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Question 2521Question →

Consider the following statements regarding labor market concepts and demographic trends in India:

1. Demographic dividend refers to an economic growth opportunity created when the proportion of the working-age population (15–64 years) exceeds the dependent population.
2. Disguised unemployment is characterized by a scenario where additional workers contribute zero to marginal total output.
3. Frictional unemployment arises primarily from long-term economic shifts that cause a structural mismatch between the skills workers have and the skills employers need.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: 1 and 2 only

Answer

The correct answer is the option stating that statements 1 and 2 only are correct.
Statements 1 and 2 are accurate. The demographic dividend refers to economic expansion facilitated by a higher proportion of working-age individuals (15–6415\text{--}64 years) compared to dependents. Disguised unemployment occurs when excess labor is employed without increasing total output, meaning marginal labor productivity is zero. Statement 3 is incorrect because skill mismatch is a hallmark of structural unemployment, whereas frictional unemployment is temporary job search time.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Evaluate Statement 1 regarding demographic dividend definition.
Statement 1 is correct.
Demographic dividend occurs when the demographic transition leads to a high share of working-age population (15–64 years) relative to dependents (below 15 and above 64 years).
2
Evaluate Statement 2 regarding disguised unemployment.
Statement 2 is correct.
In disguised unemployment (commonly seen in Indian agriculture), more workers are engaged than necessary, leading to marginal productivity of labor being virtually zero.
3
Evaluate Statement 3 regarding frictional vs structural unemployment.
Statement 3 is incorrect.
A long-term mismatch between worker skills and job market requirements defines structural unemployment. Frictional unemployment refers to brief periods of unemployment while moving between jobs.

Key Concept

Demographic Dividend and Unemployment Classifications
Question 2522Question →

Under the Constitutional framework of India, the composition of the electoral college that elects the President under Article 54 differs from the composition of the body that investigates and votes on the impeachment of the President under Article 61. Which of the following statements correctly describes this distinction?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Nominated members of Parliament participate in the impeachment process of the President but cannot vote in the presidential election, whereas elected members of State Legislative Assemblies vote in the presidential election but do not participate in impeachment.

Answer

Nominated members of Parliament participate in the impeachment process of the President but cannot vote in the presidential election, whereas elected members of State Legislative Assemblies vote in the presidential election but do not participate in impeachment.
Under Article 54, the electoral college for electing the President consists only of elected members of Parliament and elected members of State Legislative Assemblies (plus Legislative Assemblies of Delhi and Puducherry). Nominated MPs do not vote in the election. Conversely, under Article 61, the impeachment procedure takes place exclusively in Parliament and requires a special majority of the total membership of each House, which includes both elected and nominated members of Parliament. State Legislative Assemblies have no role in the impeachment process.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Examine the composition of the Presidential Electoral College under Article 54
Article 54 states that the President is elected by an electoral college consisting of: (1) elected members of both Houses of Parliament, and (2) elected members of the Legislative Assemblies of the States (including UTs of Delhi and Puducherry/J&K). Nominated members of Parliament and all members of Legislative Councils are excluded.
To establish who is entitled to vote in the presidential election.
2
Examine the composition of the body participating in Impeachment under Article 61
Article 61 specifies that an impeachment charge can be initiated by either House of Parliament and passed by a majority of not less than two-thirds of the total membership of that House. This includes both elected and nominated members of Parliament. State Legislative Assemblies play no role in impeachment.
To identify who participates in the removal procedure of the President.
3
Compare both provisions to evaluate the options
Nominated members of Parliament participate in impeachment but not in the election, while elected state MLAs participate in the election but not in impeachment.
To select the factually correct statement matching constitutional rules.

Key Concept

Distinction between Presidential Election (Article 54) and Impeachment Procedure (Article 61)
Question 2523Question →

Match the following key defense assets and nuclear energy installations in India (List-I) with their primary technological or operational features (List-II).

Click a left item, then click its matching right item

Items

Kakrapar Atomic Power Station Unit-3
Kamini Reactor
Prototype Fast Breeder Reactor (PFBR)
INS Arihant

Matches

Show answer & explanation

Answer

Kakrapar Unit-3 corresponds to the first indigenously designed 700 MWe Pressurised Heavy Water Reactor; Kamini Reactor corresponds to the research reactor using Uranium-233 fuel; Prototype Fast Breeder Reactor corresponds to the sodium-cooled Stage-2 reactor; and INS Arihant corresponds to the nuclear-powered ballistic missile submarine.
Kakrapar Unit-3 is the pioneer in India's 700 MWe PHWR series. Kamini operates on Uranium-233 at Kalpakkam. The Prototype Fast Breeder Reactor (PFBR) is the cornerstone of Stage-2 sodium-cooled breeder technology. INS Arihant provides India with a sea-based nuclear ballistic missile capability.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the classification of Kakrapar Unit-3.
It is India's flagship 700 MWe indigenous Pressurised Heavy Water Reactor.
Establishes the link between Kakrapar and 700 MWe PHWR technology.
2
Determine the fuel characteristic of the Kamini reactor.
Kamini uses Uranium-233 derived from Thorium irradiation.
Matches Kamini with its unique U-233 fuel cycle.
3
Identify the reactor type and stage of the Prototype Fast Breeder Reactor.
PFBR uses liquid sodium coolant to breed more fissile material in Stage-2.
Links PFBR with fast breeder reactor technology.
4
Analyze the strategic role of INS Arihant.
INS Arihant is a nuclear-powered submarine capable of launching ballistic missiles (SSBN).
Associates INS Arihant with naval strategic nuclear deterrence.

Key Concept

Classification of India's major defense installations and nuclear power/research reactor technologies.
Estimated Time:1m 30s
Question 2524Question →

With reference to India's indigenously developed 'RudraM-1' defense missile system, consider the following statements:

1. It is India's first indigenous Next Generation Anti-Radiation Missile (NGARM) developed by DRDO to neutralize enemy radar and communication assets.
2. It employs a dual-thrust solid rocket motor for propulsion and features a Passive Homing Head for radiation source tracking.
3. It is designed to be launched exclusively from ground-based mobile launchers as part of the Ballistic Missile Defence (BMD) shield.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: 1 and 2 only

Answer

1 and 2 only
The combination selecting 1 and 2 only is correct. RudraM-1 is DRDO's indigenously developed air-launched Next Generation Anti-Radiation Missile (NGARM). It uses a dual-thrust solid propellant rocket motor and a passive homing head to destroy enemy communication and radar installations. It is integrated on Su-30MKI aircraft rather than ground-based BMD networks.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze Statement 1 regarding the basic classification and purpose of RudraM-1.
RudraM-1 is India's first indigenously developed air-to-surface Next Generation Anti-Radiation Missile (NGARM) designed by DRDO to target enemy air defense radars, tracking stations, and communication nodes. Statement 1 is correct.
Establishing primary operational role of the missile.
2
Analyze Statement 2 regarding propulsion and guidance mechanism.
RudraM-1 utilizes a dual-thrust solid rocket motor for propulsion and incorporates a Passive Homing Head (PHH) capable of detecting and homing in on radio frequency emission sources over a wide band. Statement 2 is correct.
Verifying technical and propulsion specifications.
3
Analyze Statement 3 regarding deployment platform.
RudraM-1 is an air-launched missile integrated with Indian Air Force fighter aircraft (such as Su-30MKI), not a ground-based missile defense interceptor. Statement 3 is incorrect.
Differentiating air-launched tactical weapons from ground-based strategic defense systems.

Key Concept

Classification, guidance technology, and platform integration of India's indigenously developed anti-radiation missile (RudraM-1).
Estimated Time:1m 30s
Question 2525Question →

Match the national income aggregates and development indicators listed in List-I with their correct methodological definitions in List-II:

Click a left item, then click its matching right item

Items

Net National Product at Factor Cost (NNPFCNNP_{FC})
Gross Value Added at Basic Prices (GVABPGVA_{BP})
Planetary Pressures-adjusted Human Development Index (PHDI)
Genuine Progress Indicator (GPI)

Matches

Show answer & explanation

Answer

Net National Product at Factor Cost corresponds to GDPMP−Depreciation+NFIA−Net Product TaxesGDP_{MP} - \text{Depreciation} + \text{NFIA} - \text{Net Product Taxes}. Gross Value Added at Basic Prices corresponds to GVAFC+(Production Taxes−Production Subsidies)GVA_{FC} + (\text{Production Taxes} - \text{Production Subsidies}). Planetary Pressures-adjusted HDI corresponds to the Human Development Index discounted by per capita carbon dioxide emissions and material footprint. Genuine Progress Indicator corresponds to the economic metric adjusting personal consumption expenditure for income inequality, environmental degradation, and non-market benefits.
Each national accounting aggregate and indicator is accurately paired with its official definition under CSOS/NSO national account revision standards and UNDP indicator frameworks. Net National Product at Factor Cost represents national income. GVA at Basic Prices isolates production-stage net taxes. PHDI adjusts HDI for environmental footprint, while GPI extends economic progress measurement beyond conventional consumption output.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze Net National Product at Factor Cost (NNPFCNNP_{FC})
NNPFC=GDPMP−Depreciation+NFIA−Net Product TaxesNNP_{FC} = GDP_{MP} - \text{Depreciation} + \text{NFIA} - \text{Net Product Taxes}
Converting Gross to Net requires subtracting depreciation; converting Market Price to Factor Cost requires subtracting Net Product Taxes.
2
Identify the accounting identity for Gross Value Added at Basic Prices (GVABPGVA_{BP})
GVABP=GVAFC+Net Production TaxesGVA_{BP} = GVA_{FC} + \text{Net Production Taxes}
Basic prices account for production taxes (like land revenue and stamp duties) independent of actual output quantity, while excluding product taxes (like GST).
3
Evaluate the development indicator definitions
PHDI incorporates environmental strain (carbon emissions and material footprint), whereas GPI expands macroeconomic accounting beyond GDP by incorporating social and environmental welfare adjustments into personal consumption.
Distinguishing global index adjustments (UNDP's PHDI) from alternative welfare accounts (GPI) clarifies their economic measurement focus.

Key Concept

National Income Accounting Identities and Modern Development Indicators
Question 2526Question →

In public-key cryptography (asymmetric encryption), when a sender wants to transmit a confidential message securely to a specific recipient, which of the following keys must be used by the sender to encrypt the message?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Recipient's public key

Answer

The recipient's public key must be used by the sender to encrypt the message for confidentiality.
In asymmetric cryptography, each participant has a public key and a private key. To send a confidential message, the sender encrypts the plaintext using the recipient's public key. Because the recipient is the sole possessor of the corresponding private key, only they can decrypt and read the original message.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the key structure of asymmetric cryptography.
Asymmetric cryptography utilizes a mathematically linked pair of keys for every user: a public key (shared openly) and a private key (kept secret).
Understanding the distinction between public and private keys is fundamental to asymmetric systems.
2
Determine which key achieves confidentiality for a specific recipient.
Encrypting data with a user's public key ensures that the data can only be decrypted by the matching private key owned uniquely by that recipient.
This mathematical pairing enables secure key distribution and message secrecy across untrusted networks.

Key Concept

Public Key Cryptography (Asymmetric Encryption)
Estimated Time:45s
Question 2527Question →

Regarding the chemical characteristics and functions of industrial and household chemical agents, which of the following statements are correct?

Select all that apply

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Aspartame decomposes at elevated cooking temperatures, restricting its utility as an artificial sweetener primarily to cold foods and unheated beverages.; Vulcanization of natural rubber involves heating crude polyisoprene with elemental sulfur to form inter-chain disulfide cross-links, enhancing mechanical strength and thermal stability.; Anionic detergents feature long hydrophobic hydrocarbon chains connected to hydrophilic sulfonate or sulfate groups where the surface-active portion carries a net negative charge.

Answer

The statements asserting that aspartame decomposes at elevated cooking temperatures, vulcanization improves natural rubber through sulfur cross-linking, and anionic detergents feature negatively charged surface-active hydrophobic sulfonate groups are correct. The statement regarding Butylated Hydroxytoluene (BHT) is incorrect because BHT acts as a free-radical scavenger to prevent fat oxidation rather than promoting radical formation.
The correct statements accurately state the thermal instability of aspartame, the cross-linking function of sulfur in rubber vulcanization, and the ionic charge structure of anionic synthetic detergents. Aspartame decomposes when heated due to peptide hydrolysis; sulfur bridges anchor polyisoprene chains during vulcanization; and anionic detergents derive their surfactant action from negatively charged polar heads.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Evaluate the chemical stability of aspartame under heat.
Aspartame degrades at elevated cooking temperatures due to peptide bond breakdown, making it suitable only for cold foods and beverages.
Peptides undergo thermal decomposition and hydrolysis, leading to loss of sweetness.
2
Analyze the chemical mechanism and structural changes in rubber vulcanization.
Heating cis-1,4-polyisoprene with sulfur introduces sulfur bridge cross-links between polymer chains, upgrading elasticity, tensile strength, and thermal resilience.
Cross-linking restricts chain sliding while allowing reversible elastic recovery.
3
Assess the structural classification of synthetic anionic detergents.
Anionic detergents dissociate in aqueous solutions to yield surfactant anions with long-chain hydrophobic groups attached to sulfate or sulfonate anions.
The active detergent ion responsible for micelle formation and cleansing carries a negative charge.
4
Examine the preservative mechanism of Butylated Hydroxytoluene (BHT).
BHT functions as a radical scavenger (antioxidant) that inhibits lipid peroxidation rather than promoting free-radical oxidative decay.
Hindered phenols donate hydrogen to peroxy radicals, forming stable non-radical products.

Key Concept

Chemical principles governing artificial sweeteners, synthetic detergents, polymer vulcanization, and food antioxidants.
Question 2528Question →

Which of the following biogeochemical cycles is classified as a sedimentary cycle, where the primary reservoir pool is located in the Earth's crust rather than the atmosphere?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Phosphorus cycle

Answer

Phosphorus cycle
The phosphorus cycle is a sedimentary nutrient cycle because the major reservoir pool is located in rocks, soil, and oceanic sediment within the Earth's crust, unlike gaseous cycles which reservoir in the atmosphere.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Understand the distinction between gaseous and sedimentary nutrient cycles.
Gaseous cycles have their primary reservoir pool in the atmosphere or hydrosphere, whereas sedimentary cycles have their primary reservoir pool in the lithosphere (Earth's crust).
Classification depends on where the major reservoir of the nutrient element resides in nature.
2
Analyze each nutrient cycle option against reservoir criteria.
Carbon, nitrogen, and oxygen cycles rely predominantly on atmospheric reservoirs, while phosphorus originates mainly from phosphate rocks in soil and sediment.
Weathering of rocks releases phosphate ions into soil and water, confirming phosphorus as a sedimentary cycle.

Key Concept

Classification of Biogeochemical Cycles (Gaseous vs. Sedimentary)
Question 2529Question →

Regarding the structural characteristics of prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells, which of the following statements are correct?

Select all that apply

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Prokaryotic cells lack membrane-bound organelles such as the nucleus, mitochondria, and endoplasmic reticulum.; Prokaryotic genetic material is typically organized as a single circular double-stranded DNA molecule located in the nucleoid region.

Answer

The correct statements are that prokaryotic cells lack membrane-bound organelles such as the nucleus and mitochondria, and their genetic material is typically organized as a single circular double-stranded DNA molecule located in the nucleoid region.
Prokaryotic cells are characterized by the absence of membrane-bound organelles and a true nucleus. Their genetic material is located in a nucleoid region as a circular double-stranded DNA molecule.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze organelle structure in prokaryotes
Prokaryotes lack membrane-bound internal compartments including a true nucleus, mitochondria, and endoplasmic reticulum.
This is a defining biological distinction between prokaryotes and eukaryotes.
2
Evaluate ribosome size differences
Prokaryotes possess 70S ribosomes, while eukaryotes possess 80S ribosomes in their cytoplasm.
Ribosomal sedimentation coefficient differs between the two domains of life.
3
Examine nuclear material organization
Prokaryotic DNA is non-enclosed, naked circular double-stranded DNA present in the nucleoid.
Linear DNA in a membrane-bound nucleus is unique to eukaryotes.
4
Verify cell wall composition
Bacterial cell walls consist of peptidoglycan, whereas plant cell walls consist of cellulose.
Cell wall chemical compositions vary distinctly between kingdoms.

Key Concept

Structural differences between prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells
Question 2530Question →

Arrange the following key institutional and strategic milestones in India's defense and nuclear technology establishment in chronological order from earliest to latest:

Drag items to arrange them in the correct order

Show answer & explanation

Answer

The correct chronological sequence from earliest to latest is: Establishment of the Atomic Energy Commission (AEC) (1948) → Formation of the Department of Atomic Energy (DAE) (1954) → Formation of the Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) (1958) → Formal sanction of the Integrated Guided Missile Development Programme (IGMDP) (1983) → Official operationalization and public release of India's Nuclear Doctrine by the Cabinet Committee on Security (2003).
The correct chronological sequence begins with the Atomic Energy Commission (AEC) established in August 1948, followed by the executive Department of Atomic Energy (DAE) in August 1954. Next, the Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) was established in 1958. The Integrated Guided Missile Development Programme (IGMDP) was formally launched in July 1983. Finally, India's Nuclear Doctrine was officially released by the Cabinet Committee on Security in January 2003.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the founding year of the Atomic Energy Commission (AEC).
AEC was established in August 1948.
It was the initial policy and apex body set up shortly after independence.
2
Identify the creation date of the Department of Atomic Energy (DAE).
DAE was established in August 1954.
DAE was established six years after AEC to provide executive administrative architecture directly under the Prime Minister.
3
Identify the founding year of the Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO).
DRDO was formed in 1958.
It amalgamated existing defense technical establishments and the Defence Science Organisation.
4
Identify the year when IGMDP was launched.
IGMDP was sanctioned in July 1983.
It led to the development of the Agni, Prithvi, Akash, Trishul, and Nag missile systems.
5
Identify the year when India's formal Nuclear Doctrine was publicly released by the Cabinet Committee on Security.
The doctrine was officially operationalized and released in January 2003.
Following the 1998 Pokhran-II tests, the doctrine finalized key principles such as No First Use and Credible Minimum Deterrence.

Key Concept

Chronological evolution of Indian institutional frameworks and strategic policy in Defense and Nuclear Technology.
Question 2531Question →

An agricultural district experienced an unusually severe and prolonged summer heatwave over two consecutive months. Which of the following developments represent direct logical EFFECTS resulting from this severe heatwave? (Select all that apply)

Select all that apply

Show answer & explanation

Answer: The district administration opening temporary public cooling shelters and deploying emergency drinking water tankers; A significant increase in daily peak electricity demand driven by widespread air conditioning and refrigeration usage

Answer

The statements identifying administrative relief measures (water tankers and cooling shelters) and increased peak electricity demand are the correct logical effects of the severe heatwave.
Extreme environmental temperatures naturally lead to higher demand for cooling equipment (causing electricity demand to rise) and prompt administrative intervention (such as deploying water tankers and opening cooling centers). Both of these represent direct, logical effects of the heatwave.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the primary cause described in the scenario
The primary cause is the severe and prolonged summer heatwave in the district.
Establishing the root event is necessary to determine which subsequent events logically follow as consequences.
2
Evaluate each option to determine if it is a plausible consequence of the heatwave
Emergency administrative measures and high electricity demand for cooling are logical consequences. Inverting the cause-effect direction or assuming electricity demand cools the climate is logically invalid.
An effect must naturally follow the cause in chronological and logical sequence.

Key Concept

Identifying direct logical consequences (effects) resulting from an established cause
Question 2532Question →

Consider the following statements regarding the Standing Deposit Facility (SDF) introduced by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI):

1. The SDF allows commercial banks to park surplus liquidity with the RBI without requiring government securities as collateral.
2. The SDF replaced the fixed rate reverse repo as the lower floor of the Liquidity Adjustment Facility (LAF) corridor.
3. The interest rate for the SDF is set 25 basis points above the policy Repo Rate.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: 1 and 2 only

Answer

Statements 1 and 2 only are correct.
Statements 1 and 2 are correct. The Standing Deposit Facility (SDF) allows the RBI to absorb surplus liquidity from commercial banks without transferring collateral (government securities). Introduced in April 2022, it replaced the fixed reverse repo rate as the floor of the Liquidity Adjustment Facility (LAF) corridor. Statement 3 is incorrect because the SDF rate is positioned 25 basis points below the Repo Rate, whereas the Marginal Standing Facility (MSF) rate is 25 basis points above the Repo Rate.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze Statement 1 regarding SDF collateral requirement.
Statement 1 is correct. The Standing Deposit Facility (SDF) is an uncollateralized liquidity absorption mechanism, allowing the RBI to absorb liquidity without providing government securities.
Unlike Reverse Repo operations, SDF does not lock up RBI's government securities portfolio.
2
Analyze Statement 2 regarding the LAF corridor floor.
Statement 2 is correct. In April 2022, the RBI instituted the SDF at the floor of the Liquidity Adjustment Facility (LAF) corridor, taking over the role of the fixed rate reverse repo.
The LAF corridor is bounded by the SDF at the bottom and the Marginal Standing Facility (MSF) at the top.
3
Analyze Statement 3 regarding the pricing of the SDF rate relative to the Repo Rate.
Statement 3 is incorrect. The SDF rate is pegged 25 basis points below the Repo Rate (Repo−0.25%Repo - 0.25\%), whereas the Marginal Standing Facility (MSF) rate is set 25 basis points above the Repo Rate (Repo+0.25%Repo + 0.25\%).
Setting the floor below the policy rate ensures orderly money market operations and interest rate corridor alignment.

Key Concept

Standing Deposit Facility (SDF) and LAF Corridor Mechanics
Question 2533Question →

During sunrise and sunset, the Sun appears distinctly reddish when viewed from the Earth's surface. Which optical phenomenon is primarily responsible for this color phenomenon?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Rayleigh scattering of light by atmospheric molecules, where shorter wavelengths are scattered away more than longer wavelengths

Answer

Rayleigh scattering of light by atmospheric molecules, where shorter wavelengths are scattered away more than longer wavelengths
During sunrise and sunset, sunlight travels through a longer path in the Earth's atmosphere. According to Rayleigh's law, the scattering of light is inversely proportional to the fourth power of its wavelength. Consequently, shorter wavelengths such as blue and violet are scattered in all directions and lost from the direct line of sight, while longer wavelengths such as red pass through with minimal scattering and reach the observer's eyes.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the path length of sunlight through the Earth's atmosphere during sunrise and sunset.
Near the horizon, sunlight travels a significantly longer path through atmospheric layers than at noon.
The slant angle requires light to pass through more air mass and scattering centers.
2
Apply Rayleigh's law of scattering.
Scattering intensity is inversely proportional to the fourth power of wavelength (I∝1λ4I \propto \frac{1}{\lambda^4}).
Shorter wavelengths (blue and violet) are scattered much more strongly than longer wavelengths (red and orange).
3
Determine which wavelengths reach the observer.
Blue light is scattered out in all directions, while unscattered red light passes directly to the observer.
Red light has a longer wavelength and undergoes minimal scattering over the long atmospheric path.

Key Concept

Rayleigh Scattering of Light
Estimated Time:1m 0s
Question 2534Question →

In the study of human health, communicable diseases are classified by their causative pathogens and mode of transmission. Which of the following statements regarding infectious human diseases are correct?

Select all that apply

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Dengue fever and Zika virus infection are both viral diseases transmitted to humans primarily through the bite of infected Aedes mosquitoes.; African trypanosomiasis (sleeping sickness) is caused by a protozoan parasite and is transmitted through the bite of infected tsetse flies.

Answer

The correct statements are: (1) Dengue fever and Zika virus infection are viral diseases transmitted via Aedes mosquitoes, and (2) African trypanosomiasis is a protozoan disease transmitted by tsetse flies.
The statements confirming that Dengue and Zika are viral infections transmitted by Aedes mosquitoes, and that African trypanosomiasis is a protozoan disease transmitted by tsetse flies, are scientifically accurate.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Evaluate statement regarding Dengue and Zika viruses
Dengue and Zika are both arboviruses (flaviviruses) transmitted by female Aedes mosquitoes (Aedes aegypti and Aedes albopictus). The statement is correct.
Accurate pathogen and vector classification.
2
Evaluate statement regarding African trypanosomiasis
Sleeping sickness is caused by protozoan parasites of the genus Trypanosoma and transmitted by tsetse flies. The statement is correct.
Correct identification of protozoan etiology and insect vector.
3
Evaluate statement regarding Trachoma
Trachoma is caused by the bacterium Chlamydia trachomatis, not a virus, and spreads via direct contact and flies rather than contaminated water. The statement is incorrect.
Conflating bacterial pathogen with viral etiology.
4
Evaluate statement regarding Malaria
Malaria is caused by Plasmodium protozoa (not bacteria) and transmitted by female Anopheles mosquitoes (male mosquitoes feed on plant nectar). The statement is incorrect.
Misidentifying pathogen group and mosquito vector sex.

Key Concept

Classification of infectious human diseases by pathogen type (viral, bacterial, protozoan) and vector transmission mechanism.
Question 2535Question →

Consider the following statements regarding human infectious diseases, their causative pathogens, and biological vectors:

1. Japanese Encephalitis is a viral infection caused by a flavivirus and is primarily transmitted to humans via infected *Culex* mosquitoes.
2. Lyme disease is a protozoan infection caused by *Plasmodium* species and is transmitted through the bite of hard-bodied *Ixodes* ticks.
3. Lymphatic Filariasis is a parasitic disease caused by filarial nematodes such as *Wuchereria bancrofti* and is transmitted by mosquito vectors.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: 1 and 3 only

Answer

The correct option is 1 and 3 only.
The option stating '1 and 3 only' is correct because Japanese Encephalitis is indeed a flaviviral infection transmitted by Culex mosquitoes, and Lymphatic Filariasis is caused by filarial nematodes (Wuchereria bancrofti) transmitted via mosquitoes. Statement 2 is false because Lyme disease is a bacterial infection caused by Borrelia burgdorferi, not a protozoan infection caused by Plasmodium.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Evaluate Statement 1 regarding Japanese Encephalitis etiology and vector
Statement 1 is correct. Japanese Encephalitis (JE) is caused by the Japanese encephalitis virus (a mosquito-borne flavivirus) and transmitted primarily by Culex mosquitoes, particularly Culex tritaeniorhynchus.
JE is an established viral zoonotic encephalitis endemic to parts of Asia.
2
Evaluate Statement 2 regarding Lyme disease pathogen classification
Statement 2 is incorrect. Lyme disease is caused by the spirochete bacterium Borrelia burgdorferi (and related bacterial species), not a protozoan parasite like Plasmodium (which causes malaria).
Confusing bacterial spirochetes with protozoans represents a fundamental pathogen mismatch.
3
Evaluate Statement 3 regarding Lymphatic Filariasis causative organism
Statement 3 is correct. Lymphatic Filariasis (commonly known as elephantiasis) is caused by microscopic, thread-like parasitic filarial nematodes (roundworms) including Wuchereria bancrofti, Brugia malayi, and Brugia timori, transmitted by Culex, Anopheles, and Aedes mosquitoes.
Filarial worms are helminths/nematodes that inhabit the human lymphatic system.

Key Concept

Classification of human infectious diseases by pathogen type (viral, bacterial, nematode, protozoan) and their biological transmission vectors.
Estimated Time:2m 0s
Question 2536Question →

With reference to the constitutional provisions of the Government of India Act of 1935, consider the following statements:

1. It provided for the establishment of an All-India Federation comprising British Indian provinces and princely states as units.
2. It abolished dyarchy at the provincial level and introduced provincial autonomy in its place.
3. The proposed All-India Federation came into operational effect immediately after the passing of the Act.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: 1 and 2 only

Answer

The statement combination '1 and 2 only' is correct.
The correct answer specifies that statements 1 and 2 are accurate. The Government of India Act of 1935 recommended an All-India Federation comprising British Indian provinces and princely states, and replaced provincial dyarchy with provincial autonomy. However, statement 3 is false because the federal scheme required a minimum threshold of princely state accessions, which was never achieved; thus, the All-India Federation remained entirely unexecuted.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Evaluate Statement 1 regarding the All-India Federation
Statement 1 is correct. The Government of India Act 1935 prescribed a federation consisting of British Indian provinces and princely states.
The Act sought to unify British provinces and Indian princely states under a central federal setup.
2
Evaluate Statement 2 regarding Provincial Autonomy and Dyarchy
Statement 2 is correct. Dyarchy in the provinces (introduced by the 1919 Act) was abolished, replacing it with provincial autonomy, while dyarchy was proposed for the central executive.
Provinces were made autonomous units of administration in responsible government setups.
3
Evaluate Statement 3 regarding the implementation of the Federation
Statement 3 is incorrect. The federation part of the 1935 Act was conditional upon accession by princely states representing at least half of the total princely population and council seats. Since rulers of princely states did not join, the All-India Federation never came into operation.
The federal structure remained unimplemented, and the central executive continued under the Government of India Act 1919 framework until 1947.

Key Concept

Key structural features and implementation status of the Government of India Act 1935
Estimated Time:1m 15s
Question 2537Question →

Consider the following statements regarding medieval Sufi literary genres and textual sources in India:

1. 'Malfuzat' refers to written collections of conversations and oral discourses delivered by Sufi saints, compiled by their disciples.
2. 'Maktubat' denotes collections of letters written by Sufi masters to their disciples, rulers, and contemporaries offering spiritual and administrative advice.
3. 'Tadhkira' refers exclusively to revenue and land grant assessment documents issued to Sufi hospices by the Sultanate administration.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Statements 1 and 2 only

Answer

The correct option is the one stating that Statements 1 and 2 only are correct.
Statements 1 and 2 are factually accurate. Malfuzat texts were oral conversations of Sufi saints recorded by followers, while Maktubat were collections of correspondence written by Sufi masters. Statement 3 is false because Tadhkiras were hagiographical biographies of Sufi saints, not state revenue records.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Evaluate Statement 1 regarding Malfuzat.
Malfuzat literature (such as Amir Hasan Sijzi's 'Fawa'id-ul-Fu'ad', recording the teachings of Nizamuddin Auliya) consists of records of conversations and oral discourses of Sufi shaykhs. Statement 1 is correct.
Malfuzat served as a key source for understanding daily life and spiritual practices in medieval Khanqahs.
2
Evaluate Statement 2 regarding Maktubat.
Maktubat literature comprises compiled letters written by Sufi masters (e.g., Maktubat-i Rabbani by Shaikh Ahmad Sirhindi) to disciples and state officials. Statement 2 is correct.
Maktubat provided direct ideological guidance and reflected Sufi interactions with contemporary politics.
3
Evaluate Statement 3 regarding Tadhkira.
Tadhkiras are biographical memoirs and dictionaries of Sufi saints (such as Mir Khwurd's 'Siyar-ul-Auliya'), not administrative or revenue tax records. Statement 3 is incorrect.
Confusing Sufi biographical compendiums with Sultanate revenue documents is a common historical misinterpretation.

Key Concept

Sufi Literature and Textual Traditions in Medieval India
Question 2538Question →

Match each national skill development program in List-I with its primary target group or core objective in List-II. Which of the following pair alignments correctly connects each scheme with its mandate?

Click a left item, then click its matching right item

Items

Pradhan Mantri Kaushal Vikas Yojana (PMKVY)
Deen Dayal Upadhyaya Grameen Kaushalya Yojana (DDU-GKY)
National Apprenticeship Promotion Scheme (NAPS)
SHREYES (Scheme for Higher Education Youth in Apprenticeship and Skills)

Matches

Show answer & explanation

Answer

Pradhan Mantri Kaushal Vikas Yojana (PMKVY) aligns with short-term skill certification and RPL; Deen Dayal Upadhyaya Grameen Kaushalya Yojana (DDU-GKY) aligns with placement-linked skill training for rural poor youth; National Apprenticeship Promotion Scheme (NAPS) aligns with stipend cost-sharing support to employers; and SHREYES aligns with on-the-job apprenticeship opportunities for general stream graduates.
The correct alignment pairs each major government initiative with its accurate statutory objective: PMKVY provides short-term skill certification and RPL; DDU-GKY mandates placement-linked training for poor rural youth; NAPS reimburses stipend costs to incentivize employers; and SHREYES bridges employability gaps specifically for general stream (non-technical) graduates.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the mandate of PMKVY
PMKVY focuses on industry-relevant short-term skill training and Recognition of Prior Learning (RPL).
It is designed to encourage skill certification for youth across unorganized and organized sectors.
2
Identify the mandate of DDU-GKY
DDU-GKY is a placement-linked skill development initiative focused specifically on rural poor youth.
It aims to diversify rural household incomes under the National Rural Livelihoods Mission.
3
Identify the mechanism of NAPS
NAPS provides financial incentives by reimbursing part of the apprentice stipend to employers.
Direct financial assistance incentivizes private sector establishments to hire and train apprentices.
4
Identify the focus demographic of SHREYES
SHREYES offers skill training and apprenticeship to general non-technical degree graduates.
It addresses employability gaps among general stream graduates in arts, science, and commerce.

Key Concept

Institutional Framework of National Skill Initiatives and Targeted Beneficiary Schemes
Question 2539Question →

With reference to industrial chemical agents and cleansing compounds used in daily life, consider the following statements:

1. Calcium hypochlorite (CaOCl2CaOCl_2), commonly known as bleaching powder, acts as a bleaching agent primarily due to the liberation of nascent oxygen upon reaction with dilute acids or atmospheric carbon dioxide.
2. Hard water reduces the cleansing efficiency of soaps by reacting with sodium or potassium salts of fatty acids to form insoluble calcium and magnesium precipitates.
3. Synthetic detergents containing highly branched-chain alkyl benzene sulfonates are readily biodegradable by microorganisms compared to linear alkyl chain detergents.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: 1 and 2 only

Answer

The correct option is the one stating that statements 1 and 2 only are correct.
Statements 1 and 2 accurately describe fundamental chemical processes: bleaching powder releases nascent oxygen which acts as a powerful oxidizing bleach, and hard water containing dissolved calcium and magnesium ions precipitates fatty acid salts of soaps. Statement 3 is false because highly branched alkyl chains resist microbial breakdown, whereas straight/linear alkyl chain detergents are readily biodegradable.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze statement 1 regarding bleaching powder mechanism
Bleaching powder (CaOCl2CaOCl_2) reacts with dilute acid or atmospheric CO2CO_2 to release hypochlorous acid (HOClHOCl), which decomposes to liberate nascent oxygen ([O][O]). The nascent oxygen oxidizes colored organic matter into colorless compounds. Thus, statement 1 is correct.
Bleaching action of chlorine-based bleaches depends on oxidation via nascent oxygen.
2
Analyze statement 2 regarding soap behavior in hard water
Hard water contains soluble Ca2+Ca^{2+} and Mg2+Mg^{2+} ions. When soap (sodium/potassium salts of fatty acids, e.g., RCOONaRCOONa) is added, it forms insoluble calcium and magnesium carboxylates (scum scum ), removing soap molecules from solution and hindering micelle formation. Thus, statement 2 is correct.
Precipitation of fatty acid salts depletes active surfactant molecules.
3
Analyze statement 3 regarding synthetic detergent structure and biodegradability
Detergents with highly branched alkyl chains cannot be degraded easily by sewage bacteria, leading to persistent foaming and water pollution. Linear alkylbenzene sulfonates (LAS) are straight-chain compounds easily broken down by microorganisms. Therefore, branched-chain detergents are less biodegradable than linear-chain detergents, making statement 3 incorrect.
Steric hindrance from alkyl branching prevents microbial enzymatic breakdown.

Key Concept

Chemical mechanisms of bleaching agents, soap-hard water interactions, and environmental biodegradability of surfactant hydrocarbon chain structures.
Question 2540Question →

Which of the following statements regarding common cybersecurity threats and security mechanisms are correct?

Select all that apply

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Phishing is a social engineering attack where deceptive messages are used to trick individuals into revealing sensitive credentials or information.; Ransomware is malicious software designed to block access to data or systems, typically by encrypting files, until a ransom is paid.

Answer

The statements defining Phishing as a deceptive credential-harvesting attack and Ransomware as file-encrypting extortion malware are correct.
The correct statements correctly describe social engineering (phishing) and extortion malware (ransomware). Both represent foundational concepts in information security awareness.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Evaluate the definition of Phishing.
Confirmed correct. Phishing uses fraudulent communications (emails, websites) to trick targets into providing sensitive information.
Matches the fundamental definition of social engineering in information security.
2
Evaluate the definition of Ransomware.
Confirmed correct. Ransomware locks or encrypts system resources to extort payment from victims.
Matches standard cybersecurity classification of malware behaviors.
3
Evaluate the description of a Firewall.
Confirmed incorrect. Firewalls inspect traffic according to defined rules (allowing legitimate traffic and blocking unauthorized traffic), not blocking everything blindly.
Misinterprets network security filtering mechanisms.
4
Evaluate the statement regarding Symmetric Cryptography.
Confirmed incorrect. Dual public/private keys are used in asymmetric (public-key) cryptography, not symmetric cryptography.
Confuses symmetric and asymmetric cryptographic key structures.

Key Concept

Basic Cybersecurity Threat Vector Definitions and Security Controls
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