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Question 2741Question →

With reference to the historic Tebhaga Movement (1946–1947) in Bengal, consider the following statements:

1. It was spearheaded by the Kisan Sabha (peasant front of the Communist Party of India), demanding that bargadars (sharecroppers) retain a two-thirds share of the harvested produce instead of the traditional half share.
2. The movement drew major justification from the recommendations of the Land Revenue Commission (Floud Commission).
3. The agitation was organized under the direct leadership of the Indian National Congress as part of the Civil Disobedience Movement against the British Raj.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: 1 and 2 only

Answer

Statements 1 and 2 are correct. The Tebhaga movement in Bengal was spearheaded by the Communist Kisan Sabha demanding two-thirds of the harvest for sharecroppers, backed by the Floud Commission recommendations. Statement 3 is incorrect because the movement took place in 1946–1947 under communist peasant leadership, not during the Civil Disobedience Movement under the Congress.
The option selecting statements 1 and 2 only is correct because the Tebhaga movement in Bengal (1946–1947) was initiated by the Bengal Provincial Kisan Sabha to demand two-thirds of the produce for bargadars (sharecroppers) based on the 1940 Floud Commission recommendations. Statement 3 is false as it misattributes the movement to the Congress party during the Civil Disobedience era.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze Statement 1 regarding the objective and leadership of the Tebhaga Movement.
Statement 1 is correct. 'Tebhaga' literally means 'three shares'. The Bengal Provincial Kisan Sabha led the bargadars (sharecroppers) in demanding two-thirds share of the harvest for themselves and reducing the jotedars' (landlords') share to one-third.
Establishing the central economic demand and organizational leadership of the movement.
2
Analyze Statement 2 regarding institutional backing and commission reports.
Statement 2 is correct. The Land Revenue Commission appointed by the Bengal government (headed by Sir Francis Floud) had recommended in 1940 that bargadars should receive two-thirds of the yield.
Identifying the official commission report that catalyzed peasant demands.
3
Analyze Statement 3 regarding political affiliation and timeline context.
Statement 3 is incorrect. The Tebhaga Movement occurred in 1946–1947, immediately preceding Indian independence, and was organized by the Communist Party of India through the Kisan Sabha, not during the Civil Disobedience Movement (1930s) by the Congress.
Differentiating regional peasant movement leadership and chronology from national Congress campaigns.

Key Concept

Tebhaga Movement and Peasant Struggles in Bengal History
Estimated Time:2m 0s
Question 2742Question →

Consider the following statements regarding the eligibility criteria and operational framework of the 'Mukhyamantri Ladli Behna Yojana' launched by the Government of Madhya Pradesh:

1. It provides direct financial assistance of ₹1,250 per month to eligible resident women in the age bracket of 21 to 60 years.
2. To qualify, the combined annual family income of the beneficiary must be less than ₹2.5 lakh, and no family member should be an active income tax payer.
3. Families owning up to 10 acres of agricultural land are eligible, provided the land is classified as unirrigated.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: 1 and 2 only

Answer

The statement combination '1 and 2 only' is correct.
Statements 1 and 2 are accurate. The Mukhyamantri Ladli Behna Yojana of Madhya Pradesh delivers ₹1,250 per month to married/widowed/divorced/abandoned women aged 21 to 60 years whose family income is under ₹2.5 lakh per annum and contains no income tax payer. Statement 3 is false because families possessing 5 acres or more of agricultural land are excluded.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Evaluate Statement 1 regarding financial quantum and target age group.
Statement 1 is correct. The scheme transfers ₹1,250 monthly directly via DBT to eligible women aged 21–60 years.
The lower age limit was reduced from 23 to 21 years by the state government to expand coverage.
2
Evaluate Statement 2 regarding income ceiling and tax status exclusions.
Statement 2 is correct. Families with self-declared annual income exceeding ₹2.5 lakh or having any income tax payer member are excluded.
These provisions ensure target social assistance reaches socio-economically weaker households.
3
Evaluate Statement 3 regarding landholding exclusion limits.
Statement 3 is incorrect. The landholding exclusion rule mandates that families owning 5 acres (or more) of land are excluded.
Irrigation status does not relax the 5-acre absolute land ceiling constraint under the official scheme norms.

Key Concept

State Welfare Scheme Eligibility Provisions and Exclusion Rules
Question 2743Question →

Match the prominent leaders of regional historical movements and state uprisings listed in Column I with their corresponding movements in Column II.

Click a left item, then click its matching right item

Items

Veer Surendra Sai
Sidhu and Kanhu Murmu
Tirot Sing
Vasudev Balwant Phadke

Matches

Show answer & explanation

Answer

Veer Surendra Sai pairs with Sambalpur Uprising (1827–1862); Sidhu and Kanhu Murmu pair with Santhal Rebellion (1855–1856); Tirot Sing pairs with Khasi Uprising (1829–1833); Vasudev Balwant Phadke pairs with Ramosi Peasant Revolt (1879).
Each leader is correctly matched to their historical movement based on regional state history records: Veer Surendra Sai led the Sambalpur Uprising in Odisha; Sidhu and Kanhu Murmu led the Santhal Rebellion; Tirot Sing led the Khasi Uprising in the Khasi Hills; and Vasudev Balwant Phadke organized the Ramosi Peasant Revolt in Maharashtra.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the regional state context for Veer Surendra Sai.
Veer Surendra Sai fought for the rights of Sambalpur in Odisha against British encroachment, corresponding to the Sambalpur Uprising.
This establishes the link between Odisha state history and Sambalpur resistance.
2
Identify the leadership of the Santhal Rebellion.
Sidhu and Kanhu Murmu mobilized the tribal population of Rajmahal hills in 1855 against British revenue collectors and zamindars.
This confirms the connection between Santhal leadership and the Santhal Rebellion.
3
Identify the leader of the tribal resistance in the Khasi Hills.
Tirot Sing led the hill tribes against British forces attempting to construct a military highway linking Assam and Bengal.
This links Tirot Sing directly to the Khasi Uprising.
4
Identify the organizer of the Ramosi uprising in western India.
Vasudev Balwant Phadke gathered the Ramosis to create an armed insurgent force against British economic distress in Maharashtra.
This pairs Phadke correctly with the Ramosi Peasant Revolt.

Key Concept

Regional Tribal and Peasant Movements in State History
Estimated Time:1m 30s
Question 2744Question →

Which of the following state-designated protected areas is a prominent bird sanctuary renowned for hosting migratory species such as the Siberian Crane during the winter season?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Keoladeo Ghana National Park

Answer

Keoladeo Ghana National Park is the bird sanctuary famous for winter migratory birds including the Siberian Crane.
Keoladeo Ghana National Park (Bharatpur) is a world-renowned wetland bird sanctuary that serves as a vital wintering ground for thousands of aquatic birds and historically hosted the endangered Siberian Crane.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the primary ecological features of the listed protected areas.
Keoladeo Ghana National Park is a major man-made wetland reserve.
Understanding sanctuary specializations helps match species to habitats.
2
Match the Siberian Crane migratory winter habitat with the corresponding protected area.
Keoladeo Ghana National Park in Bharatpur is recognized as the major wintering site for migratory birds like the Siberian Crane.
It fulfills the criteria stated in the stem.

Key Concept

State Protected Areas and Wetland Avifauna Sanctuaries
Question 2745Question →

Arrange the following districts of Madhya Pradesh in descending order based on their Scheduled Tribe (ST) population percentage as per Census 2011. Which sequence represents the correct order from highest to lowest ST population percentage?

Drag items to arrange them in the correct order

Show answer & explanation

Answer

The correct descending order of districts by Scheduled Tribe population percentage as per Census 2011 is Alirajpur (89.0%), Jhabua (87.0%), Barwani (69.4%), and Dindori (64.7%).
According to Census 2011 data for Madhya Pradesh, Alirajpur has the highest Scheduled Tribe population proportion at 89.0%, followed by Jhabua at 87.0%, Barwani at 69.4%, and Dindori at 64.7%. Therefore, the correct sequence from highest to lowest starts with Alirajpur and progresses through Jhabua, Barwani, and Dindori.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Retrieve the ST population percentage for each specified district based on official Census 2011 data.
Alirajpur (~89.0%), Jhabua (~87.0%), Barwani (~69.4%), Dindori (~64.7%).
Establishing the precise proportional data is necessary to compare the districts.
2
Arrange the values in descending order (highest to lowest percentage).
Alirajpur (89.0%) > Jhabua (87.0%) > Barwani (69.4%) > Dindori (64.7%).
The question explicitly requires a descending arrangement.

Key Concept

District-level Scheduled Tribe demographic distribution and proportional representation
Estimated Time:1m 0s
Question 2746Question →

Match the atmospheric gases and pollutants listed in List-I with their primary environmental characteristic or atmospheric behavior described in List-II:

Click a left item, then click its matching right item

Items

Sulfur Hexafluoride (SF6SF_6)
Nitrous Oxide (N2ON_2O)
Hydrochlorofluorocarbons (HCFCs)
Methane (CH4CH_4)

Matches

Show answer & explanation

Answer

Sulfur Hexafluoride (SF6SF_6) matches with the synthetic greenhouse gas exhibiting the highest 100-year GWP (~23,500); Nitrous Oxide (N2ON_2O) matches with the dominant current anthropogenic ozone-depleting emission; Hydrochlorofluorocarbons (HCFCs) match with the transitional ozone-depleting substitutes containing hydrogen; and Methane (CH4CH_4) matches with the short-lived climate pollutant primarily removed via hydroxyl radical (OH∙\text{OH}^\bullet) oxidation.
Each atmospheric gas is correctly paired with its specific radiative, chemical, or policy characteristic. Sulfur Hexafluoride holds the highest 100-year GWP among regulated greenhouse gases. Nitrous Oxide is the largest remaining unregulated anthropogenic contributor to stratospheric ozone depletion. HCFCs serve as hydrogen-containing transitional ODSs under phase-out. Methane is a short-lived climate pollutant mainly removed via tropospheric hydroxyl radical (OH∙\text{OH}^\bullet) oxidation.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the primary radiative property of Sulfur Hexafluoride (SF6SF_6).
SF6SF_6 is recognized by the IPCC as having an exceptionally high Global Warming Potential (GWP100≈23,500GWP_{100} \approx 23,500) due to its long atmospheric lifetime (~3,200 years) and intense infrared absorption cross-section.
This establishes the match for Sulfur Hexafluoride.
2
Analyze the atmospheric chemistry impact of Nitrous Oxide (N2ON_2O).
Agricultural and industrial emissions of N2ON_2O photolyze in the stratosphere to yield NONO radicals that catalyze ozone destruction. Because it is not regulated by the Montreal Protocol, it is currently the leading anthropogenic ozone-depleting substance emitted.
This links Nitrous Oxide to its status as the top remaining anthropogenic ODS emitter.
3
Examine the regulatory role of HCFCs in ozone protection policy.
HCFCs were introduced as first-generation temporary replacements for CFCs. Their C-H bonds allow partial degradation in the troposphere, reducing their Ozone Depletion Potential compared to CFCs, though they remain subject to global phase-out.
This confirms HCFCs as transitional compounds under the Montreal Protocol.
4
Determine the main removal sink for atmospheric Methane (CH4CH_4).
Methane has an atmospheric lifetime of about 11.8 years. Its dominant atmospheric sink is oxidation by the hydroxyl radical (OH∙\text{OH}^\bullet) in the troposphere, forming water vapor and carbon dioxide.
This pairs Methane with oxidation by hydroxyl radicals.

Key Concept

Atmospheric behavior, radiative forcing capabilities, and regulatory classification of greenhouse gases and ozone-depleting substances.
Question 2747Question →

With reference to statutory environmental institutions and bodies in India, consider the following statements:

1. The Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB) is a statutory body constituted under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986.
2. The National Green Tribunal (NGT) is not bound by the procedure laid down under the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, but is guided by principles of natural justice.
3. The Animal Welfare Board of India (AWBI) is a statutory advisory body established under the provisions of the Prevention of Cruelty to Animals Act, 1960.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: 2 and 3 only

Answer

Statements 2 and 3 only are correct.
The correct option is the one identifying statements 2 and 3 only. Statement 2 is true because Section 19 of the NGT Act 2010 specifies that the tribunal is guided by natural justice principles rather than strict CPC procedures. Statement 3 is true as AWBI was created under Section 4 of the Prevention of Cruelty to Animals Act, 1960. Statement 1 is false because CPCB was established under the Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Evaluate Statement 1 regarding the statutory origin of the Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB).
Statement 1 is incorrect. CPCB was constituted under Section 3 of the Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974. It was later entrusted with powers under the Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1981, but was not founded under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986.
Establishing the correct statutory parent act is essential for constitutional/statutory body classification in General Studies.
2
Evaluate Statement 2 regarding the procedural mandate of the National Green Tribunal (NGT).
Statement 2 is correct. As per Section 19 of the National Green Tribunal Act, 2010, the tribunal is explicitly exempted from being bound by the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, and the Indian Evidence Act, 1872, and is guided by the principles of natural justice.
Understanding judicial vs quasi-judicial procedural flexibility of environmental tribunals.
3
Evaluate Statement 3 regarding the establishment of the Animal Welfare Board of India (AWBI).
Statement 3 is correct. The Animal Welfare Board of India is a statutory advisory body constituted under Section 4 of the Prevention of Cruelty to Animals Act, 1960, working under the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change.
Verifying statutory bodies dedicated to animal welfare and conservation governance in India.

Key Concept

Statutory foundation, parent legislation, and legal mandates of environmental bodies in India (CPCB, NGT, AWBI).
Question 2748Question →

Consider the following statements regarding the State Public Service Commission (SPSC) and the State Election Commission (SEC) in Indian states:

1. While the Chairman and members of both the SPSC and SEC are appointed by the Governor of the state, they can be removed from office only by the President of India.
2. The conditions of service of the State Election Commissioner cannot be varied to his disadvantage after his appointment, whereas the conditions of service of SPSC members are determined by the Governor and can be altered to their disadvantage during their tenure.
3. The annual performance report of the SPSC is submitted to the Governor, who causes it to be laid before the State Legislature along with a memorandum detailing cases where the advice of the Commission was not accepted.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: 1 and 3 only

Answer

1 and 3 only
Statements 1 and 3 are constitutionally accurate. Under Articles 316 and 317 for the SPSC, and Article 243K for the SEC, the Governor serves as the appointing authority, but removal authority rests solely with the President. Furthermore, Article 323(2) mandates that the SPSC submit its annual report to the Governor for presentation to the State Legislature along with a memorandum explaining non-acceptance of advice. Statement 2 is false because Article 318 expressly forbids varying SPSC members' service conditions to their disadvantage after appointment.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Evaluate Statement 1 regarding appointment and removal of SPSC and SEC members.
Statement 1 is correct. Both SPSC members (Article 316/317) and the State Election Commissioner (Article 243K) are appointed by the Governor, but both can only be removed by the President of India (the SEC is removed in like manner as a High Court Judge, which requires an order passed by the President).
Constitutional independence requires that removal authority resides with the President despite local executive appointment.
2
Evaluate Statement 2 regarding variation of service conditions after appointment.
Statement 2 is incorrect. Under the proviso to Article 318, the conditions of service of an SPSC member shall not be varied to his disadvantage after appointment, matching the immunity granted to the SEC under Article 243K(2).
This protection ensures administrative autonomy free from executive coercion.
3
Evaluate Statement 3 regarding submission of annual reports.
Statement 3 is correct. Under Article 323(2), the SPSC presents its annual report to the Governor, who lays it before the State Legislature along with an explanatory memorandum for any non-acceptance of advice.
Legislative oversight ensures transparency when the state executive departs from Commission recommendations.

Key Concept

Constitutional independence, appointment, removal, and reporting procedures of State Public Service Commissions and State Election Commissions under Articles 315–323 and 243K.
Question 2749Question →

Arrange the following landmark Indian environmental acts and legislations in chronological order of their enactment, starting from the earliest to the most recent.

Drag items to arrange them in the correct order

Show answer & explanation

Answer

The correct chronological order of enactment from earliest to most recent is: Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act (1974), Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act (1981), Environment (Protection) Act (1986), Biological Diversity Act (2002), and National Green Tribunal Act (2010).
The correct chronological sequence begins with the Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act enacted in 1974, followed by the Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act in 1981. Next is the umbrella Environment (Protection) Act passed in 1986 (prompted by the 1984 Bhopal Gas Leak). This is followed by the Biological Diversity Act enacted in 2002 pursuant to the 1992 CBD, and finally the National Green Tribunal Act enacted in 2010.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Determine the exact enactment year for each of the specified legislative acts.
Water Act: 1974, Air Act: 1981, Environment (Protection) Act: 1986, Biological Diversity Act: 2002, National Green Tribunal Act: 2010.
Identifying enactment years is required to evaluate the chronological timeline.
2
Order the enactments chronologically from the earliest year to the latest year.
1974 (Water Act) → 1981 (Air Act) → 1986 (Environment Protection Act) → 2002 (Biological Diversity Act) → 2010 (NGT Act).
Sorting ascending by year establishes the correct temporal sequence.
3
Match the sorted timeline items back to their corresponding item identifiers.
item_2 → item_1 → item_4 → item_5 → item_3.
Maps the chronological sequence to the question's item IDs.

Key Concept

Chronological evolution of major environmental statutes in India
Question 2750Question →

Which of the following is the primary objective of the flagship 'Kanyashree Prakalpa' scheme implemented by the Government of West Bengal?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: To prevent child marriage and improve school retention among adolescent girls through direct financial incentives.

Answer

To prevent child marriage and improve school retention among adolescent girls through direct financial incentives.
The Kanyashree Prakalpa initiative was launched by the West Bengal government to improve the status and well-being of adolescent girls. It provides conditional cash transfers (Annual Stipend K1 for girls aged 13–18 and One-time Grant K2 at age 18) provided the girl remains unmarried and enrolled in an educational institution, effectively discouraging child marriage and incentivizing school retention.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the target welfare program mentioned in the question.
The program is 'Kanyashree Prakalpa', launched by the West Bengal state government.
Understanding the specific state scheme is essential for evaluating its core target group.
2
Recall the main purpose and target demographic of Kanyashree Prakalpa.
It provides financial assistance (K1 annual stipend and K2 one-time grant) to unmarried girls aged 13–18 in school/college.
The financial assistance is conditional upon remaining unmarried and continuing education until age 18.
3
Match the core features to the correct option.
The objective to prevent child marriage and encourage secondary/higher education matches the correct choice.
Other options misattribute the scheme to widow pensions, health insurance, or digital gadget distribution.

Key Concept

Kanyashree Prakalpa Objective and Beneficiary Criteria
Estimated Time:45s
Question 2751Question →

Which of the following statements regarding the forests, national parks, and wildlife sanctuaries of Assam are correct?

Select all that apply

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Raimona National Park is located in the Kokrajhar district of the Bodoland Territorial Region and shares a contiguous forest boundary with the Phibsoo Wildlife Sanctuary in Bhutan.; Dehing Patkai National Park, situated across Dibrugarh and Tinsukia districts, represents one of the largest remaining stretches of tropical wet evergreen rainforests in Northeastern India.; Dibru-Saikhowa National Park is a riverine biosphere reserve bounded by the Brahmaputra and Dibru rivers, renowned for supporting a feral horse population.

Answer

The statements confirming Raimona National Park's contiguous boundary with Phibsoo Wildlife Sanctuary in Bhutan, Dehing Patkai National Park's tropical wet evergreen rainforest ecology, and Dibru-Saikhowa National Park's riverine habitat for feral horses are correct.
The statements regarding Raimona National Park sharing a contiguous border with Bhutan's Phibsoo Sanctuary, Dehing Patkai representing tropical wet evergreen rainforests across Dibrugarh and Tinsukia districts, and Dibru-Saikhowa being a riverine reserve bounded by the Brahmaputra and Dibru rivers with feral horse populations are accurate.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the location and transboundary connection of Raimona National Park.
Raimona National Park lies in Kokrajhar district (BTR) and adjoins Phibsoo Wildlife Sanctuary in Bhutan, making the statement geographically accurate.
Understanding state-specific border protected areas is a essential component of state geography assessment.
2
Evaluate the ecological classification of Dehing Patkai National Park.
Dehing Patkai covers Tinsukia and Dibrugarh districts and contains Assam Valley tropical wet evergreen forest, making the statement correct.
Forest typing and eco-zone distribution must be accurately identified for state forest reserves.
3
Examine the geographic boundaries and flagship fauna of Dibru-Saikhowa National Park.
Dibru-Saikhowa is an island-floodplain park surrounded by the Brahmaputra and Dibru rivers, famous for feral horses, confirming the statement.
Hydrological features bounding national parks are key diagnostic criteria in geography questions.
4
Verify the river basin orientation and fauna associated with Manas National Park.
Manas lies in Northern Assam along the Manas River (Brahmaputra basin), not the Barak River basin in Southern Assam. Furthermore, the Malabar giant squirrel is native to the Peninsular Western Ghats, not Assam.
Confusing major river drainage basins (Brahmaputra vs Barak) and fauna ranges (Western Ghats vs Eastern Himalayas) invalidates the statement.

Key Concept

Assam State Protected Area Network, Forest Ecosystem Types, and Associated Drainage Basins
Question 2752Question →

Consider the following statements regarding the Colombo Security Conclave (CSC):

1. India, Sri Lanka, Maldives, and Mauritius are founding member states that signed its Founding Charter and Secretariat Memorandum of Understanding.
2. The permanent Secretariat of the Conclave is hosted in Colombo, Sri Lanka.
3. The pillars of cooperation under the CSC framework include monetary integration and tariff deregulation among Indian Ocean littoral states.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: 1 and 2 only

Answer

The correct response consists of statements 1 and 2 only.
The correct answer identifies statements 1 and 2 as accurate. The Colombo Security Conclave (CSC) was formally structured with the signing of its Founding Charter and Secretariat MoU in Colombo, Sri Lanka by member states India, Sri Lanka, Maldives, and Mauritius. Statement 3 misidentifies its core mandate, which is security-centric rather than economic.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze Statement 1 regarding membership and founding instruments.
Statement 1 is correct.
India, Sri Lanka, Maldives, and Mauritius officially signed the Founding Charter and the Memorandum of Understanding (MoU) establishing the Colombo Security Conclave as a formal multilateral body.
2
Analyze Statement 2 regarding headquarters location.
Statement 2 is correct.
The permanent Secretariat of the Colombo Security Conclave is located in Colombo, Sri Lanka.
3
Analyze Statement 3 regarding core thematic pillars.
Statement 3 is incorrect.
The five core pillars of cooperation under the CSC framework are: Maritime Safety and Security, Countering Terrorism and Radicalization, Combating Transnational Crime, Cyber Security and Critical Infrastructure Protection, and Humanitarian Assistance and Disaster Relief (HADR). It does not handle monetary policy or tariff deregulation.

Key Concept

Founding Charter, Secretariat location, and thematic security pillars of the Colombo Security Conclave (CSC).
Question 2753Question →

The historic Paika Rebellion of 1817, led by Bakshi Jagabandhu against British East India Company governance, originated in which modern Indian state?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Odisha

Answer

Odisha
The Paika Rebellion of 1817 was an early armed uprising against British colonial revenue policies in Khurda, which is located in modern Odisha. It was led by Bakshi Jagabandhu, the military chief of the King of Khurda.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the historical movement and leader mentioned in the prompt
The Paika Rebellion occurred in 1817 under the leadership of Bakshi Jagabandhu Bidyadhar.
Paikas were the traditional peasant-militia of the Gajapati rulers of Odisha who lost their rent-free land tenure under British rule.
2
Map the historical kingdom of Khurda to its modern state boundaries
Khurda is an administrative district in Odisha.
Connecting historical centers of uprising to contemporary state geography is essential for state-specific general knowledge.

Key Concept

Paika Rebellion of 1817
Question 2754Question →

Which traditional folk dance of Rajasthan, performed predominantly by the nomadic snake-charmer community, was inscribed on UNESCO's Representative List of the Intangible Cultural Heritage of Humanity?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Kalbelia dance

Answer

The Kalbelia dance is the folk dance of Rajasthan performed by the Kalbelia community and inscribed on UNESCO's Representative List of Intangible Cultural Heritage.
The Kalbelia dance is an integral part of the culture of the Kalbelia nomadic community in Rajasthan. The dancers wear flowing black skirts and perform movements mirroring the movements of a serpent to the tunes of the 'been' instrument. It was included in UNESCO's Intangible Cultural Heritage list in 2010.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the folk art and community associated with UNESCO cultural recognition in Rajasthan.
The Kalbelia tribe of Rajasthan performs the Kalbelia dance, characterized by graceful movements resembling a serpent.
This dance form was recognized by UNESCO in 2010 for its unique socio-cultural heritage.

Key Concept

State Folk Dances and UNESCO Cultural Heritage
Estimated Time:45s
Question 2755Question →

Consider the economic geography, agricultural patterns, and mineral resource distribution of Madhya Pradesh. Which of the following statements regarding the state's agriculture, soil profiles, and mining belts are correct?

Select all that apply

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Panna district holds the distinction of hosting the only operational diamond mining belt in India.; The fertile black cotton soil (Regur) of the Malwa plateau region extensively supports soybean and wheat cultivation.; The Malanjkhand belt in Balaghat district contains one of India's largest open-cast copper ore reserves.

Answer

The correct statements are those identifying Panna district as India's sole operational diamond mining region, the Malwa plateau's black soil profile driving soybean and wheat yields, and the Malanjkhand belt in Balaghat as a major open-cast copper ore reserve.
The statements highlighting Panna's operational diamond mines, the black soil profile of the Malwa plateau supporting soybean and wheat, and the Malanjkhand open-cast copper deposit in Balaghat district are all factually accurate.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Evaluate the statement concerning diamond production in Madhya Pradesh
Panna district's Majhgawan diamond mine is indeed India's only active diamond producing belt under NMDC.
Verifies factual accuracy of mineral resource distribution.
2
Evaluate the statement concerning soil types and cropping patterns in the Malwa region
The Malwa plateau consists of Deccan trap basaltic black soils, which are ideal for soybean and wheat crops.
Confirms the agro-climatic profile and crop geography.
3
Evaluate the statement regarding copper ore reserves in Balaghat district
Malanjkhand in Balaghat district hosts India's largest open-cast copper mine.
Confirms the metallic mineral resource distribution of the state.
4
Evaluate the statement regarding the coal type and energy utility of Singrauli
Singrauli produces Gondwana bituminous coal for thermal power generation, making the claim about lignite and nuclear power incorrect.
Identifies the mineral misclassification error.

Key Concept

Spatial distribution of key mineral belts, soil taxonomy, and agricultural crop hubs in state economic geography.
Estimated Time:1m 30s
Question 2756Question →

With reference to the historic Paika Rebellion of 1817 in Odisha, which of the following statements is correct?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: It was an armed anti-British uprising led by Bakshi Jagabandhu, triggered by harsh land revenue policies and disruptions to the traditional local currency system.

Answer

The Paika Rebellion of 1817 was an armed anti-British uprising in Odisha led by Bakshi Jagabandhu, caused mainly by oppressive land revenue policies and currency disruptions.
The Paika Rebellion of 1817 in Khurda, Odisha, was led by Bakshi Jagabandhu Bidyadhar against the British East India Company. The rebellion was fueled by the takeover of hereditary Paika rent-free lands, excessive land revenue demands, extortion by Bengali revenue collectors, and the disruption caused by demanding revenue payment in silver rather than local cowrie shells.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the historical context and leadership of the Paika Rebellion.
The Paikas were the traditional landed militia of Odisha. In 1817, under Bakshi Jagabandhu Bidyadhar (military commander of the King of Khurda), they revolted against British East India Company rule.
Establishing the core leadership and nature of the uprising isolates the correct historical fact.
2
Analyze the underlying economic causes of the 1817 revolt.
The British conquest of Odisha (1803) led to harsh revenue assessments, land confiscation from hereditary Paikas, and the replacement of the cowrie currency with silver currency demands.
Understanding key grievances allows validation of statement options.
3
Evaluate and eliminate incorrect distractor options based on historical chronology and context.
Disregard options attributing the revolt to 20th-century Gandhian movements, the 1878 Vernacular Press Act, or peaceful temple entry reforms.
Ensures distractors are correctly identified and rejected.

Key Concept

Paika Rebellion of 1817 and regional anti-colonial uprisings in Odisha
Estimated Time:1m 15s
Question 2757Question →

In the context of state demographic planning and tribal welfare assessments, which of the following combinations of socio-economic parameters accurately defines the criteria used to identify Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTGs)?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Pre-agricultural level of technology, stagnant or declining population, extremely low literacy, and a subsistence level of economy

Answer

The correct criteria for identifying Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTGs) are a pre-agricultural level of technology, a stagnant or declining population, extremely low literacy levels, and a subsistence level of economy.
The correct answer accurately lists the four official baseline criteria designated for identifying Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups: pre-agricultural technology, stagnant or declining population trends, extremely low literacy rates, and reliance on a subsistence-level economy.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the core socio-economic parameters used by government bodies to classify tribal groups needing targeted human development interventions.
Recognized four specific criteria: pre-agricultural technology, stagnant/declining population, low literacy, and subsistence economy.
These criteria isolate communities that face acute vulnerability compared to broader Scheduled Tribe populations.
2
Evaluate the given options against these four established demographic criteria.
The option specifying pre-agricultural technology, stagnant/declining population, extremely low literacy, and subsistence economy matches all four official criteria exactly.
Other options include contradictory features such as high literacy, industrial wage labor, or urban migration.

Key Concept

Criteria for Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTGs)
Question 2758Question →

Consider the following statements regarding the 'Mukhyamantri Ladli Behna Yojana' launched by the Government of Madhya Pradesh:

1. It provides monthly direct benefit transfer (DBT) financial assistance to eligible women residents of the state.
2. The Department of Women and Child Development serves as the nodal implementing department for the scheme.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

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Answer: Both 1 and 2

Answer

Both 1 and 2 are correct.
The option stating 'Both 1 and 2' is correct because the Mukhyamantri Ladli Behna Yojana provides monthly financial support directly into the bank accounts of eligible resident women and is administered by the Department of Women and Child Development.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Evaluate Statement 1 regarding the benefit transfer mechanism of the Mukhyamantri Ladli Behna Yojana.
Statement 1 is correct as the scheme transfers monthly financial assistance directly to targeted women beneficiaries.
Direct benefit transfers aim to foster economic self-reliance and financial inclusion among women.
2
Evaluate Statement 2 regarding the implementing administrative body.
Statement 2 is correct as the Department of Women and Child Development oversees administrative execution.
State welfare initiatives targeted at female beneficiaries fall under the purview of the Women and Child Development Department.

Key Concept

State-Specific Current Events, Welfare Schemes, and Policies
Question 2759Question →

In the context of the historical art, cultural heritage, and architectural evolution of Tamil Nadu, arrange the following monuments in chronological order of their original construction, from the earliest to the latest:

1. Airavatesvara Temple, Darasuram
2. Pancha Rathas, Mamallapuram
3. Tirumalai Nayakkar Mahal, Madurai
4. Brihadisvara Temple, Thanjavur

Which sequence correctly places these architectural landmarks in order of their construction?

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Answer

The correct chronological sequence from earliest to latest is Pancha Rathas, Mamallapuram (7th century CE), followed by Brihadisvara Temple, Thanjavur (early 11th century CE), Airavatesvara Temple, Darasuram (mid-12th century CE), and Tirumalai Nayakkar Mahal, Madurai (17th century CE).
The correct order follows the historical timeline of dynastic rule in South India: 1st - Pancha Rathas at Mamallapuram (Pallava dynasty, mid-7th century CE); 2nd - Brihadisvara Temple at Thanjavur (Early Imperial Chola dynasty under Rajaraja I, c. 1010 CE); 3rd - Airavatesvara Temple at Darasuram (Later Chola dynasty under Rajaraja II, c. 1166 CE); 4th - Tirumalai Nayakkar Mahal at Madurai (Madurai Nayak dynasty, c. 1636 CE).

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Determine the construction era of Pancha Rathas, Mamallapuram.
Pancha Rathas dates to the 7th century CE under the Pallava dynasty (King Narasimhavarman I).
It represents the earliest phase of monolithic rock-cut temple architecture in Tamil Nadu.
2
Determine the construction era of Brihadisvara Temple, Thanjavur.
Brihadisvara Temple was completed around 1010 CE under the Chola Emperor Rajaraja I.
It marks the pinnacle of mature Chola structural Dravidian architecture in the early 11th century.
3
Determine the construction era of Airavatesvara Temple, Darasuram.
Airavatesvara Temple was built around 1166 CE during the reign of Rajaraja II.
It belongs to the later Chola phase in the mid-12th century CE, following the Thanjavur temple.
4
Determine the construction era of Tirumalai Nayakkar Mahal, Madurai.
Tirumalai Nayakkar Mahal was constructed in 1636 CE by King Tirumalai Nayak.
It represents post-medieval Indo-Saracenic/Nayak royal secular architecture of the 17th century.

Key Concept

Chronological evolution of dynastic architectural styles in Tamil Nadu (Pallava to Chola to Nayak)
Question 2760Question →

Arrange the following key socio-cultural institutions and landmark organizations established during the socio-cultural renaissance of regional state heritage in India in chronological order of their founding year, starting from the earliest to the latest.

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Answer

The correct chronological sequence from earliest to latest is: Tattvabodhini Sabha (1839) → Paramahansa Mandali (1849) → Satyashodhak Samaj (1873) → Bangiya Sahitya Parishad (1893).
The correct chronological arrangement places Tattvabodhini Sabha first (1839), followed by Paramahansa Mandali (1849), then Satyashodhak Samaj (1873), and finally Bangiya Sahitya Parishad (1893).

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the establishment year for Tattvabodhini Sabha.
Tattvabodhini Sabha was established in 1839 by Debendranath Tagore.
Establishing the earliest anchor point in the 19th-century regional socio-cultural renaissance.
2
Identify the establishment year for Paramahansa Mandali.
Paramahansa Mandali was established in 1849 in Bombay.
Determines the second chronological milestone in Western Indian social reform history.
3
Identify the establishment year for Satyashodhak Samaj.
Satyashodhak Samaj was founded in 1873 by Jyotirao Phule in Pune.
Marks the mid-to-late 19th-century anti-caste cultural movement milestone.
4
Identify the establishment year for Bangiya Sahitya Parishad.
Bangiya Sahitya Parishad was founded in 1893.
Completes the sequence with the late 19th-century institutionalization of regional literary heritage.

Key Concept

Chronological evolution of regional socio-cultural and literary reform institutions in 19th-century Indian state heritage.
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