Examkin

All practice questions

4581 questions

All types4,581Multiple choice2,372Multiple select712True / False174Numeric188Matching670Ordering415Fill in the blank20Short answer30
Question 2501Question →

Consider the following statements regarding 'Rudram-1', India's indigenously developed missile system:

1. It is India's first indigenous anti-radiation missile, designed to target and destroy enemy radar and communication tracking installations.
2. It uses a liquid-fuel ramjet engine to sustain supersonic propulsion throughout its flight path.
3. It is integrated onto Su-30MKI fighter aircraft and operates using a passive homing head seeker.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: 1 and 3 only

Answer

1 and 3 only
Rudram-1 is India's first indigenously developed anti-radiation missile (NGARM), created by DRDO for air-to-surface strikes against enemy radar and communication infrastructure. It is deployed on Su-30MKI fighter jets and guided by a passive homing head. Its propulsion uses a dual-pulse solid rocket motor rather than a liquid-fuel ramjet engine. Therefore, statements 1 and 3 are correct.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze Statement 1 regarding the operational role of Rudram-1.
Rudram-1 was developed by DRDO as India's premier Next Generation Anti-Radiation Missile (NGARM) to neutralize enemy radio-frequency sources, surveillance radars, and communication sites. Thus, Statement 1 is correct.
Anti-radiation missiles lock onto electromagnetic emissions produced by ground-based enemy radars.
2
Evaluate Statement 2 regarding the propulsion mechanism of Rudram-1.
Rudram-1 is propelled by a dual-pulse solid rocket motor, providing variable thrust during different flight phases rather than using a liquid-fuel ramjet. Thus, Statement 2 is incorrect.
Confusing solid-propellant rocket motors with liquid ramjet engines is a standard distractor in defense technology assessments.
3
Evaluate Statement 3 regarding launch platform integration and guidance systems.
Rudram-1 is integrated into the Indian Air Force's Su-30MKI fighter aircraft and employs a Passive Homing Head (PHH) system to track emissions across a broad band of frequencies. Thus, Statement 3 is correct.
Passive homing head sensors allow the missile to detect and track target signals without revealing its own presence.

Key Concept

Rudram-1 Anti-Radiation Missile and Solid-Propellant Propulsion
Estimated Time:1m 30s
Question 2502Question →

Match the human hormonal deficiency conditions listed in List-I with their corresponding causative hormonal imbalances in List-II:

Click a left item, then click its matching right item

Items

Diabetes Insipidus
Addison's Disease
Cretinism
Diabetes Mellitus

Matches

Show answer & explanation

Answer

Diabetes Insipidus corresponds to Hyposecretion of Vasopressin; Addison's Disease corresponds to Hyposecretion of Glucocorticoids; Cretinism corresponds to Congenital deficiency of Thyroid Hormone; Diabetes Mellitus corresponds to Hyposecretion or impaired action of Insulin.
Each pathological condition directly matches its underlying endocrine gland defect: Diabetes Insipidus is caused by vasopressin deficiency, Addison's disease by adrenocortical steroid (cortisol) deficiency, Cretinism by infantile hypothyroidism, and Diabetes Mellitus by pancreatic insulin deficiency.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the etiology of Diabetes Insipidus
Vasopressin (ADH) controls water retention in kidney tubules. Its deficiency causes Diabetes Insipidus.
Deficiency of ADH prevents reabsorption of water, causing polyuria and polydipsia without glucose elevation.
2
Identify the etiology of Addison's Disease
Destruction or autoimmune impairment of the adrenal cortex causes deficiency of Cortisol, leading to Addison's disease.
The adrenal cortex produces glucocorticoids essential for electrolyte balance and stress response.
3
Identify the etiology of Cretinism
Thyroid hormone deficiency during embryonic development or early infancy causes Cretinism.
Thyroxine is vital for central nervous system maturation and skeletal growth.
4
Identify the etiology of Diabetes Mellitus
Deficiency in secretion or activity of pancreatic Insulin causes Diabetes Mellitus.
Insulin facilitates cellular uptake of glucose; its absence leads to systemic hyperglycemia.

Key Concept

Human Endocrine Physiology and Hormonal Deficiency Pathology
Question 2503Question →

Which of the following provisions and administrative features were introduced by the Indian Councils Act of 1861? Select all correct statements.

Select all that apply

Show answer & explanation

Answer: It initiated the process of legislative decentralization by restoring law-making powers to the Bombay and Madras Presidencies.; It granted statutory recognition to the portfolio system introduced by Lord Canning in 1859.; It empowered the Governor-General (Viceroy) to issue ordinances during emergencies without the concurrence of the Legislative Council.

Answer

The provisions concerning the initiation of legislative decentralization, statutory recognition of the portfolio system, and empowering the Viceroy to issue emergency ordinances are correct regarding the Indian Councils Act of 1861.
The Indian Councils Act of 1861 is a landmark in Indian constitutional history. It initiated legislative decentralization by restoring law-making powers to the Bombay and Madras Presidencies, gave legal recognition to the portfolio system initiated by Lord Canning in 1859, and granted the Viceroy power to issue ordinances during emergencies with a six-month tenure.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the impact of the Act of 1861 on provincial legislative powers.
The Act restored legislative power to the Bombay and Madras Presidencies, thereby initiating provincial legislative devolution.
To test whether decentralization began under this legislation.
2
Examine executive administration changes introduced in 1861.
The portfolio system of 1859 gained statutory backing, and the Viceroy received emergency ordinance-making powers lasting six months.
To verify the administrative and ordinance provisions of the Act.
3
Verify the origin of central bicameralism in British Indian administration.
Bicameralism was established by the Government of India Act 1919, not the Act of 1861.
To identify and eliminate the misattributed provision.

Key Concept

Key Provisions and Constitutional Significance of the Indian Councils Act of 1861
Question 2504Question →

Regarding the technological specifications, moderator requirements, and fuel cycles of nuclear power reactors developed under India's nuclear energy roadmap, which of the following statements are correct?

Select all that apply

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Pressurised Heavy Water Reactors (PHWRs) utilize natural uranium as fuel and heavy water (D2OD_2O) as both coolant and moderator.; Fast Breeder Reactors (FBRs) utilize liquid sodium as a coolant and operate without a neutron moderator to sustain fast neutron fission.; The Kamini research reactor at Kalpakkam is notable for using Uranium-233 fuel bred from thorium irradiation.

Answer

The statements stating that PHWRs use natural uranium with heavy water as moderator/coolant, FBRs use liquid sodium without a moderator, and the Kamini reactor uses Uranium-233 fuel are all correct.
Pressurised Heavy Water Reactors efficiently maintain criticality using natural uranium because heavy water minimizes neutron capture. Fast Breeder Reactors require fast neutrons to breed fissile plutonium, which necessitates a non-moderating coolant like liquid sodium. Kamini is a pioneering reactor running on Uranium-233 fuel.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Evaluate the moderator and fuel requirements of Pressurised Heavy Water Reactors (PHWRs).
PHWRs use natural uranium containing 0.7%0.7\% U-235. Heavy water (D2OD_2O) slows down neutrons without capturing them excessively, making fuel enrichment unnecessary.
Heavy water has a very low neutron capture cross-section compared to light water.
2
Analyze the operational physics of Fast Breeder Reactors (FBRs).
FBRs require fast neutrons to transmute fertile U-238 into fissile Pu-239. Liquid sodium is used as coolant because it efficiently removes heat without moderating neutron speed.
Adding a moderator would thermalize neutrons, preventing fast-neutron breeding reaction cycles.
3
Examine the fuel characteristics of the Kamini research reactor.
Kamini uses U-233 fuel generated from India's thorium reserves, marking a key milestone in Stage-3 technology development.
It serves as a neutron radiography facility demonstrating the utilization of the Thorium fuel cycle.

Key Concept

Nuclear reactor physics, coolant/moderator selection, and stage-wise fuel cycles in nuclear power programs.
Question 2505Question →

Consider the following statements regarding the State Human Rights Commission (SHRC) established under the Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993:

1. The Chairperson and members of the SHRC are appointed by the Governor of the state on the recommendation of a statutory selection committee.
2. The Chairperson or any member of the SHRC can be removed from office only by an order of the Governor of the state on the grounds of proved misbehaviour or incapacity.
3. The statutory selection committee for recommending appointments includes the Leader of the Opposition in the State Legislative Assembly.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: 1 and 3 only

Answer

1 and 3 only
The statements establishing appointment by the Governor (Statement 1) and inclusion of the Leader of the Opposition in the selection committee (Statement 3) are correct. The statement suggesting that the Governor can remove SHRC members (Statement 2) is incorrect because removal authority is vested solely in the President of India under Section 23 of the Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze Statement 1 regarding the appointing authority of the State Human Rights Commission
Statement 1 is correct. Under Section 22 of the Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993, the Chairperson and members of an SHRC are appointed by the Governor by warrant under his hand and seal.
Determine statutory appointment powers under the 1993 Act.
2
Analyze Statement 2 regarding the removal procedure and authority
Statement 2 is incorrect. Under Section 23 of the Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993, the Chairperson or any member of an SHRC can only be removed from office by an order of the President of India (and not the Governor) after an inquiry by the Supreme Court.
Identify the distinct constitutional/statutory separation between appointment and removal authorities.
3
Analyze Statement 3 regarding the composition of the selection committee
Statement 3 is correct. The selection committee includes the Chief Minister (Head), Speaker of the Legislative Assembly, State Minister in charge of the Department of Home, and Leader of the Opposition in the Legislative Assembly.
Verify statutory membership requirements for the SHRC recommendation committee.

Key Concept

State Human Rights Commission (SHRC) appointment committee composition and President-only removal power under the Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993
Estimated Time:1m 0s
Question 2506Question →

Consider the following statements regarding India's nuclear technology and three-stage nuclear power programme:

1. Pressurised Heavy Water Reactors (PHWRs), which form the backbone of Stage-1 of the programme, utilize natural uranium as fuel and heavy water (D2OD_2O) as both neutron moderator and coolant.
2. The Prototype Fast Breeder Reactor (PFBR) at Kalpakkam (Stage-2) operates using fast neutrons without a neutron moderator, employing liquid sodium as the heat transfer coolant.
3. In Stage-3 of the nuclear energy roadmap, Thorium-232 is designed to be used directly as a primary fissile fuel without requiring prior nuclear transmutation into Uranium-233.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: 1 and 2 only

Answer

1 and 2 only
The correct response is the option stating '1 and 2 only'. Stage-1 PHWRs use natural uranium fueled with heavy water (D2OD_2O) as both coolant and moderator. Stage-2 Fast Breeder Reactors operate without a moderator to maintain fast neutron flux for breeding Plutonium-239, using liquid sodium as the heat exchange medium. Statement 3 is false because Thorium-232 is fertile and cannot undergo direct nuclear fission without prior transmutation into Uranium-233.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Evaluate Statement 1 regarding Stage-1 Pressurised Heavy Water Reactors (PHWRs).
Statement 1 is correct. PHWRs utilize unenriched natural uranium (≈0.7% U-235\approx 0.7\% \text{ U-235}) as fuel. Heavy water (D2OD_2O) serves as both moderator and coolant due to its extremely low neutron absorption cross-section.
Low neutron absorption by heavy water allows critical chain reactions to be sustained with natural uranium fuel.
2
Evaluate Statement 2 regarding Stage-2 Fast Breeder Reactor technology.
Statement 2 is correct. Fast Breeder Reactors like the PFBR at Kalpakkam do not use a moderator because high-energy (fast) neutrons are essential to convert fertile Uranium-238 into fissile Plutonium-239. Liquid sodium is used as a coolant because of its excellent thermal conductivity and low moderation properties.
Moderators slow down neutrons, which would prevent the fast-neutron breeding ratio from exceeding unity.
3
Evaluate Statement 3 regarding Stage-3 Thorium utilization.
Statement 3 is incorrect. Thorium-232 is a fertile isotope, not a fissile isotope. It cannot sustain a fission chain reaction on its own and must absorb a neutron to undergo nuclear transmutation (via Beta decay) into fissile Uranium-233 (232Th+n→233Th→β−233Pa→β−233U^{232}\text{Th} + n \rightarrow ^{233}\text{Th} \xrightarrow{\beta^-} ^{233}\text{Pa} \xrightarrow{\beta^-} ^{233}\text{U}).
Fertile materials cannot serve directly as primary fissile fuel without prior conversion.
4
Select the correct combination of true statements.
Statements 1 and 2 are true, making the combination '1 and 2 only' the correct choice.
Only statement 3 contains a conceptual error in nuclear physics.

Key Concept

India's Three-Stage Nuclear Power Programme (PHWR vs FBR vs Thorium Fuel Cycle)
Question 2507Question →

Consider everyday applications and principles of wave physics and acoustics. Which of the following statements are correct?

Select all that apply

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Ultrasonic waves are widely utilized in medical sonography because their short wavelength allows high spatial resolution for imaging soft tissues.; SONAR (Sound Navigation and Ranging) technology relies on the reflection of ultrasonic acoustic pulses to determine the distance and depth of submerged objects.

Answer

The correct statements are that ultrasonic waves are utilized in medical sonography due to their short wavelength yielding high spatial resolution, and SONAR technology relies on the reflection of ultrasonic acoustic pulses to measure underwater distances.
Ultrasonic medical imaging relies on short wavelengths for high spatial resolution, and SONAR relies on acoustic reflection to calculate depth. Both statements accurately describe sound wave phenomena.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the sound resolution characteristics of ultrasonic waves
Since wave speed v=fλv = f \lambda, higher frequency ff corresponds to smaller wavelength λ\lambda. Smaller wavelengths experience less diffraction around small objects, providing high-resolution images in medical ultrasound.
Resolving power increases as the wavelength of the probing wave decreases.
2
Evaluate the mechanism behind the Doppler Effect
Relative motion between source and observer changes the arrival rate of wave fronts, causing an apparent frequency shift f′=f(vv−vs)f' = f \left(\frac{v}{v - v_s}\right). The intrinsic source frequency ff remains constant.
Distinguishing between emitted source frequency and observed relative frequency is critical for Doppler analysis.
3
Examine SONAR operating principles and reverberation physics
SONAR uses echo timing of reflected ultrasound pulses (d=v⋅t2d = \frac{v \cdot t}{2}). Reverberation stems from multiple specular and diffuse reflections off boundaries, whereas porous absorbent materials damp reverberation.
Acoustic reflection enables distance measurement in SONAR, while reflection persistence causes reverberation.

Key Concept

Ultrasonic wave applications, Doppler effect mechanism, and acoustic reflection
Question 2508Question →

Regarding the constitutional provisions and judicial precedents governing the pardoning power of the President of India under Article 72, which of the following statements are correct?

Select all that apply

Show answer & explanation

Answer: The President can grant pardons, reprieves, respites, or remissions of punishment in all cases where the sentence is passed by a Court Martial.; The exercise of pardoning power under Article 72 is performed by the President on the aid and advice of the Union Council of Ministers.

Answer

The correct statements are that the President's pardoning power extends to sentences by a Court Martial and that this executive power is exercised on the aid and advice of the Union Council of Ministers.
The President's pardoning power under Article 72 extends to sentences awarded by a Court Martial, and this executive power is exercised on the aid and advice of the Council of Ministers rather than as a personal discretion.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Examine the constitutional scope of Article 72 regarding military courts.
Article 72(1)(a) explicitly grants the President authority to suspend, remit, or commute sentences passed by a Court Martial, a power not shared by state Governors under Article 161.
To verify the specific jurisdictions covered under presidential pardoning power.
2
Evaluate the executive authority mechanism under Article 74 in relation to clemency.
In parliamentary governance, executive power under Article 72 is exercised on the aid and advice of the Union Council of Ministers.
To determine whether clemency is a personal discretion of the President or a Cabinet decision.
3
Analyze judicial precedents concerning procedural requirements and judicial oversight.
Judicial rulings establish that an oral hearing is not mandatory (Kehar Singh case), and presidential decisions remain subject to limited judicial review on grounds of arbitrariness or mala fides (Epuru Sudhakar case).
To test common misconceptions about constitutional procedures and judicial review.

Key Concept

Pardoning Power of the President under Article 72 and Constitutional Boundaries
Question 2509Question →

Consider the following statements regarding national income accounting identities and price deflators in India:

1. Gross Value Added (GVA) at basic prices is calculated by adding net production taxes (production taxes minus production subsidies) to GVA at factor cost.
2. Gross Domestic Product (GDP) at market prices is obtained by adding net product taxes (product taxes minus product subsidies) to GVA at basic prices.
3. The GDP Deflator incorporates price changes of imported goods consumed domestically, whereas the Consumer Price Index (CPI) reflects only domestically produced goods.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: 1 and 2 only

Answer

Statements 1 and 2 are correct, while Statement 3 is incorrect.
Statements 1 and 2 accurately describe the relationship between Factor Cost, Basic Prices, and Market Prices established under India's revised national accounts methodology. Statement 3 is incorrect because the GDP Deflator strictly covers domestically produced output and excludes imports, whereas the Consumer Price Index includes imported consumer items.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Evaluate Statement 1 regarding GVA at basic prices
Statement 1 is correct
GVA at basic prices equals GVA at factor cost plus net production taxes (production taxes minus production subsidies). Production taxes (like land revenue and stamp duty) are independent of the volume of production.
2
Evaluate Statement 2 regarding GDP at market prices
Statement 2 is correct
GDP at market prices is derived by adding net product taxes (product taxes like GST minus product subsidies) to GVA at basic prices.
3
Evaluate Statement 3 regarding GDP Deflator versus CPI
Statement 3 is incorrect
The GDP Deflator measures the price level changes of all domestically produced final goods and services included in GDP and excludes imported goods. Conversely, the Consumer Price Index (CPI) includes prices of imported consumer goods.

Key Concept

National Income Accounting Identities and Price Deflators
Question 2510Question →

Which of the following statements regarding biogeochemical cycles and ecological succession are correct?

Select all that apply

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Gaseous nutrient cycles have their primary reservoir pool located in the atmosphere or hydrosphere.; Secondary succession generally proceeds much faster than primary succession because soil or organic debris is already present.

Answer

The correct statements are that gaseous nutrient cycles have their primary reservoir pool in the atmosphere or hydrosphere, and that secondary succession proceeds faster than primary succession because soil or organic matter is already present.
Gaseous cycles maintain their reservoir pools in gaseous or aquatic forms in the atmosphere and hydrosphere. Additionally, secondary succession advances at a faster rate than primary succession because a fertile soil bed and seed banks already exist.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the nature of reservoir pools in gaseous biogeochemical cycles.
Gaseous cycles, including carbon and nitrogen, store their primary nutrient pool in the atmosphere or hydrosphere, enabling fast cycling.
This distinguishes gaseous cycles from sedimentary cycles whose reservoirs are in the Earth's crust.
2
Evaluate the mechanism of nitrogen assimilation by plants.
Atmospheric nitrogen gas (N2N_2) cannot be directly absorbed by green plants; it requires fixation by prokaryotes into nitrates or ammonium ions.
Plant root systems only take up inorganic nitrogen compounds soluble in soil water.
3
Compare the rates and conditions of primary versus secondary succession.
Secondary succession takes place on previously vegetated land with existing soil structure, making its progression faster than primary succession.
Primary succession requires a lengthy soil-building phase by pioneer organisms like lichens.
4
Differentiate hydrarch and xerarch ecological succession types.
Succession beginning in water bodies is hydrarch, while succession starting in dry environments is xerarch.
Hydrarch succession transitions wet environments toward mesic climax communities.

Key Concept

Classification of Biogeochemical Cycles and Dynamics of Primary vs. Secondary Ecological Succession
Question 2511Question →

Plant growth regulators play a crucial role in agricultural practices and plant development. Which of the following plant hormones is primarily responsible for promoting fruit ripening?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Ethylene

Answer

Ethylene is the plant hormone primarily responsible for promoting fruit ripening.
Ethylene is a hydrocarbon gas acting as a natural plant hormone that accelerates cellular respiration, starch-to-sugar conversion, and tissue softening associated with fruit ripening.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the primary physiological function required by the question.
The requirement is to identify the hormone responsible for fruit ripening.
Different plant hormones regulate distinct physiological and developmental processes.
2
Evaluate the functions of major plant hormones.
Ethylene functions as a gaseous regulator that hastens respiration and fruit ripening (climacteric ripening). Auxins handle tropisms and apical dominance, gibberellins promote seed germination and stem growth, and abscisic acid mediates stress responses and dormancy.
Matching each hormone to its primary role distinguishes ripening regulators from growth or stress regulators.

Key Concept

Plant Hormones and Fruit Ripening Regulation
Estimated Time:45s
Question 2512Question →

Match the water-soluble vitamins listed in List-I with their characteristic deficiency pathologies described in List-II:

Click a left item, then click its matching right item

Items

Vitamin B1 (Thiamine)
Vitamin B3 (Niacin)
Vitamin B6 (Pyridoxine)
Vitamin B12 (Cobalamin)

Matches

Show answer & explanation

Answer

Vitamin B1 matches with Beriberi and Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome; Vitamin B3 matches with Pellagra; Vitamin B6 matches with Sideroblastic anemia and peripheral neuropathy; Vitamin B12 matches with Pernicious anemia and subacute combined degeneration of the spinal cord.
Each water-soluble vitamin fulfills a distinct biochemical coenzymatic role. Thiamine (B1) is essential for oxidative decarboxylation in carbohydrate metabolism, preventing cardiac and neurological Beriberi. Niacin (B3) generates NAD/NADP for redox reactions, preventing Pellagra. Pyridoxine (B6) acts as a cofactor in transamination and heme formation, preventing sideroblastic anemia and neuropathy. Cobalamin (B12) is necessary for DNA maturation and myelin maintenance, preventing pernicious anemia and spinal cord degeneration.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze Vitamin B1 (Thiamine) function and deficiency state
Thiamine pyrophosphate (TPP) is critical for pyruvate dehydrogenase and alpha-ketoglutarate dehydrogenase. Deficiency impairs ATP production, causing Beriberi and Wernicke-Korsakoff encephalopathy.
Identify the primary metabolic pathway affected by Thiamine impairment.
2
Analyze Vitamin B3 (Niacin) function and deficiency state
Niacin forms NAD+/NADP+. Its deficiency manifests as Pellagra, characterized by the 3 Ds: dermatitis, diarrhea, and dementia.
Identify the systemic organ systems affected by NAD depletion.
3
Analyze Vitamin B6 (Pyridoxine) function and deficiency state
Pyridoxal phosphate (PLP) is essential for neurotransmitter synthesis and delta-aminolevulinic acid (ALA) synthase in heme synthesis. Deficiency produces sideroblastic anemia and peripheral neuropathy.
Differentiate B6-dependent microcytic anemia from B12 macrocytic anemia.
4
Analyze Vitamin B12 (Cobalamin) function and deficiency state
Cobalamin is required for methionine synthase and methylmalonyl-CoA mutase. Lack of intrinsic factor leads to pernicious anemia (megaloblastic) and subacute combined degeneration of the spinal cord.
Establish the specific neuro-hematological link unique to Cobalamin deficiency.

Key Concept

Metabolic roles and pathological manifestations of B-complex vitamin deficiencies in human physiology
Question 2513Question →

In public administration, handling a subordinate's grievance requires following a structured procedural workflow to ensure due process and workplace harmony. Arrange the following administrative steps in the correct chronological sequence from first to last:

Drag items to arrange them in the correct order

Show answer & explanation

Answer

The correct sequence starts with formally logging the grievance, followed by conducting a preliminary fact-finding inquiry, issuing a reasoned administrative decision, and concluding with a periodic post-resolution review.
Standard administrative governance dictates a linear progression of grievance redressal: formal documentation must precede investigative fact-finding, which then informs a reasoned decision, and the process closes with monitoring compliance and workplace climate.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the initial procedural entry point.
Formally receiving and logging the written grievance establishes the official record.
Administrative due process requires establishing a formal record before initiating inquiry.
2
Determine the investigative phase.
Conducting a preliminary fact-finding inquiry gathers facts objectively.
Decisions cannot be made without examining evidence and adhering to principles of natural justice.
3
Identify the decision-making phase.
Issuing a reasoned administrative decision provides remedial actions.
Inquiry findings must translate into formal, written directives for workplace resolution.
4
Determine the oversight and evaluation phase.
Conducting a periodic post-resolution review maintains long-term harmony.
Follow-up ensures compliance with directives and monitors subordinate management stability.

Key Concept

Chronological Workflow of Administrative Grievance Redressal
Question 2514Question →

Match the institutional bodies and mechanisms of the Indian financial architecture in List I with their corresponding primary operational functions or features in List II. Select the correct matching pair combinations.

Click a left item, then click its matching right item

Items

Board for Financial Supervision (BFS)
Monetary Policy Committee (MPC)
Financial Stability and Development Council (FSDC)
Deposit Insurance and Credit Guarantee Corporation (DICGC)

Matches

Show answer & explanation

Answer

Board for Financial Supervision (BFS) matches with the integrated supervisory committee for commercial banks, NBFCs, and primary dealers; Monetary Policy Committee (MPC) matches with the six-member statutory body determining the policy repo rate; Financial Stability and Development Council (FSDC) matches with the non-statutory apex body chaired by the Union Finance Minister for inter-regulatory coordination; Deposit Insurance and Credit Guarantee Corporation (DICGC) matches with the wholly owned RBI subsidiary insuring bank deposits up to 5 lakh5\text{ lakh}.
Each institution is matched correctly according to its governance structure: the Board for Financial Supervision handles unified banking oversight; the Monetary Policy Committee determines interest rates for inflation targeting; the Financial Stability and Development Council facilitates macroprudential coordination under the Finance Minister; and the Deposit Insurance and Credit Guarantee Corporation guarantees bank deposits up to 5 lakh5\text{ lakh}.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the primary role and statutory status of the Board for Financial Supervision (BFS).
The BFS functions as the main supervisor for commercial banks, NBFCs, and primary dealers under the guidance of the RBI Central Board.
This pairs BFS with the description focused on integrated supervisory control.
2
Identify the mandate of the Monetary Policy Committee (MPC).
The MPC is a six-member panel established under Section 45ZB of the RBI Act to fix the policy repo rate.
This pairs MPC with the statutory six-member body responsible for setting interest rates.
3
Analyze the structural role of the Financial Stability and Development Council (FSDC).
FSDC is an apex non-statutory body headed by the Union Finance Minister aimed at resolving inter-agency regulatory conflicts.
This pairs FSDC with the non-statutory body chaired by the Finance Minister.
4
Examine the function of the Deposit Insurance and Credit Guarantee Corporation (DICGC).
DICGC is a 100% RBI-owned statutory entity that guarantees customer deposits up to 5 lakh5\text{ lakh}.
This pairs DICGC with the deposit insurance subsidiary providing coverage up to 5 lakh5\text{ lakh}.

Key Concept

Institutional Framework of Indian Financial System and RBI Regulatory Architecture
Question 2515Question →

Which of the following human physiological systems is directly affected by the neurological toxin secreted during an infection by Clostridium tetani, leading to persistent skeletal muscle spasms?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Blockade of inhibitory neurotransmitter release such as GABA and glycine in the central nervous system

Answer

Blockade of inhibitory neurotransmitter release such as GABA and glycine in the central nervous system
Tetanus is caused by the bacterium Clostridium tetani. Its exotoxin, tetanospasmin, selectively prevents the presynaptic release of inhibitory neurotransmitters (such as GABA and glycine) across spinal interneurons. Loss of inhibition leads to hyper-reflexia and violent muscle spasms.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the pathogen and its specific toxin mechanism
Clostridium tetani is an anaerobic bacterium that produces the potent neurotoxin tetanospasmin.
Understanding the pathogen category (bacterial exotoxin) helps distinguish tetanus from viral or protozoan neuromuscular disorders.
2
Analyze the physiological effect of tetanospasmin on neurotransmission
Tetanospasmin retrogradely travels to interneurons in the central nervous system and blocks the release of inhibitory neurotransmitters (glycine and GABA).
Without inhibitory signals, motor neurons fire uncontrollably, resulting in reflex spasms and lockjaw (spastic paralysis).

Key Concept

Tetanus Neurotoxic Pathology and Neuromuscular Physiology
Question 2516Question →

Consider the following statements regarding the cost estimation methodologies used for recommending the Minimum Support Price (MSP) in Indian agriculture:

1. The A2A_2 cost framework accounts for all out-of-pocket expenses incurred by the farmer on inputs such as seeds, fertilizers, pesticides, fuel, and rented land.
2. The Comprehensive Cost (C2C_2) includes A2+FLA_2+FL cost along with the opportunity cost of interest on owned fixed capital assets and the rental value of owned land.
3. The National Commission on Farmers, chaired by Dr. M. S. Swaminathan, recommended that the Minimum Support Price should be determined at a benchmark of at least 50%50\% above the A2+FLA_2+FL cost formula.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: 1 and 2 only

Answer

1 and 2 only
The combination stating that statements 1 and 2 are correct is accurate because A2A_2 cost represents direct paid-out inputs and C2C_2 includes full opportunity costs of capital and land. Statement 3 is false because Dr. M. S. Swaminathan's National Commission on Farmers recommended setting MSP at 50%50\% over C2C_2 rather than A2+FLA_2+FL.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Evaluate Statement 1 regarding the A2A_2 cost concept.
Statement 1 is correct. A2A_2 covers all direct paid-out expenses in cash and kind incurred by the grower (seeds, fertilizers, pesticides, hired labor, leased-in land rent, fuel, irrigation).
It represents the explicit variable costs paid out directly during cultivation.
2
Evaluate Statement 2 regarding the Comprehensive Cost (C2C_2).
Statement 2 is correct. C2C_2 is a holistic cost concept that encompasses A2+FLA_2+FL (which includes imputed family labor value) plus rent paid for leased land, rental value of owned land, and interest on owned fixed capital assets.
It captures both explicit paid-out expenses and implicit opportunity costs of land and capital.
3
Evaluate Statement 3 regarding the Swaminathan Commission recommendation.
Statement 3 is incorrect. The National Commission on Farmers (Swaminathan Commission) recommended fixing MSP at a minimum of 50%50\% over the Comprehensive Cost (C2C_2), not over the A2+FLA_2+FL cost.
While the Government of India aligned the MSP policy in the 2018-19 Union Budget to return at least 50%50\% over A2+FLA_2+FL, the Swaminathan Commission's original recommendation was specifically pegged to C2C_2.

Key Concept

Agricultural Cost Estimation Formulas (A2, A2+FL, C2) and MSP Policy Framework
Question 2517Question →

Which of the following cellular organelles is primarily responsible for generating energy in the form of ATP during cellular respiration?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Mitochondria

Answer

Mitochondria
Mitochondria are double-membrane organelles where aerobic respiration takes place, yielding ATP through oxidative phosphorylation.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the biological process mentioned in the stem.
The process described is cellular respiration and the synthesis of ATP (adenosine triphosphate).
Cellular respiration is the metabolic pathway that extracts chemical energy from nutrients.
2
Match the biological process to the corresponding cell organelle.
Mitochondria contain the enzymes for the Krebs cycle and the electron transport chain required to produce ATP.
Mitochondria act as the site of aerobic respiration in eukaryotic cells.

Key Concept

Function of Mitochondria in Cellular Respiration
Estimated Time:45s
Question 2518Question →

Arrange the following key historical events associated with constitutional developments and the transfer of power in India in correct chronological sequence, from the earliest to the latest.

Drag items to arrange them in the correct order

Show answer & explanation

Answer

The correct chronological sequence of events is: (1) Desai-Liaquat Pact draft proposal (January 1945), (2) Convening of the Simla Conference (June 1945), (3) Arrival of the Cabinet Mission in New Delhi (March 1946), (4) Observance of Direct Action Day (August 1946), and (5) Clement Attlee's parliamentary statement on transfer of power (February 1947).
The events progress chronologically as follows:
1. Desai-Liaquat Pact (January 1945)
2. Simla Conference / Wavell Plan (June 1945)
3. Cabinet Mission's arrival in New Delhi (March 1946)
4. Direct Action Day (August 16, 1946)
5. Clement Attlee's declaration of British withdrawal (February 20, 1947).

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the exact year and month for each milestone event listed.
Desai-Liaquat Pact occurred in January 1945; Simla Conference convened in June 1945; Cabinet Mission arrived in March 1946; Direct Action Day occurred in August 1946; Clement Attlee's announcement was made in February 1947.
Establishing accurate dates is mandatory for historical chronological ordering.
2
Sequence the 1945 events in order of occurrence.
The Desai-Liaquat Pact draft (January 1945) preceded the Simla Conference called by Lord Wavell (June 1945).
Inter-party negotiations occurred earlier in the year before the Viceroy's formal initiative.
3
Sequence the 1946 events following the 1945 developments.
The Cabinet Mission arrived in March 1946, whereas the Muslim League's call for Direct Action Day occurred later in August 1946.
Direct Action Day was called as a response to the political fallout following the Cabinet Mission proposals.
4
Place the 1947 event at the end of the timeline.
Clement Attlee's announcement on February 20, 1947, set a firm date for ending British rule, following the events of 1945 and 1946.
This statement marked the penultimate diplomatic step before the Mountbatten Plan of June 1947.

Key Concept

Chronological Milestones in the Transfer of Power (1945-1947)
Question 2519Question →

Optical fibers are widely used in modern telecommunication networks and medical endoscopy to transmit light signals across long distances with minimal loss of intensity. Which optical phenomenon is primarily responsible for guiding light through the core of an optical fiber?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Total internal reflection at the core-cladding boundary

Answer

Total internal reflection at the core-cladding boundary
Optical fibers operate on the principle of total internal reflection. The inner core has a higher refractive index than the surrounding cladding. When light signals enter the fiber at an appropriate angle, they repeatedly strike the core-cladding interface at an angle greater than the critical angle, reflecting entirely within the core with negligible signal loss.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the structural composition of an optical fiber
An optical fiber consists of an inner core with a higher refractive index (n1n_1) surrounded by an outer cladding with a lower refractive index (n2n_2).
Light transmission requires light to travel from a denser medium toward a rarer medium.
2
Determine the conditions for total internal reflection
When light inside the core hits the core-cladding boundary at an angle of incidence greater than the critical angle (θc=arcsin⁡(n2/n1)\theta_c = \arcsin(n_2/n_1)), no light refracts into the cladding.
100% of the light energy is reflected back into the core, allowing high-efficiency propagation over long distances.

Key Concept

Total Internal Reflection in Optical Fibers
Question 2520Question →

When the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) increases the Repo Rate during a monetary tightening phase to manage inflation, which of the following is the direct operational impact on commercial banks and short-term money markets?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: The borrowing cost for commercial banks accessing funds through the Liquidity Adjustment Facility (LAF) increases, driving up short-term money market rates and constraining credit expansion.

Answer

An increase in the Repo Rate raises short-term borrowing costs for commercial banks under the Liquidity Adjustment Facility (LAF), driving up short-term money market rates and constraining bank credit expansion.
The Repo Rate is the key policy rate at which commercial banks borrow short-term funds from the RBI against approved government securities under the Liquidity Adjustment Facility (LAF). Raising the Repo Rate elevates the marginal cost of funds for banks, transmitting higher interest rates across short-term money markets and dampening credit expansion to control inflation.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the monetary policy instrument specified
The instrument is the Repo Rate, which serves as the primary policy rate under the RBI's Liquidity Adjustment Facility (LAF).
Understanding the operational role of the Repo Rate is required to determine its immediate monetary transmission mechanism.
2
Analyze the economic impact of raising the Repo Rate
A higher Repo Rate increases the interest cost incurred by commercial banks when borrowing overnight funds from the RBI against government securities.
Banks pass on higher borrowing costs to borrowers by increasing their lending rates and raising short-term money market rates.
3
Differentiate the Repo Rate from other RBI quantitative tools and corridor rates
CRR regulates non-interest-bearing cash reserve balances, while bond yields rise (not fall) when policy rates increase. The Standing Deposit Facility (SDF) rate forms the lower bound of the LAF corridor, while MSF forms the upper bound.
Distinguishing between reserve requirements, corridor bounds, and policy rates verifies that LAF borrowing cost escalation is the unique correct operational effect.

Key Concept

Repo Rate Transmission and Liquidity Adjustment Facility (LAF)
PreviousPage 126 / 230Next
All practice questions — State PSC Exam | Examkin