the practical nurse take first?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Report the physiological parameters and laboratory results to the supervising registered nurse.

Answer

Report the physiological parameters and laboratory results to the supervising registered nurse.
The client is exhibiting massive diuresis (850 mL850\text{ mL} in two hours), critical hypokalemia (3.1 mEq/L3.1\text{ mEq/L}), and borderline vital signs (tachycardia) indicative of early hypovolemic shock. To reduce the risk of severe cardiac dysrhythmias or cardiovascular collapse, the practical nurse must immediately escalate these critical findings to the registered nurse so the provider can be notified and the care plan adjusted.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the client's clinical data and laboratory results.
Identified a critically low potassium level (3.1 mEq/L3.1\text{ mEq/L}) and signs of early hypovolemia (tachycardia, borderline hypotension, massive diuresis).
To evaluate the client's physiological response to the potent diuretic therapy.
2
Determine the risk potential and immediate clinical priorities.
Recognized that the client is at high risk for fatal cardiac dysrhythmias and hypovolemic shock.
Hypokalemia combined with rapid, excessive fluid depletion creates an unstable hemodynamic state.
3
Select the appropriate practical nursing intervention.
Escalate the critical findings to the registered nurse immediately.
Complex assessment, hemodynamic stabilization, and modification of the treatment plan fall outside the practical nurse scope of practice and require RN or provider intervention.

Key Concept

Reduction of Risk Potential: Complications of Diuretic Therapy
Question 2075Question →

A practical nurse is assisting with the monitoring of a client who recently underwent a bedside thoracentesis to remove pleural fluid. Which of the following post-procedure assessment findings require immediate escalation to the registered nurse? (Select all that apply)

Select all that apply

Show answer & explanation

Answer: The client exhibits asymmetrical chest wall expansion during inspiration.; The client's resting heart rate increases from 8282 to 124124 beats per minute with a blood pressure of 88/5688/56 mmHg.; The client reports sudden, severe chest pain accompanied by new-onset tachypnea.

Answer

The findings that require immediate escalation are asymmetrical chest wall expansion, a significantly increased heart rate combined with hypotension, and sudden severe chest pain with new-onset tachypnea.
Following a thoracentesis, there is a risk of severe complications such as pneumothorax, hemothorax, or shock. Asymmetrical chest wall expansion, sudden severe chest pain, and new-onset tachypnea are classic clinical indicators of a pneumothorax (air entering the pleural space). A significant increase in heart rate combined with hypotension indicates potential hypovolemia, hemorrhage, or tension pneumothorax. These findings represent immediate threats to the client's airway, breathing, or circulation and require immediate escalation to the registered nurse or healthcare provider to initiate emergency interventions.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the clinical scenario and the recent procedure.
The client recently underwent a bedside thoracentesis, which carries inherent risks such as pneumothorax, hemothorax, and fluid shifts.
Understanding the risks of the procedure guides the nurse in what complications to monitor for.
2
Evaluate each assessment finding against normal post-procedure parameters.
Identify which findings represent expected outcomes versus life-threatening emergencies.
Expected findings (normal labs, stable SpO2, mild local pain) require routine monitoring, whereas abnormal findings indicate severe complications.
3
Select the findings that mandate immediate escalation to the registered nurse.
Asymmetrical chest expansion, tachycardia with hypotension, and sudden severe chest pain with tachypnea are selected.
These findings directly indicate airway, breathing, or circulation compromise (such as a pneumothorax or shock) requiring urgent intervention.

Key Concept

Reduction of risk potential following invasive procedures involves recognizing early clinical indicators of life-threatening complications, such as a pneumothorax or hypovolemic shock, and escalating these findings immediately.
Estimated Time:1m 30s
Question 2076Question →

An older adult client is receiving care for a history of peptic ulcer disease. The client suddenly appears pale and anxious. The practical nurse measures the client's vital signs and notes a heart rate of 124 beats per minute and a blood pressure of 96/52 mm Hg. Which of the following actions is the priority for the nurse?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Notify the registered nurse immediately regarding the client's condition.

Answer

Notify the registered nurse immediately regarding the client's condition.
Tachycardia, hypotension, pallor, and anxiety are classic early signs of hypovolemic shock, which is a life-threatening complication of bleeding from a peptic ulcer. Within the practical nurse's scope of practice, the priority is to immediately notify the registered nurse or healthcare provider so that emergency fluid resuscitation and interventions can begin.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the client's clinical presentation.
The client is pale, anxious, tachycardic (124 bpm), and hypotensive (96/52 mm Hg) with a history of peptic ulcer disease.
Recognizing abnormal assessment findings is the first step in clinical decision-making.
2
Correlate the findings to potential complications.
These vital signs and symptoms strongly indicate active internal bleeding and early hypovolemic shock.
Understanding the pathophysiology of peptic ulcer disease helps identify life-threatening risks.
3
Determine the practical nurse's scope of practice for this situation.
The nurse must immediately escalate the situation to the registered nurse or healthcare provider.
Timely communication is required to initiate emergency interventions and reduce the risk of severe harm.

Key Concept

Early recognition and escalation of hypovolemic shock
Question 2077Question →

A practical nurse is providing care for a hospitalized client who observes traditional Orthodox Jewish practices and is scheduled for surgery the next morning. Which of the following actions by the practical nurse are appropriate? (Select all that apply.)

Select all that apply

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Answer: Accommodating the client's request to wear a yarmulke continuously, provided it does not compromise a sterile field or medical procedure.; Ensuring the client's meals are served on single-use, disposable plates with plastic utensils if a certified Kosher kitchen is unavailable.; Facilitating a quiet environment and providing uninterrupted time for the client to perform their daily prayers.

Answer

The appropriate actions are accommodating the yarmulke, using disposable plates and utensils for meals, and facilitating a quiet environment for daily prayers.
The correct actions reflect an integration of cultural sensitivity and spiritual support within the practical nurse's scope of practice. Kosher dietary laws mandate the strict separation of meat and dairy products; therefore, utilizing disposable plates and utensils prevents cross-contamination with non-Kosher food items in a standard hospital kitchen. Furthermore, accommodating the client's desire to wear a yarmulke and providing uninterrupted time for prayer are vital interventions for maintaining the client's psychosocial integrity and spiritual well-being during the stress of hospitalization.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the client's specific cultural and spiritual needs.
The client observes Orthodox Jewish practices, which commonly include wearing a yarmulke, adhering to a Kosher diet (no mixing of meat/dairy, specific food preparation), and daily prayer.
Understanding the core tenets of the client's faith guides individualized nursing interventions.
2
Evaluate the procedural and communication options against nursing standards.
Explaining surgical risks exceeds the practical nurse's scope of practice, and offering guarantees of safety constitutes non-therapeutic false reassurance.
Culturally competent care must still align with legal scopes of practice and therapeutic communication principles.
3
Evaluate the dietary and supportive options for cultural appropriateness.
Using disposable utensils prevents cross-contamination in non-Kosher kitchens, and allowing the yarmulke and prayer time supports spiritual health. Serving meat and dairy together is a violation of Kosher laws.
Nurses must actively prevent dietary violations and advocate for the patient's spiritual routines during hospitalization.

Key Concept

Culturally Competent Care: Orthodox Judaism
Question 2078Question →

A practical nurse and an unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) are preparing to reposition a client who is 24 hours postoperative following a right total hip arthroplasty (posterior approach). Arrange the following actions in the correct sequence to safely turn the client onto their left side.

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Answer

The correct sequence is to first control pain and adjust the bed, then place the abduction pillow, prepare the client and draw sheet, log-roll onto the unaffected side, and finally support the new position with additional pillows.
Safe repositioning post-total hip arthroplasty requires meticulous joint protection. Pain management and caregiver ergonomics are the priority foundational steps. Most critically, the abduction wedge must be placed between the legs before any movement occurs to ensure the hip remains abducted. Preparing the draw sheet and arms follows joint stabilization. The client is then log-rolled as a single unit onto the unaffected side to maintain pelvic alignment, and finally, supportive pillows are placed to sustain the position and prevent internal rotation.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Verify that the client's pain is adequately controlled and adjust the bed to a safe working height.
Ensures client comfort and caregiver safety.
Pain management ensures the client can tolerate movement, while proper ergonomics prevent injury to the nurse and UAP.
2
Place a foam abduction pillow or wedge securely between the client's legs.
Stabilizes the hip joint in a safe, abducted position.
Following a posterior approach total hip arthroplasty, adduction must be avoided. The pillow must be in place before turning to prevent dislocation during movement.
3
Instruct the client to cross their arms over their chest and gather the edges of the draw sheet.
Prepares the client's body and the friction-reducing device for the turn.
Crossing the arms keeps them out of the way, and gathering the draw sheet provides the caregivers with a firm grip to control the turn.
4
Log-roll the client as a single unit onto their left, unaffected side in one coordinated motion.
Moves the client without twisting the spine or pelvis.
Log-rolling keeps the body in alignment. Turning onto the left side avoids placing direct pressure on the newly operated right hip.
5
Tuck pillows behind the client's back and ensure the right leg remains abducted and supported.
Maintains the lateral position and ensures continued joint stability.
Back support prevents the client from rolling supine, and continuous support of the right leg prevents internal rotation and adduction.

Key Concept

Following a posterior total hip arthroplasty, the operative leg must be kept in abduction and neutral alignment to prevent dislocation, requiring an abduction pillow to be placed prior to log-rolling the client.
Question 2079Question →

A practical nurse is reinforcing teaching with a group of new parents about expected fine motor development during the first year of life. Arrange the following fine motor milestones in the chronological order in which they typically develop, from earliest to latest. All options must be used.

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Answer

The correct chronological order of fine motor development is: bringing hands to the midline, developing a palmar grasp, transferring objects between hands, and finally using a pincer grasp.
Fine motor development in infants progresses in a proximodistal pattern (from the center of the body outward to the extremities). Control of the arms develops before precise control of the fingers. Therefore, infants first learn to bring their hands to the midline (2 to 3 months). Next, they develop a voluntary palmar grasp using the whole hand (5 months). As bilateral coordination improves, they learn to transfer objects from one hand to the other (7 months). Finally, they develop the fine, precise pincer grasp using the thumb and index finger (9 to 10 months).

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the earliest fine motor skill in the list.
Bringing both hands to the midline typically occurs first, around 2 to 3 months of age.
Infants develop grosser proximal control of their arms before developing precise distal control of their fingers.
2
Determine the next milestone.
Grasping an object using the entire hand (palmar grasp) occurs next, around 5 months.
This shows the progression from basic arm control to basic hand control.
3
Identify the third milestone in the sequence.
Transferring an object from one hand to the other develops around 7 months.
This requires bilateral coordination and the ability to release an object voluntarily, which must logically follow the development of a basic palmar grasp.
4
Identify the final milestone.
Picking up a small object using the thumb and index finger (pincer grasp) occurs around 9 to 10 months.
The pincer grasp requires highly localized control of individual digits, representing the most advanced fine motor milestone in this sequence.

Key Concept

Fine Motor Development in Infancy
Estimated Time:1m 0s
Question 2080Question →

A practical nurse is preparing to administer a large-volume cleansing enema to an adult client who is experiencing constipation. Arrange the following actions in the correct sequence. (Place the first action at the top and the final action at the bottom.)

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Answer

The correct sequence is to first position the client, lubricate the tubing, insert the tubing into the rectum, elevate the enema bag to initiate flow, and finally, clamp the tubing if cramping occurs.
The proper sequence for administering an enema prioritizes anatomical alignment, safety, and client comfort. Placing the client in the left Sims' position uses gravity to aid fluid flow into the descending colon. Lubrication and proper insertion depth (3 to 4 inches) prevent tissue injury. Elevating the bag 12 to 18 inches ensures a controlled infusion rate. If cramping occurs, clamping the tubing is the correct immediate intervention to relieve spasms without aborting the care task.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Position the client appropriately.
Client is in the left Sims' position.
Aligns the anatomy for optimal fluid flow into the descending colon using gravity.
2
Prepare the equipment for insertion.
The enema tip is lubricated.
Prevents friction and mucosal trauma during insertion.
3
Insert the enema tubing.
Tubing is inserted 3 to 4 inches (7.5 to 10 cm).
Safely bypasses the anal sphincter to deliver fluid directly into the rectum and colon.
4
Initiate the fluid infusion.
The bag is elevated 12 to 18 inches (30 to 45 cm) above the anus.
Controls the rate of fluid flow and internal pressure to prevent rapid bowel distention.
5
Monitor client tolerance.
Tubing is clamped if cramping is reported.
Allows intestinal spasms to subside without needing to remove the tubing or abort the procedure entirely.

Key Concept

Basic Care and Comfort: Enema Administration Sequence and Safety
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