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Question 2061Question →

With reference to the Kol Uprising (1831–1832) against British colonial expansion and agrarian policies, which of the following statements are correct?

Select all that apply

Show answer & explanation

Answer: The rebellion erupted in the Chota Nagpur region primarily as a protest against the large-scale alienation of traditional tribal lands to non-tribal settlers and oppressive moneylenders.; Buddho Bhagat emerged as a prominent leader who organized and led the Kol insurgents against British military detachments and local landlords.

Answer

The correct statements are that the Kol Uprising erupted in the Chota Nagpur region over tribal land alienation, and that Buddho Bhagat served as a prominent leader of the movement.
The statements highlighting land alienation in Chota Nagpur and the leadership of Buddho Bhagat are historical facts. The Kol Uprising was an early 19th-century tribal movement triggered by British land revenue policies and the influx of non-tribal merchants, led courageously by Buddho Bhagat and other tribal chiefs.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the cause and geography of the Kol Uprising.
Confirm that the Kol Uprising (1831–1832) occurred in the Chota Nagpur region due to land transfers to non-tribals (Dikus) and revenue exploitation.
Establishing regional context and socio-economic causes confirms the accuracy of the statement regarding land alienation in Chota Nagpur.
2
Identify key leaders associated with the Kol resistance.
Confirm that Buddho Bhagat, along with Madara Mahato and Joa Bhagat, led the Kol tribal fighters against British authority.
Verifying leadership confirms the accuracy of the statement attributing prominent leadership to Buddho Bhagat.
3
Evaluate the administrative outcomes and act attributions.
Identify that the revolt led to Regulation XIII of 1833 (creating the South-West Frontier Agency), whereas the Chota Nagpur Tenancy Act was passed in 1908.
Distinguishing administrative acts prevents misattributing 20th-century tenancy legislation to 1830s tribal rebellions.
4
Verify chronological timelines of concurrent movements.
Observe that the Indigo Revolt occurred in 1859–1860, nearly 30 years after the Kol Uprising.
Timeline verification eliminates claims of direct collaboration between chronologically distinct peasant/tribal uprisings.

Key Concept

Kol Uprising (1831–1832) origins, key leadership under Buddho Bhagat, and administrative aftermath.
Estimated Time:1m 30s
Question 2062Question →

Consider the following statements regarding Black Soil (Regur Soil) in India:

1. It is rich in soil nutrients such as calcium carbonate, magnesium, potash, and lime, but generally poor in nitrogen and phosphorus contents.
2. Due to its high clay content, it develops deep cracks during dry summers, which aids in soil aeration through a process often called 'self-ploughing'.
3. It is predominantly formed by the alluvial deposition of the Ganga and Brahmaputra river systems in northern India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: 1 and 2 only

Answer

Statements 1 and 2 are correct. Black soil is rich in calcium carbonate, magnesium, potash, and lime, but deficient in nitrogen, phosphorus, and organic matter. High clay content causes it to swell when wet and shrink when dry, forming deep cracks that facilitate self-ploughing. However, it is formed by weathering of Deccan basaltic lava, not alluvial river deposits.
The combination indicating 1 and 2 only is correct because Black Soil contains calcium carbonate, potash, lime, and magnesium, and its clayey nature creates deep cracks upon drying ('self-ploughing'). Statement 3 is false because Black Soil originates from lava rocks of the Deccan Plateau, whereas northern plains consist of alluvial soil.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Evaluate Statement 1 regarding chemical composition of Black Soil.
Statement 1 is correct. Black soil (Regur) contains high amounts of lime, iron, magnesium, alumina, and potash, but lacks nitrogen, phosphorus, and humus.
Pedological studies of Deccan trap soils confirm this mineral signature.
2
Evaluate Statement 2 regarding physical characteristics and moisture retention.
Statement 2 is correct. High clay content gives black soil high moisture retention; drying causes reticulate cracking that aerates lower soil horizons ('self-ploughing').
Shrink-swell behavior of montmorillonite clay minerals causes this structural phenomenon.
3
Evaluate Statement 3 regarding geographic origin and distribution.
Statement 3 is incorrect. Black soils are residual soils derived from Deccan trap basalt rocks found across Maharashtra, Madhya Pradesh, Gujarat, and northern Karnataka, whereas alluvial soils dominate northern river plains.
Geological origin of regur soil is parent basaltic rock weathering, not river sediment deposition.

Key Concept

Black Soil (Regur) Physical Properties, Chemical Profile, and Geographical Distribution in India
Question 2063Question →

Match the global development indicators and reports in List-I with their respective publishing organizations in List-II.

Click a left item, then click its matching right item

Items

Human Development Index (HDI)
World Development Report
World Economic Outlook
Global Gender Gap Index

Matches

Show answer & explanation

Answer

Human Development Index (HDI) matches with United Nations Development Programme (UNDP); World Development Report matches with World Bank; World Economic Outlook matches with International Monetary Fund (IMF); Global Gender Gap Index matches with World Economic Forum (WEF).
Each development index or report is correctly mapped to its issuing international institution: Human Development Index to UNDP, World Development Report to the World Bank, World Economic Outlook to the IMF, and Global Gender Gap Index to the World Economic Forum.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the publisher for Human Development Index (HDI)
HDI is designed and published annually by the United Nations Development Programme (UNDP) in its Human Development Report.
UNDP measures composite achievements in health, education, and standard of living.
2
Identify the publisher for World Development Report
World Development Report is a flagship annual publication of the World Bank.
The World Bank analyzes specific aspects of economic development each year in this report.
3
Identify the publisher for World Economic Outlook
World Economic Outlook is published by the International Monetary Fund (IMF).
The IMF releases global economic projections and macroeconomic analyses in this report.
4
Identify the publisher for Global Gender Gap Index
Global Gender Gap Index is released by the World Economic Forum (WEF).
The WEF benchmarks national gender gaps on economic, political, education, and health criteria.

Key Concept

Publishing Bodies of Major Global Development Indicators and Reports
Estimated Time:45s
Question 2064Question →

Consider the following statements regarding Parliamentary Committees in India:

1. The Estimates Committee consists of 30 members, all of whom are elected solely from the Lok Sabha.
2. A Minister is eligible to be elected as a member of the Public Accounts Committee if nominated by the Speaker.
3. By convention, the Chairman of the Estimates Committee is invariably appointed from the main Opposition party.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: 1 only

Answer

The statement specifying that the Estimates Committee consists of 30 members elected solely from the Lok Sabha is the only correct statement.
The statement describing the Estimates Committee as having 30 members, all elected from the Lok Sabha, is accurate. Rajya Sabha members are not included in the Estimates Committee. Ministers are barred from all three financial committees, and the Chairman of the Estimates Committee is customarily chosen from the ruling party.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Examine Statement 1 regarding the membership structure of the Estimates Committee.
The Estimates Committee has 30 members, and all 30 are drawn exclusively from the Lok Sabha (Rajya Sabha has no representation). Statement 1 is correct.
To evaluate the house-wise composition of the parliamentary financial committee.
2
Examine Statement 2 regarding the eligibility of Ministers for parliamentary committee membership.
A Minister cannot be elected as a member of the Public Accounts Committee, Estimates Committee, or Committee on Public Undertakings. If a member is appointed as a Minister after election to the committee, they cease to be a member from the date of such appointment. Statement 2 is incorrect.
To assess the rule of separation between executive ministers and legislative scrutiny bodies.
3
Examine Statement 3 regarding the chairmanship convention of the Estimates Committee.
The Chairman of the Estimates Committee is appointed by the Speaker from amongst its members, and by convention, is invariably drawn from the ruling party. It is the Public Accounts Committee (PAC) whose Chairman has been appointed from the Opposition party by convention since 1967. Statement 3 is incorrect.
To distinguish between leadership conventions of different financial committees.

Key Concept

Composition, restrictions on minister membership, and chairmanship conventions of Parliamentary Financial Committees.
Question 2065Question →

Match the following types of unemployment with their corresponding economic descriptions:

Click a left item, then click its matching right item

Items

Disguised Unemployment
Frictional Unemployment
Seasonal Unemployment
Structural Unemployment

Matches

Show answer & explanation

Answer

Disguised Unemployment matches with the situation where more workers are engaged than required; Frictional Unemployment matches with temporary unemployment during job transitions; Seasonal Unemployment matches with unemployment occurring at specific times of the year; Structural Unemployment matches with unemployment resulting from skill mismatches.
Each type of unemployment directly aligns with its fundamental definition: Disguised unemployment occurs when marginal productivity of surplus labor is zero, frictional unemployment occurs during short-term job transitions, seasonal unemployment occurs due to periodic work cycles, and structural unemployment is caused by long-term skill gaps in the labor market.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Examine the left column containing types of unemployment.
Identified Disguised, Frictional, Seasonal, and Structural unemployment.
These represent standard classifications in Indian economic development and labor studies.
2
Match each term with its standard economic definition.
Disguised Unemployment corresponds to zero marginal productivity; Frictional Unemployment to job transitions; Seasonal Unemployment to periodic activity cycles; and Structural Unemployment to skill mismatches.
Correct alignment reflects accurate understanding of labor market terminology.

Key Concept

Classification of Unemployment Types in Indian Economy
Question 2066Question →

With reference to the Fundamental Duties under Part IV-A (Article 51A) of the Constitution of India, which of the following statements are correct?

Select all that apply

Show answer & explanation

Answer: They were incorporated into the Constitution of India upon the recommendation of the Swaran Singh Committee through the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976.; Fundamental Duties are non-justiciable in nature, meaning there is no direct provision in the Constitution for their judicial enforcement, although Parliament may enact laws to implement them.

Answer

The correct statements are that Fundamental Duties were incorporated via the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976 based on the Swaran Singh Committee recommendations, and that Fundamental Duties are non-justiciable but Parliament can enact legislation for their enforcement.
Fundamental Duties were added to the Indian Constitution under Article 51A (Part IV-A) by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976, following recommendations of the Swaran Singh Committee. Furthermore, Fundamental Duties are non-justiciable by themselves; however, Parliament is empowered to enforce them by enacting appropriate statutory laws.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Evaluate the historical origin and amendment details of Fundamental Duties in Part IV-A.
The Swaran Singh Committee (1976) recommended the inclusion of Fundamental Duties. The 42nd Amendment Act added 10 duties in Article 51A (Part IV-A). The committee suggested 8 duties, but Parliament added 10 and rejected certain recommendations (such as duty to pay taxes).
To verify the accuracy of statements regarding the Swaran Singh Committee recommendations and the 42nd Amendment Act.
2
Analyze the legal and constitutional enforceability of Fundamental Duties.
Fundamental Duties are non-justiciable (they carry no constitutional sanction for breach directly), but Parliament has the legislative competence to enforce them through specific statutes.
To establish judicial enforceability and the role of parliamentary legislation.
3
Examine writ jurisdiction under Article 226 regarding Fundamental Duties.
High Courts cannot issue writs to enforce Fundamental Duties directly against private persons unless a valid law enacted by Parliament/State Legislature has been infringed.
To determine the legal scope of judicial writs regarding duties.

Key Concept

Constitutional origin, committee recommendations, non-justiciable nature, and parliamentary enforcement mechanisms of Fundamental Duties (Article 51A).
Estimated Time:1m 30s
Question 2067Question →

Match the fiscal deficit indicators in List-I with their corresponding technical definitions in List-II.

Click a left item, then click its matching right item

Items

Fiscal Deficit
Revenue Deficit
Primary Deficit

Matches

Show answer & explanation

Answer

Fiscal Deficit matches with 'Excess of total government expenditure over total receipts excluding borrowings', Revenue Deficit matches with 'Excess of revenue expenditure over revenue receipts', and Primary Deficit matches with 'Fiscal deficit minus net interest payments'.
Each public finance deficit metric assesses a distinct dimension of budget health: Fiscal Deficit measures total net borrowing requirements, Revenue Deficit captures operational consumption shortfalls, and Primary Deficit shows net current fiscal expansion excluding past debt servicing costs.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Define Fiscal Deficit
Fiscal Deficit represents total net borrowings needed by the government (Total Expenditure−Total Receipts excluding borrowingsTotal\ Expenditure - Total\ Receipts\ excluding\ borrowings).
Borrowings are debt-creating receipts and must be excluded from receipts to measure total fiscal imbalance.
2
Define Revenue Deficit
Revenue Deficit represents operational deficit on the current account (Revenue Expenditure−Revenue ReceiptsRevenue\ Expenditure - Revenue\ Receipts).
It indicates that government regular earnings are insufficient to cover regular expenses.
3
Define Primary Deficit
Primary Deficit measures real current-year fiscal requirement (Fiscal Deficit−Interest PaymentsFiscal\ Deficit - Interest\ Payments).
Deducting interest payments reflects the degree to which current fiscal actions add to net borrowing needs.

Key Concept

Key Deficit Indicators in Public Finance
Question 2068Question →

With reference to the 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992, which of the following is a compulsory (mandatory) provision that state governments are constitutionally bound to implement in their Panchayati Raj legislation?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Providing mandatory reservation of not less than one-third of the total number of seats for women in Panchayats across all levels.

Answer

Providing mandatory reservation of not less than one-third of the total number of seats for women in Panchayats across all levels.
Under Article 243D(3) of Part IX of the Indian Constitution, reserving not less than one-third of the total seats for women (including seats reserved for SC/ST women) in every Panchayat is a compulsory requirement that every state must adopt.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the framework of the 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992.
The 73rd Amendment classifies its provisions into compulsory (mandatory for all states) and voluntary (at the discretion of state legislatures).
To identify which requirements states must legally enforce versus which ones are optional.
2
Evaluate the statutory nature of women's reservation under Article 243D.
Article 243D(3) mandates that not less than one-third of the total seats to be filled by direct election in every Panchayat shall be reserved for women.
This confirms that gender reservation is a binding constitutional mandate.
3
Distinguish voluntary provisions such as OBC reservations, MP/MLA representation, and taxation powers.
Articles 243D(6), 243C(3), and 243H empower state legislatures to make enabling laws, but do not make them constitutionally mandatory.
This rules out optional features that depend entirely on state-level legislation.

Key Concept

Compulsory vs Voluntary Provisions of 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act
Estimated Time:1m 0s
Question 2069Question →

With reference to the structure of the Union Budget in India, consider the following statements regarding government receipts:

1. Proceeds generated from the disinvestment of Central Public Sector Enterprises (CPSEs) are accounted for as Non-Tax Revenue Receipts.
2. Market borrowings and loans raised by the Union Government from the domestic public create a future debt liability and are classified as Capital Receipts.
3. Grants-in-aid received by the Government of India from foreign governments or international organizations are categorized as Capital Receipts because they originate from external sources.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: 2 only

Answer

Statement 2 only is correct.
The option stating '2 only' is correct. In Indian public finance budgeting, Capital Receipts are defined as those budget receipts that either create a liability (e.g., market borrowings, loans from RBI) or reduce financial/physical assets (e.g., recovery of loans, disinvestment proceeds). Market borrowings create a repayment obligation and are therefore Capital Receipts. Conversely, disinvestment reduces assets (Non-Debt Capital Receipt), and foreign grants-in-aid neither create liabilities nor decrease assets (Non-Tax Revenue Receipt).

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze Statement 1 regarding disinvestment proceeds.
Disinvestment proceeds involve the liquidation/sale of government equity in CPSEs, which leads to a reduction of financial assets. Receipts that reduce assets are classified as Non-Debt Capital Receipts, not Revenue Receipts.
By definition, Revenue Receipts neither create a liability nor reduce assets.
2
Analyze Statement 2 regarding market borrowings.
Market borrowings incur an obligation of future repayment of principal and interest, thus creating financial liabilities. Receipts that create liabilities are classified as Capital Receipts.
Any financial transaction that increases the financial debt/liability of the government forms part of Capital Receipts.
3
Analyze Statement 3 regarding foreign grants-in-aid.
Grants-in-aid received from external governments or international agencies do not need to be repaid (no liability created) and do not involve selling state assets. Therefore, they fall under Non-Tax Revenue Receipts.
Unilateral transfers/grants without repayment obligations are explicitly non-tax revenue components of the Revenue Budget.

Key Concept

Classification of Government Receipts (Capital vs Revenue Receipts)
Estimated Time:1m 30s
Question 2070Question →

Which of the following statements regarding the participation of women in the revolutionary nationalist movement in Bengal during the 1930s are correct?

Select all that apply

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Bina Das fired shots at the Governor of Bengal, Stanley Jackson, while receiving her degree at the Calcutta University convocation in 1932.; Pritilata Waddedar led an armed attack on the Pahartali European Club in Chittagong in 1932 and consumed cyanide to avoid colonial arrest.; Kalpana Datta worked with Surya Sen's Indian Republican Army in Chittagong and was sentenced to transportation for life following her arrest in 1933.

Answer

The correct statements are those describing the assassination attempt by Bina Das at Calcutta University, Pritilata Waddedar's attack on the Pahartali European Club, and Kalpana Datta's trial and sentence following her work with Surya Sen's revolutionary group.
The correct statements accurately reflect historical facts regarding female revolutionaries in Bengal: Bina Das attempted to assassinate Governor Stanley Jackson in 1932, Pritilata Waddedar led the raid on the Pahartali European Club and consumed cyanide to evade capture, and Kalpana Datta was tried and sentenced to transportation for life for her active participation in the Chittagong revolutionary movement.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Evaluate the statement concerning Bina Das.
In February 1932, Bina Das fired at Governor Stanley Jackson at the convocation of Calcutta University. This historical statement is correct.
Verify historical events involving female revolutionaries during the 1930s phase of Bengal revolutionary nationalism.
2
Evaluate the statement concerning Pritilata Waddedar.
Pritilata Waddedar led the assault on the Pahartali European Club in Chittagong in September 1932 and swallowed poison to avoid arrest. This statement is correct.
Identify key events and leaders associated with Surya Sen's Indian Republican Army in Chittagong.
3
Evaluate the statement concerning Santi Ghosh and Suniti Choudhury.
Santi Ghosh and Suniti Choudhury assassinated Charles Stevens (District Magistrate of Tippera/Comilla) in 1931, not Charles Tegart (Police Commissioner of Calcutta) in 1924. This statement is incorrect.
Distinguish between historical targets and revolutionary actions.
4
Evaluate the statement concerning Kalpana Datta.
Kalpana Datta actively participated in the Chittagong revolutionary movement alongside Surya Sen and was sentenced to transportation for life following her trial. This statement is correct.
Confirm trial outcomes and revolutionary organization ties.

Key Concept

Women's Participation in 1930s Revolutionary Nationalism
Estimated Time:1m 30s
Question 2071Question →

Consider the following statements regarding the effect of the dissolution of the Lok Sabha on pending bills in the Parliament of India:

1. A bill passed by both Houses of Parliament but pending the assent of the President does not lapse.
2. A bill pending in the Rajya Sabha that has not been passed by the Lok Sabha lapses upon dissolution.
3. A bill passed by the Lok Sabha but pending in the Rajya Sabha does not lapse if the President has notified an intention to summon a joint sitting prior to the dissolution.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: 1 and 3 only

Answer

The correct combination of statements is '1 and 3 only'.
Statements 1 and 3 are constitutionally accurate. Under the Indian Constitution, a bill awaiting presidential assent has passed through both legislative chambers and is unaffected by the dissolution of the lower house. Additionally, Article 108(5) explicitly protects a bill from lapsing if the President announced an intention to hold a joint sitting prior to dissolution. Conversely, statement 2 is incorrect because Article 107(4) explicitly specifies that a bill pending in the Rajya Sabha that has not been passed by the Lok Sabha does not lapse.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze statement 1 regarding bills pending presidential assent.
Statement 1 is correct. When a bill has been passed by both Houses and is awaiting assent from the President, it is no longer pending in either House. Therefore, the dissolution of the Lok Sabha does not cause it to lapse.
Article 107 applies to bills pending in the Houses. Bills awaiting presidential assent or returned by the President for reconsideration do not lapse.
2
Analyze statement 2 regarding bills originating and pending in the Rajya Sabha.
Statement 2 is incorrect. Under Article 107(4), a bill pending in the Rajya Sabha which has not been passed by the Lok Sabha does NOT lapse upon dissolution of the Lok Sabha.
Since the Lok Sabha has not yet considered or acted on the bill, the legislative process in the lower house has not officially begun for that bill.
3
Analyze statement 3 regarding joint sitting notifications prior to dissolution.
Statement 3 is correct. Under Article 108(5), if the President has notified an intention to summon a joint sitting of both Houses before the Lok Sabha is dissolved, the bill does not lapse.
The notification of a joint sitting freezes the legislative deadlock process and overrides the standard lapsing rule under Article 107(5).

Key Concept

Effect of Dissolution of Lok Sabha on Pending Parliamentary Business (Articles 107 & 108)
Estimated Time:1m 30s
Question 2072Question →

Chronologically arrange the following major historical developments and policy milestones in Indian economic planning and structural reforms from the earliest to the latest:

Drag items to arrange them in the correct order

Show answer & explanation

Answer

The correct chronological sequence from earliest to latest is: 1. Formulation of the 'People's Plan' by M. N. Roy (1945), 2. Establishment of the National Development Council (1952), 3. Constitution of the Narasimham Committee on the Financial System (1991), and 4. Cabinet Resolution establishing NITI Aayog (2015).
The correct sequence follows the historical development of Indian economic planning: M. N. Roy formulated the People's Plan in 1945, followed by the setting up of the National Development Council in 1952. Decades later, structural economic reforms prompted the establishment of the Narasimham Committee in 1991, and finally, NITI Aayog was instituted in 2015 to replace the Planning Commission.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Determine the date for the formulation of the 'People's Plan'.
M. N. Roy drafted the 'People's Plan' in 1945 during the pre-independence era.
It was a 10-year plan advocating nationalization of land and state-driven agricultural development.
2
Determine the establishment year of the National Development Council (NDC).
The NDC was set up on 6 August 1952.
It was created post-independence to provide a federal platform involving State Chief Ministers in plan approval.
3
Determine the setup date of the Narasimham Committee on Financial System Reforms.
The first Narasimham Committee was constituted in August 1991.
It laid the blueprint for financial sector liberalization, deregulation of interest rates, and reduction of SLR/CRR following the 1991 crisis.
4
Determine the creation date of NITI Aayog.
NITI Aayog was formed on 1 January 2015.
It replaced the 65-year-old Planning Commission to usher in a bottom-up approach to development.

Key Concept

Chronological Evolution of Planning Machinery, Committees, and Structural Reforms in India
Question 2073Question →

Match the Constitutional Articles related to the State Executive and Legislature in List-I with their corresponding provisions in List-II:

Click a left item, then click its matching right item

Items

Article 161
Article 164(4)
Article 169
Article 213

Matches

Show answer & explanation

Answer

Article 161 matches with the power of the Governor to grant pardons; Article 164(4) matches with the six-month legislature election mandate for ministers; Article 169 matches with the provision for abolition or creation of Legislative Councils; and Article 213 matches with the Governor's power to promulgate Ordinances.
Article 161 details Gubernatorial clemency power; Article 164(4) mandates election within six months for ministers; Article 169 regulates the creation/abolition of Legislative Councils; and Article 213 grants Ordinance-making power to the Governor during legislative recess.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the scope of Article 161
Article 161 deals with the judicial/clemency powers of the Governor, including pardons, reprieves, and remissions.
This establishes state executive pardoning authority.
2
Analyze ministerial tenure rules under Article 164(4)
Article 164(4) limits non-legislator ministership to six consecutive months without getting elected.
This enforces parliamentary accountability at the state level.
3
Evaluate bicameral legislative changes under Article 169
Article 169 details how Parliament may create or abolish a Legislative Council following a special resolution by the Legislative Assembly.
This governs state upper house institutional changes.
4
Determine executive legislative power under Article 213
Article 213 empowers the Governor to promulgate ordinances during legislative recess.
This allows emergency law-making by the Governor.

Key Concept

Constitutional provisions governing the State Executive (Governor, CM, Ministers) and State Legislature powers
Question 2074Question →

Arrange the following administrative institutional developments and political events of Medieval India in correct chronological sequence, from the earliest to the latest:

Drag items to arrange them in the correct order

Show answer & explanation

Answer

The correct chronological sequence is: Creation of Diwan-i-Arz by Balban (c. 1266 CE) → Foundation of the Bahmani Kingdom (1347 CE) → Promulgation of the Dahsala land revenue system (1580 CE) → Formal institution of the Ashtapradhan council by Shivaji (1674 CE).
The events follow a clear historical progression spanning from the 13th to the 17th centuries: Ghiyasuddin Balban set up the Diwan-i-Arz during his reign (c. 1266–1287 CE), Hasan Gangu established the Bahmani Kingdom in 1347 CE, Raja Todar Mal implemented the Dahsala revenue settlement in 1580 CE, and Chhatrapati Shivaji instituted the Ashtapradhan council during his coronation in 1674 CE.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the timeframe of Balban's military administrative reforms in the Delhi Sultanate.
Ghiyasuddin Balban established the centralized military department known as Diwan-i-Arz during his reign (c. 1266��1287 CE).
This move was aimed at curbing internal rebellions and building defense capabilities against Mongol incursions in the 13th century.
2
Determine the date of the establishment of the Bahmani Kingdom in South India.
Ala-ud-Din Hasan Bahman Shah (Hasan Gangu) founded the Bahmani Sultanate in 1347 CE.
This independent Deccan kingdom emerged during the mid-14th century during the rule of Muhammad bin Tughlaq.
3
Determine the introduction date of Todar Mal's revenue system under the Mughals.
Raja Todar Mal introduced the Dahsala system (Ain-i-Dahsala) in 1580 CE.
The system calculated tax assessment based on average yield and price data collected over the preceding ten years (1570–1580 CE).
4
Determine the formal creation date of the Maratha administrative council of eight ministers.
Chhatrapati Shivaji Maharaj formally instituted the Ashtapradhan council at his coronation in 1674 CE.
This administrative structure was codified in the late 17th century to govern the Maratha state effectively.

Key Concept

Chronological evolution of medieval Indian administrative institutions across the Delhi Sultanate, Deccan Sultanates, Mughal Empire, and Maratha State.
Question 2075Question →

With reference to the Ramosi Uprisings against British colonial rule in Western India, consider the following statements:

1. The early Ramosi uprising under Chittur Singh in 1822 was triggered by the annexation of Satara and the deposition of the Raja of Satara.
2. In 1879, Vasudev Balwant Phadke mobilized the Ramosis to launch an anti-British armed struggle aimed at establishing an Indian republic.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Both 1 and 2

Answer

Both statements 1 and 2 are correct.
The correct response is the option stating 'Both 1 and 2'. Statement 1 is historically factual: the Ramosi hill tribe of the Western Ghats revolted under Chittur Singh in 1822 against British ruler policies following the annexation of Satara territory. Statement 2 is also factual: Vasudev Balwant Phadke organized the Ramosis into a fighting force in 1879 to wage an armed struggle against colonial rule aiming for an Indian republic.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Evaluate Statement 1 regarding the 1822 Ramosi Uprising under Chittur Singh.
The Ramosis (hill tribes of Maharashtra) rose in rebellion under Chittur Singh in 1822 following the deposition of Raja Pratap Singh of Satara by the British. They plundered the country around Satara and destroyed colonial forts. Thus, Statement 1 is correct.
Verifying the leadership and cause of the early 19th-century Ramosi unrest.
2
Evaluate Statement 2 regarding the 1879 armed struggle led by Vasudev Balwant Phadke.
In 1879, Vasudev Balwant Phadke gathered Ramosi fighters to start an armed insurrection against the British to create an independent Indian republic. Thus, Statement 2 is correct.
Verifying the late 19th-century revival of Ramosi armed resistance under Phadke.
3
Synthesize the correctness of both statements.
Since both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are accurate, the option stating 'Both 1 and 2' is correct.
Selecting the correct combination choice.

Key Concept

Ramosi Peasant and Tribal Revolts in Maharashtra (1822-1879)
Estimated Time:1m 30s
Question 2076Question →

Transportation pipelines play a vital role in moving bulk fluids and slurry across India's economic corridors. Match the key transport pipelines listed in List I with their primary operational route and cargo characteristic listed in List II.

Click a left item, then click its matching right item

Items

Hazira-Vijaipur-Jagdishpur (HVJ) Pipeline
Naharkatia-Nunmati-Barauni Pipeline
Kudremukh to Mangalore Pipeline
Salaya-Koyali-Mathura Pipeline

Matches

Show answer & explanation

Answer

Hazira-Vijaipur-Jagdishpur (HVJ) Pipeline matches with First major cross-country natural gas pipeline supplying fertilizer and power plants across western and northern India; Naharkatia-Nunmati-Barauni Pipeline matches with Pioneer inland crude oil pipeline connecting Assam oilfields to eastern refineries in Assam and Bihar; Kudremukh to Mangalore Pipeline matches with Specialized slurry pipeline transporting crushed iron ore from mountain mines to a coastal export port; and Salaya-Koyali-Mathura Pipeline matches with Major crude oil trunk pipeline carrying imported and offshore oil from Gujarat coast to northern inland refineries.
Each pipeline is correctly matched with its specific commodity and route profile: HVJ handles natural gas from western to northern hinterlands; Naharkatia-Barauni handles northeastern crude oil; Kudremukh-Mangalore handles iron ore slurry; and Salaya-Koyali-Mathura handles crude oil imported via the western coast to inland refining hubs.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the commodity type and primary function of the HVJ Pipeline
HVJ is India's first major cross-country natural gas network linking Hazira (Gujarat) to industrial consumers in MP and UP.
HVJ stands for Hazira-Vijaipur-Jagdishpur and is operated by GAIL for natural gas distribution.
2
Identify the geographical coverage of the Naharkatia-Nunmati-Barauni Pipeline
It originates in Assam (Naharkatia oilfields) and feeds refineries in Guwahati (Nunmati) and Barauni (Bihar).
It was India's first long-distance crude oil pipeline built in the northeastern sector.
3
Determine the mode and cargo transported by the Kudremukh to Mangalore link
It carries iron ore slurry across the Western Ghats to Mangalore port.
Slurry pipelines reduce transport costs for bulk minerals from inland mines to maritime terminals.
4
Determine the role of the Salaya-Koyali-Mathura pipeline infrastructure
It moves imported and Gulf of Kutch crude oil inland to Koyali, Mathura, and Panipat refineries.
Salaya acts as an offshore/coastal receiving terminal for crude oil destined for northern refineries.

Key Concept

Pipeline Transportation Networks in India
Question 2077Question →

Which of the following statements regarding the pedological characteristics and climatic conditions of Red Soils and Laterite Soils in India are correct?

Select all that apply

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Red soils develop a reddish color due to a wide diffusion of iron in crystalline and metamorphic rocks.; Laterite soils develop in regions characterized by high temperatures and monsoon rainfall with alternating wet and dry periods.

Answer

The correct statements are that red soils derive their reddish color from iron diffusion in crystalline/metamorphic rocks, and that laterite soils develop under high temperatures with alternating wet and dry monsoon seasons.
The statements confirming that red soils derive their color from iron diffusion in crystalline rocks and that laterite soil formation requires tropical climates with alternating wet and dry monsoon seasons are both pedologically accurate.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Evaluate the cause of red color in Red Soils
Iron diffusion in crystalline and metamorphic rocks gives red soil its characteristic color (turning yellow when hydrated).
This is a fundamental chemical property of red soils in India.
2
Examine the organic and mineral composition of Laterite Soils
Laterite soils are poor in nitrogen, humus, phosphate, and lime, but rich in iron oxide and potash.
High temperatures accelerate bacterial activity that breaks down humus, while intense leaching removes soluble silica and bases.
3
Identify the climatic requirements for Laterite soil pedogenesis
Tropical monsoon conditions with alternating wet and dry periods are essential for intense leaching.
Heavy rainfall leaches silica, leaving behind hydrated oxides of aluminum and iron.
4
Determine the climatic and topographical distribution of Red Soils
Red soils occupy areas of low annual rainfall in the eastern and southern plateau region, not waterlogged high-rainfall zones.
Heavy rainfall regions induce tropical leaching (lateritization), not red soil retention.

Key Concept

Pedological features, chemical composition, and climatic requirements of Red and Laterite soils in India
Question 2078Question →

Which of the following procedural and operational provisions correctly distinguish a Proclamation of National Emergency (Article 352) from President's Rule (Article 356) under the Constitution of India?

Select all that apply

Show answer & explanation

Answer: A Proclamation of National Emergency must be approved by both Houses of Parliament within one month from its issue, whereas President's Rule must be approved within two months.; A resolution approving a Proclamation of National Emergency requires a special majority in both Houses of Parliament, whereas President's Rule requires a simple majority.

Answer

The correct statements are that National Emergency requires parliamentary approval within one month whereas President's Rule allows two months, and that National Emergency approval demands a special majority while President's Rule requires only a simple majority.
The statements highlighting the approval timeframe (one month for National Emergency vs two months for President's Rule) and majority requirements (special majority for National Emergency vs simple majority for President's Rule) are constitutionally accurate according to the modifications introduced by the 44th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1978.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze timeframes for parliamentary approval for Articles 352 and 356.
National Emergency requires approval within 1 month (44th Amendment Act, 1978), while President's Rule requires approval within 2 months.
Constitutional provisions under Article 352(4) and Article 356(3) specify distinct statutory deadlines for initial legislative ratification.
2
Evaluate the majority requirements for parliamentary ratification.
National Emergency requires a special majority in each House of Parliament, while President's Rule requires only a simple majority.
The 44th Amendment Act introduced the special majority requirement for National Emergency to prevent misuse, whereas President's Rule follows standard simple majority approval.
3
Examine revocation procedures and executive impacts on State Government.
Revocation of either emergency by the President does not require prior parliamentary approval. Furthermore, State Executive is dismissed under President's Rule, but remains active (though subject to central direction) during National Emergency.
Confusing the status of the state ministry or the procedure for revoking emergency proclamations violates procedural rules under Articles 352 and 356.

Key Concept

Procedural and Operational Differences between National Emergency (Article 352) and President's Rule (Article 356)
Estimated Time:2m 0s
Question 2079Question →

In National Income Accounting under the revised NSO methodology in India, Gross Value Added (GVA) at basic prices is calculated to measure sector-wise economic output. Which of the following equations correctly defines Gross Value Added (GVA) at basic prices?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: GVA at basic prices=GVA at factor cost+Production taxes−Production subsidies\text{GVA at basic prices} = \text{GVA at factor cost} + \text{Production taxes} - \text{Production subsidies}

Answer

Gross Value Added (GVA) at basic prices equals GVA at factor cost plus Production taxes minus Production subsidies.
Gross Value Added (GVA) at basic prices measures output from the producer's perspective. It is calculated by adding production taxes (such as land revenue, stamp duty, or professional tax) and subtracting production subsidies from GVA at factor cost. These production-level adjustments are independent of the volume of goods produced.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the relationship between GVA at factor cost and GVA at basic prices.
GVA at basic prices represents the amount receivable by the producer from the purchaser per unit of a good or service produced, excluding product taxes but including production taxes.
Production taxes and subsidies are related to production activities independent of output volume.
2
Distinguish between production taxes/subsidies and product taxes/subsidies.
Production taxes (e.g., land revenue, license fees) are added to factor cost to get basic prices, whereas product taxes (e.g., GST, import duty) convert basic prices to market prices.
Production taxes attach to the producer's operational setup, while product taxes attach to per-unit transactions.
3
Select the correct mathematical identity.
GVA at basic prices=GVA at factor cost+Production taxes−Production subsidies\text{GVA at basic prices} = \text{GVA at factor cost} + \text{Production taxes} - \text{Production subsidies}.
This directly aligns with the standard national accounts classification used by NSO India.

Key Concept

Gross Value Added (GVA) at basic prices vs factor cost
Question 2080Question →

In 1928, following the draft of the Nehru Report advocating Dominion Status, Jawaharlal Nehru and Subhas Chandra Bose jointly established which left-leaning organization to press for complete independence (Purna Swaraj)?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Independence for India League

Answer

Independence for India League
The option specifying the Independence for India League is correct because Jawaharlal Nehru and Subhas Chandra Bose organized this pressure group in 1928 within the Indian National Congress to counter the Nehru Report's recommendation of Dominion Status and lobby for complete independence.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the historical context of 1928
In 1928, the All Parties Conference drafted the Nehru Report, which proposed 'Dominion Status' for India.
Understanding the immediate catalyst for intra-party opposition within the Indian National Congress.
2
Identify the younger radical leadership's response
Young leaders Jawaharlal Nehru and Subhas Chandra Bose rejected Dominion Status and insisted on Complete Independence (Purna Swaraj).
Identifying key leaders associated with the left-wing current within the national movement during the late 1920s.
3
Determine the organization formed to campaign for Purna Swaraj
Together they founded the 'Independence for India League' in 1928 as a pressure group within the Congress.
Matching the leaders and political objective to the correct historical body.

Key Concept

Independence for India League (1928)
Estimated Time:1m 15s
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