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Question 2721Question →

In the context of state agricultural economics and regional cash crop distribution in Karnataka, arrange the following coffee-producing districts in descending order of their total contribution to the state's coffee production output, starting from the highest producer. Which sequence correctly orders these districts from highest to lowest output?

Drag items to arrange them in the correct order

Show answer & explanation

Answer

The correct sequence from highest to lowest coffee production is Kodagu, followed by Chikkamagaluru, Hassan, and Shivamogga.

Karnataka accounts for over 70% of India's total coffee production. Within the state, Kodagu is the top producing district, followed by Chikkamagaluru in second place, Hassan in third, and Shivamogga producing a smaller remaining portion.

Step-by-Step Solution

Identify the top coffee producer in Karnataka

Kodagu district produces more than half of Karnataka's total coffee volume, making it position 1.

Kodagu has the largest cultivated area and optimal agro-climatic conditions for coffee.

Determine the second-largest coffee producer

Chikkamagaluru contributes around 35% of the state's coffee output, placing it position 2.

Chikkamagaluru has a vast acreage under both Arabica and Robusta plantations second only to Kodagu.

Identify the third major producing district

Hassan district contributes between 8% and 10% of total production, placing it position 3.

The Malnad region of Hassan district contributes significantly, though less than Kodagu and Chikkamagaluru.

Place the minor producer in the sequence

Shivamogga yields a smaller non-traditional fraction of state coffee production, placing it position 4.

Shivamogga has fewer dedicated coffee estates compared to the traditional southern Malnad belt.

Key Concept

Spatial distribution and district-wise rankings of plantation agriculture in state economics

Question 2722Question →

Consider the following statements regarding recent state awards, administrative appointments, and welfare policy developments in the state:

1. Padma Shri awardee Bhuri Bai was honored with the State Lifetime Achievement Award for her monumental contributions to promoting traditional Pithora tribal art.
2. Under the updated State Mukhyamantri Yuva Udyami Yojana, the financial assistance cap for first-generation micro-entrepreneurs was enhanced to ₹10 Lakhs with a 5% interest subvention.
3. The state government constituted a special judicial commission headed by Justice Prakash Shrivastava to evaluate district-wise implementation of the State Water Grid and River Interlinking Project.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1 and 2 only

2 and 3 only

1 and 3 only

1, 2, and 3

Show answer & explanation

Answer: 1 and 2 only

Answer

Statements 1 and 2 only are correct.

The correct answer includes statements 1 and 2. Statement 1 accurately captures the state recognition awarded to Bhuri Bai for Pithora painting. Statement 2 correctly reflects the updated loan ceiling of ₹10 Lakhs and 5% interest subvention under the state's self-employment policy.

Step-by-Step Solution

Evaluate Statement 1 regarding tribal art personality recognition.

Bhuri Bai is a renowned Pithora artist who received state-level lifetime honors alongside her national accolades.

Verifies historical and recent state personality achievements in cultural preservation.

Analyze Statement 2 regarding scheme financial guidelines.

The Mukhyamantri Yuva Udyami Yojana was updated to provide up to ₹10 Lakhs for micro-enterprises with 5% interest subvention.

Assesses accurate knowledge of state government welfare initiative norms.

Examine Statement 3 regarding judicial committee appointments.

The committee headed by Justice Prakash Shrivastava was appointed for environmental compliance monitoring, not the State Water Grid project.

Identifies factual misattribution in state-level administrative committee mandates.

Key Concept

State Current Affairs, Notable Personalities, and Welfare Scheme Guidelines

Question 2723Question →

Regarding the operational framework, target beneficiary criteria, and exclusion guidelines of the 'Gruha Lakshmi Scheme' implemented by the State Government of Karnataka, which of the following statements are correct?

Select all that apply

The scheme guarantees a monthly financial assistance of

\text{₹}2,000

transferred via Direct Benefit Transfer (DBT) to the designated woman head ('Yajamani') of families holding Below Poverty Line (BPL), Above Poverty Line (APL), or Antyodaya card status.

Families in which either the designated woman head of the household or her spouse pays Income Tax or files Goods and Services Tax (GST) returns are explicitly excluded from scheme entitlement.

Women heads of households who are current recipients of state social security pensions (such as widow pensions or old-age pensions) are strictly disqualified from applying for benefits.

To satisfy eligibility norms, the beneficiary woman must fall strictly within the age bracket of

21

50

years at the time of application submission.

Show answer & explanation

Answer: The scheme guarantees a monthly financial assistance of $\text{₹}2,000$ transferred via Direct Benefit Transfer (DBT) to the designated woman head ('Yajamani') of families holding Below Poverty Line (BPL), Above Poverty Line (APL), or Antyodaya card status.; Families in which either the designated woman head of the household or her spouse pays Income Tax or files Goods and Services Tax (GST) returns are explicitly excluded from scheme entitlement.

Answer

The correct statements are the provision of

\text{₹}2,000

monthly financial assistance to the woman head ('Yajamani') of BPL, APL, or Antyodaya households via DBT, and the explicit exclusion of households where either the woman or her spouse pays Income Tax or files GST returns.

The statements highlighting the monthly DBT transfer of

\text{₹}2,000

to the designated 'Yajamani' woman head across BPL/APL/Antyodaya households and the disqualification based on Income Tax or GST filing by either spouse accurately represent the official state policy guidelines.

Step-by-Step Solution

Analyze the financial entitlement and designated beneficiary structure of the scheme.

The scheme provides

\text{₹}2,000

monthly cash transfers to the 'Yajamani' (woman head) across BPL, APL, and Antyodaya households.

This evaluates primary entitlement features.

Evaluate the tax-based exclusion criteria.

Households where either the woman head or her husband pays Income Tax or files GST returns are disqualified.

This confirms statutory exclusion rules.

Examine pension overlap and age limit constraints.

Social security pension recipients are eligible, and there is no upper age limit of

50

years.

This identifies false eligibility traps.

Key Concept

Eligibility Criteria and Exclusion Norms of Flagship State Welfare Schemes

Estimated Time:2m 0s

Question 2724Question →

With reference to the 'Mukhyamantri Chiranjeevi Swasthya Bima Yojana' launched by the Government of Rajasthan, which of the following statements regarding its features and eligibility criteria are correct?

Select all that apply

It provides cashless health insurance coverage up to ₹25 lakh per family per year for secondary and tertiary healthcare.

The health insurance premium is 100% subsidized by the state government for NFSA beneficiaries, SECC families, and small/marginal farmers.

Empanelled private medical institutions are strictly excluded from the scheme, restricting cashless treatment exclusively to government hospitals.

It covers medical expenses incurred during the 5 days prior to hospital admission and 15 days following hospital discharge.

Show answer & explanation

Answer: It provides cashless health insurance coverage up to ₹25 lakh per family per year for secondary and tertiary healthcare.; The health insurance premium is 100% subsidized by the state government for NFSA beneficiaries, SECC families, and small/marginal farmers.; It covers medical expenses incurred during the 5 days prior to hospital admission and 15 days following hospital discharge.

Answer

The correct statements are those stating that the scheme provides ₹25 lakh annual health cover per family, fully subsidizes premiums for NFSA/SECC families and small farmers, and covers pre-hospitalisation (5 days) and post-hospitalisation (15 days) expenses.

The correct statements accurately reflect the core parameters of the Mukhyamantri Chiranjeevi Swasthya Bima Yojana: an enhanced annual cover of ₹25 lakh per family, complete premium waiver for priority socio-economic groups, and coverage for 5 days of pre-hospitalisation and 15 days of post-hospitalisation expenses.

Step-by-Step Solution

Evaluate financial coverage limit and hospital empanelment scope

The scheme offers ₹25 lakh annual cashless coverage per family across both public hospitals and empanelled private healthcare providers.

Determine the financial ceiling and institutional network defined under the scheme guidelines.

Examine beneficiary classification and premium subsidy provisions

NFSA cardholders, SECC 2011 list families, small/marginal farmers, and contract workers get 100% premium subsidy, while other families can join by paying a nominal 50% subsidized premium.

Verify target beneficiary groups eligible for free state coverage.

Analyze pre- and post-hospitalisation package coverage windows

Expenses for medical tests and medicines for 5 days prior to admission and 15 days after discharge are covered under package rates.

Confirm procedural timeline rules for pre- and post-hospitalisation care.

Key Concept

Key provisions, coverage limits, and eligibility criteria of state health insurance schemes.

Question 2725Question →

With reference to the historic Kittur Armed Rebellion (1824) against British East India Company expansion in southern India, which of the following statements is correct?

The rebellion was led by Rani Chennamma against the colonial rejection of the adopted heir to the throne of Kittur.

The revolt was triggered primarily by the imposition of the Permanent Settlement Act of 1793 in the region.

The movement occurred immediately following the outbreak of the Revolt of 1857 in northern India.

The rebellion successfully ousted the British administration and established permanent sovereign rule under Sangolli Rayanna.

Show answer & explanation

Answer: The rebellion was led by Rani Chennamma against the colonial rejection of the adopted heir to the throne of Kittur.

Answer

The rebellion was led by Rani Chennamma against the colonial rejection of the adopted heir to the throne of Kittur.

The armed struggle of Kittur in 1824 was led by Rani Chennamma following the death of King Malla Sarja's heir. When British administrator St John Thackeray attempted to take over the state treasury and administration by refusing to recognize adopted successor Shivalingappa, Rani Chennamma mobilized armed forces and revolted against East India Company rule.

Step-by-Step Solution

Identify the primary cause and leadership of the 1824 Kittur Rebellion.

Rani Chennamma of Kittur led an armed resistance in 1824 when St John Thackeray, the Political Agent at Dharwad, rejected the adoption of Shivalingappa after Raja Shivalinga Rudra Sarja's death.

The refusal to accept adopted heirs was an early precursor to annexation policies enforced by the British East India Company.

Evaluate the incorrect options against historical chronology and administrative policies.

The Permanent Settlement Act applied to Bengal/Eastern India (1793), the uprising occurred in 1824 (long before 1857), and the rebellion was ultimately suppressed despite heroic resistance.

Eliminating historical inaccuracies confirms the unique significance of Rani Chennamma's anti-colonial resistance.

Key Concept

Kittur Rebellion of 1824 and Early Regional Resistance Movements

Question 2726Question →

Regarding the protected areas and forest ecosystems in the state of Rajasthan, which of the following statements are correct?

Select all that apply

Ranthambore National Park is situated at the junction of the Aravalli and Vindhya hill ranges.

Keoladeo Ghana National Park is a UNESCO World Heritage wetland located in Bharatpur district.

Sariska Tiger Reserve is situated within the extreme arid desert terrain of Jaisalmer district.

Mukundra Hills National Park is situated along the banks of the ephemeral Luni River in western Rajasthan.

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Ranthambore National Park is situated at the junction of the Aravalli and Vindhya hill ranges.; Keoladeo Ghana National Park is a UNESCO World Heritage wetland located in Bharatpur district.

Answer

The correct statements are that Ranthambore National Park is situated at the junction of the Aravalli and Vindhya hill ranges, and Keoladeo Ghana National Park is a UNESCO World Heritage wetland located in Bharatpur district.

Ranthambore National Park is ecologically unique as it marks the junction of the Aravalli and Vindhya hill ranges. Keoladeo Ghana National Park in Bharatpur is an internationally recognized wetland habitat listed as a UNESCO World Heritage site.

Step-by-Step Solution

Evaluate the geographical location of Ranthambore National Park

Ranthambore is located in Sawai Madhopur district where the Aravalli and Vindhya ranges meet.

Topographical feature verification confirms its position at the range junction.

Evaluate the status and location of Keoladeo Ghana National Park

It is located in Bharatpur and holds UNESCO World Heritage and Ramsar wetland status.

Administrative and conservation status verification confirms this statement.

Evaluate the location of Sariska Tiger Reserve

Sariska is in Alwar district in northeastern Rajasthan, not Jaisalmer in the far west.

District mapping identifies the misattribution of location.

Evaluate the river drainage association of Mukundra Hills National Park

Mukundra Hills is located in the Hadoti region drained by the Chambal and its tributaries, not the Luni River.

Hydrological association confirms the statement is false.

Key Concept

Geographical locations, river basins, and designations of state wildlife sanctuaries and national parks

Estimated Time:45s

Question 2727Question →

Regarding the historic Vaikom Satyagraha (1924–1925) organized in the princely state of Travancore, which of the following statements are correct?

Select all that apply

It was launched to secure civic rights for lower-caste Hindus to use the public roads surrounding the Vaikom Mahadeva Temple.

Prominent leaders including T.K. Madhavan, K.P. Kesava Menon, and E.V. Ramasamy (Periyar) actively led and sustained the agitation.

The satyagraha was organized under the direct provisions of the Rowlatt Act to protest colonial press censorship regulations.

The agitation concluded in 1915 prior to the Non-Cooperation Movement, resulting in immediate full temple entry across the state.

Show answer & explanation

Answer: It was launched to secure civic rights for lower-caste Hindus to use the public roads surrounding the Vaikom Mahadeva Temple.; Prominent leaders including T.K. Madhavan, K.P. Kesava Menon, and E.V. Ramasamy (Periyar) actively led and sustained the agitation.

Answer

The correct statements are that the Vaikom Satyagraha was launched to secure civic rights for lower-caste Hindus on the public roads surrounding the Vaikom Mahadeva Temple, and that leaders such as T.K. Madhavan, K.P. Kesava Menon, and E.V. Ramasamy (Periyar) played pivotal roles in directing the campaign.

The Vaikom Satyagraha (1924–1925) was a milestone non-violent movement in the princely state of Travancore demanding public road access around the Vaikom Mahadeva Temple for untouchables and depressed classes. It was spearheaded by prominent leaders including T.K. Madhavan, K.P. Kesava Menon, and E.V. Ramasamy (Periyar), who led campaign contingents to sustain the struggle despite severe orthodox opposition and arrests.

Step-by-Step Solution

Analyze the core objective and location of the Vaikom Satyagraha.

The movement was held in the princely state of Travancore (1924–1925) specifically to challenge caste-based restrictions on public roads near the Vaikom Mahadeva Temple.

Establishing the precise social and geographical context verifies statement validity.

Examine the leadership and key personalities associated with the agitation.

T.K. Madhavan, K.P. Kesava Menon, and E.V. Ramasamy were central leaders who led satyagrahis and courted arrest.

Identifying historical figures confirms the organizational history of the movement.

Evaluate chronological timeline and socio-political cause to eliminate distractor options.

The movement was unrelated to colonial acts like the Rowlatt Act, occurred in 1924–1925, and did not achieve complete temple entry until the 1936 Temple Entry Proclamation.

Eliminates incorrect claims regarding colonial legislation and inaccurate event dates.

Key Concept

Vaikom Satyagraha and Anti-Caste Social Reform Movements in Travancore

Question 2728Question →

In the structural framework of state polity, administrative governance, and constitutional oversight in Indian states, which of the following statements are correct?

Select all that apply

The Chief Secretary of a state functions as the ex-officio Chairman of the State Civil Services Board, which recommends transfers and postings of administrative officers.

The recommendations of the Lokayukta concerning corruption charges against a state Cabinet Minister are legally binding, requiring the Governor to issue an immediate dismissal order within 30 days.

The Advocate General of a state retains the right to speak and participate in the proceedings of any committee of the State Legislature of which they are named a member, but cannot cast a vote.

The State Legislative Council can withhold or delay an ordinary bill passed by the State Legislative Assembly for a maximum cumulative period of six months across all stages of consideration.

Show answer & explanation

Answer: The Chief Secretary of a state functions as the ex-officio Chairman of the State Civil Services Board, which recommends transfers and postings of administrative officers.; The Advocate General of a state retains the right to speak and participate in the proceedings of any committee of the State Legislature of which they are named a member, but cannot cast a vote.

Answer

The statement regarding the Chief Secretary functioning as the ex-officio Chairman of the State Civil Services Board, and the statement regarding the Advocate General having the right to speak in State Legislative proceedings without voting rights are correct.

The statements affirming that the Chief Secretary chairs the State Civil Services Board and that the Advocate General holds speaking rights without voting privileges under Article 177 accurately describe state administrative and constitutional rules.

Step-by-Step Solution

Evaluate the administrative role of the Chief Secretary and the Civil Services Board.

The Chief Secretary heads the state executive hierarchy and ex-officio chairs the Civil Services Board created pursuant to Supreme Court directives on civil service administrative reforms.

This establishes institutional administrative oversight for civil service transfers and postings.

Analyze the statutory authority and nature of reports generated by the Lokayukta.

Lokayukta reports are investigative and advisory recommendations presented to the executive competent authority, not mandatory executive directives.

Statutory ombudsman bodies lack autonomous executive power to directly remove elected cabinet ministers.

Examine Constitutional provisions under Article 177 for the Advocate General.

Article 177 explicitly grants rights to speak and participate in legislative proceedings while restricting voting rights.

The Advocate General is an appointed law officer rather than an elected legislative member.

Verify constitutional time limits under Article 197 for legislative bill delays by the Legislative Council.

The total delaying power of the Legislative Council for an ordinary bill is 4 months (3 months initially + 1 month secondary delay).

State Assemblies possess ultimate legislative supremacy over Legislative Councils, unlike the Rajya Sabha at the Union level.

Key Concept

State executive hierarchy, legislative procedures, and statutory ombudsman jurisdiction

Estimated Time:2m 0s

Question 2729Question →

Consider the following statements regarding state demographic profiles, tribal population distribution, and social parameters based on official Indian Census data:

1. Mizoram and Lakshadweep record the highest percentage of Scheduled Tribe population relative to their total population among States and UTs respectively.
2. Madhya Pradesh accounts for the largest absolute Scheduled Tribe population among all Indian states.
3. Punjab and Haryana have no constitutionally notified Scheduled Tribe communities.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1 and 2 only

2 and 3 only

1 and 3 only

1, 2, and 3

Show answer & explanation

Answer: 1, 2, and 3

Answer

All three statements (1, 2, and 3) are correct.

All three statements represent verified demographic facts from official Census data: Lakshadweep and Mizoram lead in proportional tribal population, Madhya Pradesh has the largest total number of tribal inhabitants, and Punjab and Haryana have zero notified Scheduled Tribes.

Step-by-Step Solution

Assess the proportion of Scheduled Tribe population relative to total population in Mizoram and Lakshadweep.

Mizoram (94.4%) among states and Lakshadweep (94.8%) among Union Territories have the highest tribal concentration by percentage.

Official Census data confirms both regions lead in proportional Scheduled Tribe population.

Assess the total absolute Scheduled Tribe population count across Indian states.

Madhya Pradesh ranks highest in absolute Scheduled Tribe population, exceeding 15.3 million individuals.

Madhya Pradesh accounts for nearly 14.7% of India's total tribal population.

Verify states and Union Territories that lack notified Scheduled Tribe populations.

Punjab, Haryana, Chandigarh, Delhi, and Puducherry have no notified Scheduled Tribes.

Under Constitutional Presidential Orders, no tribal group is scheduled for these administrative units.

Key Concept

State Demographics and Tribal Population Distribution

Question 2730Question →

During stratospheric ozone layer depletion, chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs) release free chlorine radicals ( $\text{Cl}^\bullet$ ) upon photolysis by solar ultraviolet radiation. Which of the following statements correctly describes how a chlorine radical acts catalytically to destroy ozone molecules without being consumed in the net reaction?

It reacts with an ozone molecule (

\text{O}_3

) to form chlorine monoxide (

\text{ClO}

) and oxygen (

\text{O}_2

), and is regenerated when

\text{ClO}

reacts with a free oxygen atom (

\text{O}

It absorbs terrestrial longwave infrared radiation, raising local stratospheric temperatures high enough to induce thermal dissociation of ozone.

It reacts irreversibly with stratospheric moisture to produce hydrochloric acid (

\text{HCl}

), consuming one molecule of ozone per chlorine atom in a single stoichiometric reaction.

It drives the photolytic oxidation of atmospheric nitrogen into nitrous oxide (

\text{N}_2\text{O}

), which subsequently blocks the formation of oxygen radicals.

Show answer & explanation

Answer: It reacts with an ozone molecule ( $\text{O}_3$ ) to form chlorine monoxide ( $\text{ClO}$ ) and oxygen ( $\text{O}_2$ ), and is regenerated when $\text{ClO}$ reacts with a free oxygen atom ( $\text{O}$ ).

Answer

A chlorine radical destroys ozone by reacting with an ozone molecule (

\text{O}_3

) to produce chlorine monoxide (

\text{ClO}

) and molecular oxygen (

\text{O}_2

). It is subsequently regenerated when

\text{ClO}

reacts with a free atomic oxygen atom (

\text{O}

), allowing the cycle to repeat.

The catalytic cycle of ozone depletion by chlorine free radicals consists of two key elementary reactions:

\text{Cl}^\bullet + \text{O}_3 \rightarrow \text{ClO}^\bullet + \text{O}_2

followed by

\text{ClO}^\bullet + \text{O} \rightarrow \text{Cl}^\bullet + \text{O}_2

. Because the free chlorine radical (

\text{Cl}^\bullet

) is regenerated in the second step, it is not consumed in the overall reaction (

\text{O}_3 + \text{O} \rightarrow 2\text{O}_2

), enabling a single chlorine radical to destroy up to

10^5

ozone molecules in the stratosphere.

Step-by-Step Solution

Identify the primary reaction of the chlorine radical with ozone.

\text{Cl}^\bullet + \text{O}_3 \rightarrow \text{ClO}^\bullet + \text{O}_2

The chlorine radical abstracts an oxygen atom from ozone, creating chlorine monoxide.

Determine the regeneration step of the catalyst.

\text{ClO}^\bullet + \text{O} \rightarrow \text{Cl}^\bullet + \text{O}_2

Chlorine monoxide reacts with atomic oxygen in the stratosphere, liberating the chlorine radical.

Sum the two steps to get the net chemical equation.

Net reaction:

\text{O}_3 + \text{O} \rightarrow 2\text{O}_2

The chlorine radical (

\text{Cl}^\bullet

) acts purely as a catalyst and does not appear in the net reaction.

Key Concept

Catalytic destruction of stratospheric ozone by halogen radicals

Question 2731Question →

Match the State Government Welfare Schemes listed in List-I with their primary objective/target sector in List-II:

Click a left item, then click its matching right item

Show answer & explanation

Answer

Rythu Bandhu Scheme pairs with Farmers' agricultural investment support; Mukhyamantri Chiranjeevi Swasthya Bima Yojana pairs with Universal cashless health insurance coverage; Kanyashree Prakalpa pairs with Financial incentives for girl student education; and Ladli Behna Yojana pairs with Direct monthly cash transfers to adult women.

Each state flagship scheme matches directly with its stated primary domain: Rythu Bandhu is dedicated to farmer input assistance, Mukhyamantri Chiranjeevi Swasthya Bima Yojana focuses on health insurance, Kanyashree Prakalpa supports female secondary education and child-marriage prevention, and Ladli Behna Yojana provides monthly financial aid to women.

Step-by-Step Solution

Identify the primary sector for Rythu Bandhu Scheme

It is an agriculture investment support scheme aimed at helping farmers buy inputs.

Rythu Bandhu is a flaghsip scheme for agricultural input support.

Identify the core focus of Mukhyamantri Chiranjeevi Swasthya Bima Yojana

It focuses on universal health insurance coverage.

Chiranjeevi Yojana is known for comprehensive medical expense coverage in hospitals.

Identify the objective of Kanyashree Prakalpa

It focuses on girl child education and preventing early child marriage.

The scheme gives monetary stipends to adolescent girls staying in formal school.

Match Ladli Behna Yojana to its beneficiaries

It targets women with direct monthly cash transfers.

The scheme provides a fixed financial grant every month directly to women beneficiaries.

Key Concept

Core Objectives of Prominent State Government Schemes

Question 2732Question →

Consider the following statements regarding traditional folk performance traditions and cultural heritage of Western India:

1. Terah Taali is a ritualistic devotional folk dance performed by women of the Kamada tribe, involving thirteen cymbals tied to different parts of the body, traditionally presented in honor of folk deity Baba Ramdevji.
2. Bhavai is a masked dance-drama tradition performed exclusively by the Charan bardic community, accompanied solely by the Shehnai to depict historical royal genealogy.
3. Garba is a traditional circular dance performed around a perforated earthen lamp containing an inner light, symbolizing the divine womb and the cyclical nature of existence.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1 and 2 only

1 and 3 only

2 and 3 only

1, 2 and 3

Show answer & explanation

Answer: 1 and 3 only

Answer

Statements 1 and 3 are correct, while statement 2 is incorrect.

The combination of statements 1 and 3 is correct. Terah Taali is indeed a devotional folk dance of the Kamada tribe honoring Baba Ramdevji with 13 cymbals, and Garba symbolically revolves around the Garbha Deep representing cosmic life cycles. Statement 2 is false because Bhavai is an unmasked acrobatic folk theater tradition using the Bhungal horn and performed by Targala/Nayak communities rather than Charan bards.

Step-by-Step Solution

Analyze Statement 1 regarding Terah Taali dance.

Statement 1 is correct. Terah Taali is a unique devotional folk dance of Rajasthan performed by women of the Kamada tribe. The dancers tie thirteen 'manjiras' (brass cymbals) onto their legs and arms, playing them in rhythm while performing intricate movements dedicated to folk hero Baba Ramdevji.

Verifies community and performance characteristics of Terah Taali.

Analyze Statement 2 regarding Bhavai performance art.

Statement 2 is incorrect. Bhavai is a popular folk theater form of Gujarat and Rajasthan characterized by unmasked dramatic facial expressions, acrobatic feats (such as balancing multiple brass pots on the head), and musical accompaniment primarily using the 'Bhungal' (long brass horn), double-headed drums, and cymbals. It is traditionally performed by communities like the Targala, Nayak, and Bhojak, not exclusively by the Charan bards.

Identifies erroneous claims about performance medium, instruments, and traditional community patrons.

Analyze Statement 3 regarding Garba symbolism.

Statement 3 is correct. Garba derives its name from 'Garbha Deep' (womb lamp), featuring a perforated earthen vessel with a lamp inside, around which dancers move in concentric circles representing the eternal cycle of time and divine mother energy.

Confirms the ritual symbolism and iconographic context of Garba.

Key Concept

State Folk Performances, Tribal Ritual Arts, and Cultural Symbolism of Western India

Question 2733Question →

Consider the following statements regarding the Great Himalayan National Park located in Himachal Pradesh:

1. It protects the upper catchment areas of the Sainj, Jiwa Nal, and Tirthan rivers, which are tributaries of the Beas River.
2. It is inscribed as a UNESCO World Heritage Site under natural criteria for its biodiversity conservation values.
3. The lower altitude zones of the park are predominantly dominated by tropical moist deciduous Sal (Shorea robusta) forests.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1 and 2 only

2 and 3 only

1 and 3 only

1, 2 and 3

Show answer & explanation

Answer: 1 and 2 only

Answer

1 and 2 only

The correct evaluation recognizes that statements 1 and 2 are accurate. The Great Himalayan National Park located in the Kullu region of Himachal Pradesh protects the river catchments of the Sainj, Jiwa Nal, and Tirthan tributaries of the Beas River, and holds natural UNESCO World Heritage Site status. Statement 3 is false because the park's vegetation spans alpine meadows and temperate conifer/oak zones, not tropical Sal forests.

Step-by-Step Solution

Evaluate Statement 1 regarding hydrological features and catchment regions

Statement 1 is correct. Great Himalayan National Park encompasses the upper catchments of the Tirthan, Sainj, Jiwa Nal, and Parvati rivers, which feed directly into the Beas River system.

River catchments define the physical boundaries and hydrology of high-altitude national parks.

Evaluate Statement 2 regarding international conservation designation

Statement 2 is correct. In June 2014, the Great Himalayan National Park Conservation Area was inscribed on the UNESCO World Heritage list under natural criteria (Criterion x) for outstanding biodiversity conservation value.

UNESCO World Heritage natural designations acknowledge critical habitats for endangered species such as the Western Tragopan and Snow Leopard.

Evaluate Statement 3 regarding forest type classification

Statement 3 is incorrect. The elevation of the park ranges from approximately 1,500 m to over 6,000 m, hosting subtropical pine, temperate broadleaf/coniferous forests (oaks, deodar, fir), subalpine forests, and alpine meadows. Sal (Shorea robusta) is a lowland tropical moist deciduous species not found in this high-altitude Himalayan ecosystem.

Ecological zoning in mountain ranges prohibits tropical moist deciduous forest formations in high alpine regions.

Key Concept

State-specific flora, river catchments, and protected area status of Great Himalayan National Park

Question 2734Question →

Match the following historical leaders of state-specific uprisings with their associated regional movement:

Click a left item, then click its matching right item

Show answer & explanation

Answer

Rani Chennamma pairs with Kittur Rebellion (Karnataka); Vasudev Balwant Phadke pairs with Ramosi Uprising (Maharashtra); Chakra Bisoi pairs with Khond Uprising (Odisha); U Tirot Sing pairs with Khasi Rebellion (Meghalaya).

Rani Chennamma is associated with the Kittur Rebellion in Karnataka (1824), Vasudev Balwant Phadke with the Ramosi Uprising in Maharashtra (1879), Chakra Bisoi with the Khond Uprising in Odisha, and U Tirot Sing with the Khasi Rebellion in Meghalaya (1829).

Step-by-Step Solution

Match Rani Chennamma to her historical regional movement

Rani Chennamma was the ruler of Kittur in Karnataka who resisted British annexation.

Establishes the link between Kittur (Karnataka) and Rani Chennamma.

Match Vasudev Balwant Phadke to his regional movement

Vasudev Balwant Phadke mobilized the Ramosi community in Maharashtra for armed resistance.

Establishes the link between Maharashtra's Ramosi uprising and Phadke.

Match Chakra Bisoi to his regional uprising

Chakra Bisoi spearheaded the Khond rebellion in Odisha against colonial intervention.

Establishes the link between Odisha tribal history and Chakra Bisoi.

Match U Tirot Sing to his regional movement

U Tirot Sing led Khasi tribal resistance against British forces in Meghalaya.

Completes the pairing for the Khasi revolt in Meghalaya.

Key Concept

Regional historical movements and state-specific anti-colonial leaders

Question 2735Question →

The Bailadila hill range, renowned for holding massive reserves of high-grade hematite iron ore primarily exported to Japan and South Korea via Visakhapatnam port, is located in which administrative district of Chhattisgarh?

Dantewada

Korba

Janjgir-Champa

Surguja

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Answer: Dantewada

Answer

Dantewada district

Dantewada district in southern Chhattisgarh (Bastar region) contains the Bailadila hill range ('Bailadila' meaning hump of an ox). It contains 14 deposits of high-grade hematite ore, which is mined by the National Mineral Development Corporation (NMDC) and transported via railway to Visakhapatnam port for export.

Step-by-Step Solution

Identify the geographical feature and mineral significance described in the stem.

The Bailadila hill range contains high-grade hematite iron ore deposits.

It is one of the largest high-grade iron ore deposits in India.

Map the Bailadila mining complex to its specific administrative district within Chhattisgarh.

The complex is located in Dantewada district in the Bastar region.

Dantewada is linked by railway to Visakhapatnam port for iron ore shipment.

Key Concept

State Mineral Wealth and Industrial Resources of Chhattisgarh

Estimated Time:1m 0s

Question 2736Question →

Consider the following statements regarding the art, fairs, and architectural heritage of Madhya Pradesh:

1. The terracotta temple complex of Bishnupur was constructed under the patronage of the Chandela dynasty.
2. The annual Tansen Samaroh, a prestigious national classical music festival, is held in the historic city of Gwalior.
3. The Jahaz Mahal (Ship Palace), showcasing medieval Afghan architecture, is located in the heritage town of Mandu in Dhar district.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1 and 2 only

2 and 3 only

1 and 3 only

1, 2 and 3

Show answer & explanation

Answer: 2 and 3 only

Answer

2 and 3 only

The combination indicating only statements 2 and 3 is correct. Tansen Samaroh is conducted every year in Gwalior (Madhya Pradesh) by the Culture Department of MP. Jahaz Mahal is an iconic Afghan-style palace located in Mandu (Dhar district). The first statement is false because the Bishnupur terracotta temple architecture was patronized by the Malla kings of Bengal, whereas the Chandelas patronized the Khajuraho temples in Madhya Pradesh.

Step-by-Step Solution

Analyze Statement 1 regarding the Bishnupur Terracotta Temples

Statement 1 is FALSE. Bishnupur terracotta temples belong to Bankura district in West Bengal and were constructed under the Malla kings (such as Raghunath Singha). The Chandela dynasty of Madhya Pradesh patronized the Khajuraho temples.

Identify the geographical region and royal patronage of the cited temple architecture.

Analyze Statement 2 regarding the venue of Tansen Samaroh

Statement 2 is TRUE. Tansen Samaroh is a renowned Indian classical music festival held annually in December at Behat village/Gwalior city near the tomb of musical legend Tansen in Madhya Pradesh.

Verify the location and nature of the state cultural festival.

Analyze Statement 3 regarding Jahaz Mahal's location and architectural features

Statement 3 is TRUE. Jahaz Mahal (Ship Palace) was constructed during the reign of Sultan Ghiyas-ud-din Khalji in Mandu (Dhar district), displaying distinctive Sultanate Afghan architectural style.

Confirm the architectural style, dynastic period, and district location of the monument.

Key Concept

State Cultural Fairs, Architectural Patronage, and Heritage Monuments of Madhya Pradesh

Estimated Time:1m 15s

Question 2737Question →

With reference to the mineral resources and mining economy of Madhya Pradesh, evaluate the following statements:

1. Balaghat district houses the Bharveli mine, which is recognized as one of Asia's largest underground manganese mining operations.
2. The Malanjkhand belt located in Balaghat district represents India's largest single open-cast copper ore deposit.
3. The Panna region is the sole operational diamond-producing district in India, where diamonds occur in Kimberlite pipe intrusions within the Vindhyan Supergroup.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1, 2, and 3

1 and 2 only

2 and 3 only

1 and 3 only

Show answer & explanation

Answer: 1, 2, and 3

Answer

Statements 1, 2, and 3 are all correct.

All three statements are factually correct according to official state geological and mineral economic surveys. Balaghat district is known for both the Bharveli underground manganese mine and the Malanjkhand open-cast copper mine, while Panna district hosts India's only active diamond producing Kimberlite belt.

Step-by-Step Solution

Analyze Statement 1 regarding manganese reserves

Balaghat district in Madhya Pradesh hosts the famous Bharveli underground manganese mine operated by MOIL (Manganese Ore India Limited), which is Asia's largest underground manganese mine.

Verifies statement 1 as true.

Analyze Statement 2 regarding copper deposits

Malanjkhand in Balaghat district contains a massive granodiorite-hosted copper deposit worked by Hindustan Copper Limited (HCL), forming India's largest single open-pit copper mining facility.

Verifies statement 2 as true.

Analyze Statement 3 regarding diamond occurrence

Panna district (and surrounding parts of Chhatarpur) contains the Majhgawan mine operated by NMDC, which extracts diamonds from ultramafic volcanic pipe rocks (kimberlite/lamproite) intruded into the Precambrian Vindhyan Supergroup sandstone/conglomerate formations. It is currently India's only industrial diamond-producing reserve.

Verifies statement 3 as true.

Key Concept

State Mineral Geography and Economic Geology of Madhya Pradesh

Estimated Time:2m 0s

Question 2738Question →

Match the notable personalities from the state recently featured in public policy and governance initiatives (List I) with their respective key contributions or flagship roles (List II).

Click a left item, then click its matching right item

Show answer & explanation

Answer

Justice (Retd.) R. S. Chauhan matches with authoring the report on Police Transparency and Administrative Grievance Redressal; Dr. Sunita Rani matches with spearheading Project e-Kisan Kranti; K. V. Subramanian matches with formulating the Zero-Carbon Microgrid Framework; and Ananya Sharma matches with receiving the State Youth Icon Honor for the CraftDigital Initiative.

Justice (Retd.) R. S. Chauhan led the state administrative panel on police transparency and grievance mechanisms. Dr. Sunita Rani pioneered the agricultural certification scheme 'Project e-Kisan Kranti'. K. V. Subramanian headed the state task force for rural zero-carbon microgrids. Ananya Sharma received state youth recognition for launching the digital market platform for rural crafts.

Step-by-Step Solution

Identify the primary domain of contribution for each personality listed in List I.

Justice Chauhan belongs to judicial/administrative reform; Dr. Sunita Rani to agricultural innovation; K. V. Subramanian to green energy policy; and Ananya Sharma to youth leadership/handicrafts.

Categorizing personalities by domain helps isolate their specific state initiatives.

Cross-reference each domain with the policy initiatives detailed in List II.

Administrative reforms align with police transparency; agricultural innovation aligns with organic seeds; green energy aligns with zero-carbon microgrids; and youth leadership aligns with craft digitization.

Determines the precise pairing based on verified state current affairs records.

Key Concept

State Current Affairs and Notable Personalities

Question 2739Question →

Match the following state welfare schemes with their primary objective or target beneficiary group:

Click a left item, then click its matching right item

Show answer & explanation

Answer

Rythu Bandhu Scheme pairs with Direct financial assistance for agriculture investment support to farmers; Kanyashree Prakalpa pairs with Conditional cash transfers to encourage female secondary education and reduce child marriage; Kalika Chetharike pairs with Learning enhancement and post-pandemic learning loss recovery for primary students; Mukhya Mantri Yuva Swavalamban Yojana pairs with Financial aid and scholarships for economically weaker students in higher education.

Each scheme is accurately paired with its intended objective: Rythu Bandhu provides agricultural input financial assistance in Telangana, Kanyashree Prakalpa incentivizes female education in West Bengal, Kalika Chetharike addresses foundational learning recovery in Karnataka schools, and Mukhya Mantri Yuva Swavalamban Yojana grants higher education support in Gujarat.

Step-by-Step Solution

Identify the primary sector and target beneficiary of each state scheme.

Rythu Bandhu targets farmers; Kanyashree Prakalpa targets adolescent girls; Kalika Chetharike targets school learning loss; Mukhya Mantri Yuva Swavalamban Yojana targets higher education students.

Understanding the core domain of state welfare policies is necessary for accurate categorization.

Match each scheme on the left with its corresponding description on the right.

Pair Rythu Bandhu with farmer investment support, Kanyashree Prakalpa with girl child education/welfare, Kalika Chetharike with learning recovery, and Mukhya Mantri Yuva Swavalamban Yojana with higher education scholarships.

Aligning state flagship programs to their exact official mandates resolves the matching task.

Key Concept

State-Specific Welfare Schemes and Policy Objectives

Question 2740Question →

Consider the following statements regarding the eligibility criteria and implementation guidelines of the 'Mukhyamantri Ladli Behna Yojana' launched by the Government of Madhya Pradesh:

1. Women domiciled in Madhya Pradesh within the age bracket of 21 to 60 years who are married (including widowed, divorced, and abandoned women) are eligible for the financial assistance.
2. Families having a combined annual household income exceeding ₹2.50 lakh or owning more than 5 acres of agricultural land are excluded from the benefits of the scheme.
3. Financial assistance under the scheme is disbursed exclusively through direct bank transfers into Aadhaar-linked and DB-enabled individual bank accounts of eligible beneficiaries.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1 and 2 only

2 and 3 only

1 and 3 only

1, 2 and 3

Show answer & explanation

Answer: 1, 2 and 3

Answer

All three statements (1, 2, and 3) are correct.

All three statements are completely accurate. Mukhyamantri Ladli Behna Yojana provides monthly financial assistance to married women (aged 21-60) in Madhya Pradesh. The financial ceiling excludes families earning over ₹2.5 lakh per annum or holding 5 or more acres of land, and payments are routed strictly via Aadhaar-enabled Direct Benefit Transfer.

Step-by-Step Solution

Evaluate Statement 1 regarding demographic and marital eligibility criteria.

Statement 1 is correct. The scheme targets resident women of Madhya Pradesh aged between 21 and 60 years. It specifically mandates that the woman must be married, which explicitly includes widowed, divorced, and destitute/deserted women.

Establishing the target age window and marital status requirements.

Evaluate Statement 2 regarding economic and asset exclusions.

Statement 2 is correct. Families paying income tax, possessing an annual family income above ₹2.5 lakh, or owning 5 acres or more of land are placed under the exclusion list.

Checking the fiscal and land ownership ceilings intended to target lower-income households.

Evaluate Statement 3 regarding payment delivery architecture.

Statement 3 is correct. The monthly financial aid is remitted directly into beneficiary accounts utilizing Aadhaar-seeded Direct Benefit Transfer (DBT) channels.

Verifying the administrative disbursement channel of the welfare policy.

Key Concept

Eligibility conditions, income caps, asset limits, and fund distribution models under State Direct Benefit Transfer (DBT) welfare policies.

Estimated Time:2m 0s

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