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Question 4061Question →
Evaluate the following numerical expression strictly according to the VBODMAS rule:
2.5×12−[8+{15÷(4.5−2.1+0.9‾)}]2.5 \times 12 - \left[ 8 + \left\{ 15 \div \left( 4.5 - \overline{2.1 + 0.9} \right) \right\} \right]
What is the final calculated value?
Show answer & explanation

Answer: 12

Answer

12
Evaluating the expression following strict VBODMAS priority yields: Vinculum (2.1 + 0.9 = 3) -> Round brackets (4.5 - 3 = 1.5) -> Curly brackets (15 / 1.5 = 10) -> Square brackets (8 + 10 = 18) -> Multiplication (2.5 * 12 = 30) -> Subtraction (30 - 18 = 12).

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Evaluate the expression under the vinculum bar
2.1 + 0.9 = 3
According to the VBODMAS rule, operations under a vinculum take highest priority.
2
Evaluate the innermost round brackets
4.5 - 3 = 1.5
Perform subtraction inside the round brackets after resolving the vinculum.
3
Perform division within the curly brackets
15 / 1.5 = 10
Division inside curly brackets must be calculated before simplifying the outer bracket.
4
Perform addition within the square brackets
8 + 10 = 18
Complete the evaluation of the square bracket section.
5
Perform multiplication outside the brackets
2.5 * 12 = 30
Multiplication takes precedence over final subtraction.
6
Perform final subtraction
30 - 18 = 12
Complete the expression by subtracting the bracket result from the product.

Key Concept

VBODMAS Rule (Vinculum, Brackets, Orders, Division, Multiplication, Addition, Subtraction)
Question 4062Question →

Assess the fundamental criteria for global biodiversity hotspots, spatial diversity metrics, and regional species endemism. Which of the following statements are correct?

Select all that apply

Show answer & explanation

Answer: To qualify as a global biodiversity hotspot under the Norman Myers framework, a region must have lost at least 70% of its original primary native vegetation.; The Nicobar group of islands in India is biogeographically classified under the Sundaland biodiversity hotspot rather than the Indo-Burma hotspot.

Answer

The correct statements are the assertion regarding Norman Myers' hotspot habitat loss threshold of 70% and the statement classifying the Nicobar Islands under the Sundaland hotspot.
The valid statements correctly highlight Norman Myers' classic hotspot criterion (a minimum 70% loss of primary vegetation) and accurately map the Nicobar Islands to the Sundaland biodiversity hotspot.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Evaluate the quantitative threshold for biodiversity hotspots
Norman Myers established two strict criteria: containing at least 1,500 endemic vascular plant species and having lost at least 70% of original primary habitat. Thus, the statement regarding 70% vegetation loss is correct.
Hotspot designation relies on high endemism combined with severe habitat threat.
2
Verify the biogeographical classification of Indian island territories
The Andaman Islands belong to the Indo-Burma hotspot, while the Nicobar Islands extend into the Sundaland hotspot. Thus, the statement regarding the Nicobar Islands' location in Sundaland is correct.
Administrative units of India cross distinct global biodiversity hotspots.
3
Differentiate between alpha, beta, and gamma diversity metrics
Alpha diversity measures local species richness within a single site. Beta diversity assesses species turnover between habitats across a gradient. The statement defining local richness as beta diversity is incorrect.
Whittaker's diversity metrics categorize spatial scales of biodiversity distinctly.
4
Analyze the geographical range and habitat of the Sangai deer
The Sangai (Brow-antlered deer) is naturally confined to the phumdis of Keibul Lamjao National Park in Manipur, placing it in the Indo-Burma region rather than the Western Ghats. The statement locating it in the Western Ghats is incorrect.
Endemic species must be correctly associated with their specific regional hotspots.

Key Concept

Biodiversity Hotspot Criteria, Endemic Species Distribution, and Ecological Diversity Indices
Question 4063Question →

Find the total number of positive factors of the integer 7575.

Show answer & explanation

Answer: 6

Answer

The total number of positive factors of 75 is 6.
The prime factorization of 75 is 31×523^1 \times 5^2. The number of positive factors is obtained by adding 1 to each exponent in the prime factorization and multiplying the results: (1+1)×(2+1)=2×3=6(1 + 1) \times (2 + 1) = 2 \times 3 = 6. The complete list of positive factors is 1, 3, 5, 15, 25, and 75.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Express 75 in terms of its prime factors.
75=31×5275 = 3^1 \times 5^2
Prime factorization breaks down the number into prime components essential for counting factors.
2
Apply the standard formula for total positive factors of a number N=pa×qbN = p^a \times q^b.
Total factors =(1+1)×(2+1)=2×3=6= (1 + 1) \times (2 + 1) = 2 \times 3 = 6
Each factor is formed by choosing a power of 3 (2 choices: 30,313^0, 3^1) and a power of 5 (3 choices: 50,51,525^0, 5^1, 5^2).

Key Concept

Total Number of Positive Factors from Prime Factorization
Question 4064Question →

What is the total number of positive integer factors of 120120?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: 16

Answer

The total number of positive integer factors of 120120 is 1616.
By prime factorizing 120120, we get 23×31×512^3 \times 3^1 \times 5^1. Applying the factor count formula (a+1)(b+1)(c+1)(a+1)(b+1)(c+1), we obtain (3+1)(1+1)(1+1)=4×2×2=16(3+1)(1+1)(1+1) = 4 \times 2 \times 2 = 16.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Find the prime factorization of 120120
120=23×31×51120 = 2^3 \times 3^1 \times 5^1
To calculate the total number of factors systematically, express the number as a product of prime factors.
2
Apply the total factor count formula
Number of factors = (3+1)(1+1)(1+1)(3 + 1)(1 + 1)(1 + 1)
If a number N=pa×qb×rcN = p^a \times q^b \times r^c, the total number of positive factors is (a+1)(b+1)(c+1)(a+1)(b+1)(c+1).
3
Compute the product
4×2×2=164 \times 2 \times 2 = 16
Multiplying the incremented prime exponents gives the total count of factors.

Key Concept

Number of Positive Factors from Prime Factorization
Question 4065Question →

The table below presents the annual handicraft exports (in ₹ Crore) across four regional development boards from 2021–22 to 2024–25:

Regional Board2021–222022–232023–242024–25
Northern Region150180200240
Southern Region240260300360
Eastern Region120150180210
Western Region160200250300

Based on the table, what is the ratio of the total handicraft exports from the Northern and Eastern Regions combined in 2024–25 to the total handicraft exports from the Southern and Western Regions combined in 2021–22?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: 9 : 8

Answer

The correct ratio of exports is 9 : 8.
The total exports from the Northern and Eastern Regions combined in 2024–25 amount to ₹240 Crore + ₹210 Crore = ₹450 Crore. The total exports from the Southern and Western Regions combined in 2021–22 amount to ₹240 Crore + ₹160 Crore = ₹400 Crore. Taking the ratio of 450 to 400 gives 450 : 400, which simplifies directly to 9 : 8.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify and sum the export values for Northern and Eastern Regions for the year 2024–25 from the table grid.
Northern Region (2024–25) = ₹240 Crore; Eastern Region (2024–25) = ₹210 Crore. Total = 240 + 210 = ₹450 Crore.
This establishes the numerator component requested in the question stem.
2
Identify and sum the export values for Southern and Western Regions for the base year 2021–22.
Southern Region (2021–22) = ₹240 Crore; Western Region (2021–22) = ₹160 Crore. Total = 240 + 160 = ₹400 Crore.
This establishes the denominator component requested in the question stem.
3
Form the ratio and simplify to its lowest integer terms.
Ratio = 450 / 400 = 9 / 8, or 9 : 8.
Simplifying by dividing both numbers by their highest common factor (50) yields the final required ratio.

Key Concept

Tabular Data Interpretation and Multi-Cell Ratio Calculation
Estimated Time:1m 30s
Question 4066Question →

If 2x+3⋅42x−18x+1=64\frac{2^{x+3} \cdot 4^{2x-1}}{8^{x+1}} = 64, what is the value of (x+2)2(x + 2)^2?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: 36

Answer

The value of (x+2)2(x + 2)^2 is 36.
Converting all terms to base 2 simplifies the equation to 22x−2=262^{2x-2} = 2^6. Equating the powers gives 2x−2=62x - 2 = 6, so x=4x = 4. Substituting x=4x = 4 into (x+2)2(x + 2)^2 yields (4+2)2=36(4 + 2)^2 = 36.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Convert all exponential terms to base 2
Numerator term 42x−1=24x−24^{2x-1} = 2^{4x-2}, denominator term 8x+1=23x+38^{x+1} = 2^{3x+3}, and right-hand side 64=2664 = 2^6.
To combine powers using index laws, all expressions must share a common base.
2
Simplify the left-hand side expression using exponent laws
2x+3⋅24x−223x+3=25x+123x+3=2(5x+1)−(3x+3)=22x−2\frac{2^{x+3} \cdot 2^{4x-2}}{2^{3x+3}} = \frac{2^{5x+1}}{2^{3x+3}} = 2^{(5x+1)-(3x+3)} = 2^{2x-2}.
Apply product law am⋅an=am+na^m \cdot a^n = a^{m+n} and quotient law aman=am−n\frac{a^m}{a^n} = a^{m-n}.
3
Solve for the variable x
22x−2=26  ⟹  2x−2=6  ⟹  x=42^{2x-2} = 2^6 \implies 2x - 2 = 6 \implies x = 4.
When bases are equal, exponents must be equal.
4
Evaluate the requested target expression
(4+2)2=62=36(4 + 2)^2 = 6^2 = 36.
Substitute the calculated value of x=4x = 4 into (x+2)2(x + 2)^2.

Key Concept

Laws of Indices and Exponential Equations
Estimated Time:1m 30s
Question 4067Question →

The table below shows the annual solar power generation (in Megawatts, MW) across four districts (P, Q, R, and S) in a state from 2021 to 2024:

District2021 (MW)2022 (MW)2023 (MW)2024 (MW)
District P100120150200
District Q200240300360
District R150180200240
District S5060150200

Based on the table above, which of the following statements are correct?

Select all that apply

Show answer & explanation

Answer: District P experienced a 100% increase in solar power generation in 2024 compared to its generation in 2021.; The ratio of total solar power generation in 2021 to total solar power generation in 2024 across all four districts is 1:21 : 2.

Answer

The correct statements are that District P experienced a 100% increase in solar power generation in 2024 compared to 2021, and the ratio of total solar power generation in 2021 to 2024 across all four districts is 1 : 2.
The statement regarding District P's growth is valid because generation doubled from 100 MW in 2021 to 200 MW in 2024, representing a 100% increase. The statement comparing overall totals is also valid because total generation in 2021 (500 MW) and 2024 (1000 MW) forms a simplified ratio of 1 : 2.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Evaluate the statement regarding District P's percentage growth from 2021 to 2024.
Percentage Increase = 200−100100×100=100%\frac{200 - 100}{100} \times 100 = 100\%. This statement is correct.
Calculate relative growth using 2021 as the base year.
2
Evaluate the statement regarding District S's share in 2023.
Total 2023 generation = 150+300+200+150=800 MW150 + 300 + 200 + 150 = 800\text{ MW}. District Q generated 300 MW300\text{ MW} (37.5%37.5\%), which is the highest. District S generated 150 MW150\text{ MW} (18.75%18.75\%). This statement is incorrect.
Determine total generation for 2023 and compare individual district contributions.
3
Evaluate the statement regarding the ratio of total generation in 2021 vs 2024.
Total 2021 generation = 100+200+150+50=500 MW100 + 200 + 150 + 50 = 500\text{ MW}. Total 2024 generation = 200+360+240+200=1000 MW200 + 360 + 240 + 200 = 1000\text{ MW}. Ratio = 500:1000=1:2500 : 1000 = 1 : 2. This statement is correct.
Sum values across all districts for 2021 and 2024, then simplify the resulting ratio.
4
Evaluate the statement regarding District R's annual average generation.
Sum for District R = 150+180+200+240=770 MW150 + 180 + 200 + 240 = 770\text{ MW}. Average = 7704=192.5 MW\frac{770}{4} = 192.5\text{ MW}. This statement is incorrect.
Divide total four-year generation for District R by the number of years (4).

Key Concept

Tabular Data Interpretation: Multi-Step Percentage Growth, Aggregation, Ratio Analysis, and Averages
Estimated Time:1m 30s
Question 4068Question →

Consider the following statements regarding in-situ and ex-situ biological techniques used for environmental pollution control (bioremediation):

1. Bioaugmentation involves modifying environmental conditions by adding nutrients and electron acceptors to enhance the metabolic activity of indigenous microbial populations.
2. Biosparging is an in-situ remediation process that injects air under pressure into the saturated zone below the water table to promote aerobic biodegradation of organic pollutants.
3. Phytostabilization utilizes plants to immobilize soil and groundwater contaminants through absorption and precipitation, thereby preventing their migration rather than removing them from the site.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: 2 and 3 only

Answer

2 and 3 only
Statements 2 and 3 are correct. Biosparging is an effective in-situ technique that forces air under pressure into the saturated zone to supply oxygen to indigenous microbes, enhancing the biodegradation of volatile hydrocarbons and organic contaminants in groundwater. Phytostabilization utilizes tolerant plants to immobilize heavy metals and organic pollutants within the soil or rhizosphere, reducing their leaching potential into groundwater without requiring plant harvesting. Statement 1 is incorrect because the process of modifying site conditions by supplying nutrients and electron acceptors to boost native microflora is defined as biostimulation; bioaugmentation specifically entails introducing exogenous, laboratory-cultured, or genetically modified microbes into the contaminated media.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze Statement 1 regarding microbial remediation terminology.
Statement 1 describes 'biostimulation' (adding nutrients/oxygen to stimulate existing indigenous microbes) rather than 'bioaugmentation' (adding specialized, externally cultured microbial strains to the polluted site). Therefore, Statement 1 is incorrect.
Conflating biostimulation with bioaugmentation is a common technical conceptual error in bioremediation strategies.
2
Evaluate Statement 2 regarding groundwater remediation mechanisms.
Biosparging specifically involves injecting air under pressure directly into the saturated zone below the water table, facilitating volatile transport and stimulating aerobic biodegradation of organic pollutants. Therefore, Statement 2 is correct.
Biosparging targets the saturated groundwater zone, whereas bioventing targets the unsaturated vadose zone.
3
Evaluate Statement 3 regarding phytoremediation sub-types.
Phytostabilization involves using plant root systems to sorb, precipitate, or bind contaminants in the soil/rhizosphere, rendering them bio-unavailable and preventing off-site migration. Therefore, Statement 3 is correct.
Phytostabilization focuses on contaminant containment and stabilization rather than extraction (phytoextraction) or volatile emission (phytovolatilization).

Key Concept

Bioremediation and Phytoremediation Control Mechanisms
Question 4069Question →

Consider the following statements regarding the intangible cultural heritage and traditional performing arts of Kerala:

1. 'Mudiyettu' is a traditional ritual dance-drama depicting the mythological battle between the goddess Kali and the demon Darika.
2. 'Theyyam' is a popular ritual worship dance incorporating elaborate costumes and headgear, practiced primarily in the North Malabar region.
3. 'Koodiyattam' is a UNESCO-recognized Sanskrit theatre tradition performed exclusively as a folk dance during the annual harvest festival of Onam.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: 1 and 2 only

Answer

Statements 1 and 2 only are correct.
Mudiyettu is a ritual dance-drama of Kerala portraying the slaying of the demon Darika by Goddess Kali. Theyyam is an ancient ritual art form native to North Malabar. Koodiyattam, while a UNESCO-recognized art form, is classical Sanskrit temple theatre performed in Koothambalams, not a folk dance associated with Onam.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze Statement 1 regarding Mudiyettu
Mudiyettu is an authentic ritual theatre performance of Kerala centered around the combat between Goddess Kali and Darika, inscribed in UNESCO's Representative List of Intangible Cultural Heritage in 2010. Statement 1 is correct.
Verifying the mythological narrative and ritual context of Mudiyettu.
2
Analyze Statement 2 regarding Theyyam
Theyyam (or Kaliyattam) is a ritualistic worship art form prevalent in North Malabar (Kannur, Kasaragod, and parts of Kozhikode districts) characterized by sacred dance, heavy face paint, and massive ornamental headgear. Statement 2 is correct.
Verifying the geographic area and visual features of Theyyam.
3
Analyze Statement 3 regarding Koodiyattam
Koodiyattam is India's oldest surviving Sanskrit theatre tradition, officially recognized by UNESCO in 2001. It is traditionally performed in dedicated temple theatres called 'Koothambalams' across extended multi-day schedules, not as a folk harvest dance limited to Onam. Statement 3 is incorrect.
Distinguishing temple drama traditions from folk festival dances.

Key Concept

Performing Arts Heritage and Intangible Cultural Heritage of Kerala
Question 4070Question →

Consider the following statements regarding the statutory position, administrative powers, and jurisdiction of the Lokayukta in state administration:

1. The office of Lokayukta is a uniform constitutional body created under Article 252 across all states.
2. In most states, the recommendations and investigation reports submitted by the Lokayukta regarding public servants are advisory in nature and not legally binding on the state executive.
3. Members of the state judiciary, including serving judges of the High Court, fall directly under the investigative jurisdiction of the State Lokayukta.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: 2 only

Answer

The correct answer is the option stating '2 only'.
Only statement 2 is correct. The Lokayukta is a statutory ombudsman whose recommendations are advisory. Statement 1 is incorrect because Lokayukta is statutory rather than constitutional. Statement 3 is incorrect because serving High Court judges are outside the investigative mandate of State Lokayuktas.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze Statement 1 regarding the legal and constitutional status of the Lokayukta.
Statement 1 is incorrect.
The Lokayukta is a statutory institution created by state-specific acts, not a constitutional body under Article 252.
2
Analyze Statement 2 regarding the enforcement authority of Lokayukta recommendations.
Statement 2 is correct.
The recommendations of the Lokayukta are recommendatory/advisory. The state government is obliged to examine the report and submit an action taken report to the state legislature, but cannot be compelled by the Lokayukta directly.
3
Analyze Statement 3 regarding the inclusion of High Court judiciary within Lokayukta jurisdiction.
Statement 3 is incorrect.
Constitutional provisions insulate the judiciary from state-level administrative ombudsmen, excluding High Court judges from Lokayukta inquiries.

Key Concept

Statutory framework and jurisdictional limits of the State Lokayukta
Question 4071Question →

Match the following prominent regional uprisings in 19th-century state history (List-I) with their respective key leaders or associated centers (List-II):

Click a left item, then click its matching right item

Items

Paika Rebellion (1817)
Chuar Rebellion (1798–1799)
Sambalpur Revolt (1857)
Phulaguri Dhawa (1861)

Matches

Show answer & explanation

Answer

Paika Rebellion (1817) pairs with Bakshi Jagabandhu (Khordha, Odisha); Chuar Rebellion (1798–1799) pairs with Durjol Singh (Jangal Mahals); Sambalpur Revolt (1857) pairs with Veer Surendra Sai (Western Odisha); and Phulaguri Dhawa (1861) pairs with Peasant Raiyats of Nagaon (Assam).
Each regional historical movement correctly aligns with its key leadership figure and region: the Paika Rebellion with Bakshi Jagabandhu in Khordha (Odisha); the Chuar Rebellion with Durjol Singh in Jangal Mahals; the Sambalpur Revolt with Veer Surendra Sai in Western Odisha; and Phulaguri Dhawa with the Nagaon peasantry in Assam.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the leadership of the 1817 Khordha uprising
The Paika Rebellion was commanded by Bakshi Jagabandhu Bidyadhar in Odisha.
Establishing the primary leader of the armed militia revolt in Khordha.
2
Associate the leader of the late 18th-century Chuar Rebellion
Durjol Singh led the Chuar uprising in the Jangal Mahals area.
Connecting regional agrarian resistance against Bengal/Odisha land settlements.
3
Match the 1857 regional resistance hero of Western Odisha
Veer Surendra Sai led the Sambalpur resistance against British annexation.
Identifying the key leader of the 1857 war of independence in Sambalpur.
4
Match the 1861 Assam peasant movement
Phulaguri Dhawa was carried out by the peasant raiyats of Nagaon, Assam.
Locating the first major agrarian revolt against colonial fiscal policy in Assam.

Key Concept

Regional Uprisings and Leaders in 19th-Century State History
Question 4072Question →

Match the environmental pollution control technologies in List-I with their corresponding primary operating mechanisms and target pollutants in List-II.

Click a left item, then click its matching right item

Items

Electrostatic Precipitator (ESP)
Wet Scrubber
Three-Way Catalytic Converter
Cyclone Separator

Matches

Show answer & explanation

Answer

Electrostatic Precipitator matches with corona discharge ionization for fine particulate matter collection; Wet Scrubber matches with neutralization and chemical absorption of acidic flue gases (SO2SO_2); Three-Way Catalytic Converter matches with simultaneous oxidation of hydrocarbons and COCO alongside reduction of NOxNO_x; and Cyclone Separator matches with centrifugal force separation of coarse particulate matter (>10 μm>10\,\mu\text{m}).
The pairings correctly match each pollution control device with its distinct physical or chemical mechanism. Electrostatic Precipitators rely on high-voltage corona discharge to ionize and collect fine particulate matter. Wet Scrubbers utilize liquid absorption to neutralize acidic gaseous pollutants such as SO2SO_2. Three-Way Catalytic Converters promote simultaneous oxidation of carbon monoxide/hydrocarbons and reduction of nitrogen oxides. Cyclone Separators use gas vortex velocity and centrifugal forces to isolate coarse suspended particles.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze particulate control technologies based on physical separation mechanisms
Electrostatic Precipitators utilize high-voltage electric fields (corona discharge) to charge and capture fine particles (PM2.5PM_{2.5} and PM10PM_{10}), whereas Cyclone Separators rely purely on mechanical inertia and centrifugal force to drop out coarse particulates (>10 μm>10\,\mu\text{m}).
Differentiating electrostatic particle charging from mechanical vortex inertia links Electrostatic Precipitator to fine particle ionization and Cyclone Separator to coarse particle centrifugal removal.
2
Analyze gaseous pollutant mitigation methods across stationary industrial and mobile sources
Wet Scrubbers spray liquid reagents to neutralize acidic gases such as SO2SO_2 in industrial stack gases, while Catalytic Converters use solid-state noble metals to remediate vehicle exhaust gases (COCO, NOxNO_x, unburnt hydrocarbons).
Distinguishing liquid-gas chemical scrubbing from solid-phase heterogeneous catalysis establishes the correct matches for gas treatment equipment.
3
Verify complete pair alignment across List-I and List-II
Electrostatic Precipitator aligns with fine particle ionization; Wet Scrubber aligns with acidic gas scrubbing (SO2SO_2); Three-Way Catalytic Converter aligns with multi-pollutant automotive redox catalysis; Cyclone Separator aligns with coarse particulate centrifugal separation.
Ensures precise technological mapping without overlapping operating principles.

Key Concept

Operating Principles of Air Pollution Control Equipment and Industrial Emission Reduction Technologies
Question 4073Question →

Match the Parliamentary Committees in List I with their corresponding primary functions in List II:

Click a left item, then click its matching right item

Items

Committee on Subordinate Legislation
Committee on Government Assurances
Estimates Committee
Business Advisory Committee

Matches

Show answer & explanation

Answer

Committee on Subordinate Legislation pairs with scrutinizing executive delegated rulemaking under parent statutes; Committee on Government Assurances pairs with tracking ministerial promises and assurances made on the floor of the House; Estimates Committee pairs with examining budget estimates and suggesting administrative economies; Business Advisory Committee pairs with allocating time for government legislative business.
Each parliamentary committee corresponds directly to its established functional mandate: Subordinate Legislation monitors executive rulemaking under statutory delegation; Government Assurances tracks ministerial commitments made during House debates; Estimates Committee evaluates financial estimates for administrative economies; Business Advisory Committee allocates time for legislative proceedings.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the mandate of the Committee on Subordinate Legislation
Connects to delegated legislation scrutiny
Parliament delegates rulemaking authority to the executive branch, and this committee ensures delegated rules remain within the bounds of parent statutory Acts.
2
Identify the mandate of the Committee on Government Assurances
Connects to monitoring ministerial assurances
Ministers frequently make promises or commit to actions during parliamentary proceedings, which this committee monitors for fulfillment.
3
Identify the mandate of the Estimates Committee
Connects to budget estimate evaluation and economy recommendations
Consisting exclusively of 30 Lok Sabha members, this standing committee evaluates budgetary demands to suggest structural and financial efficiencies.
4
Identify the mandate of the Business Advisory Committee
Connects to parliamentary time allocation and legislative agenda management
Chaired by the Presiding Officer of the respective House, it prepares the time schedule for discussions on government bills and motions.

Key Concept

Functional Classification of Parliamentary Standing Committees
Question 4074Question →

Norman Myers introduced the concept of biodiversity hotspots to identify geographic regions experiencing critical habitat degradation alongside exceptionally high endemic species concentration. According to the established quantitative criteria, what is the minimum threshold of endemic vascular plant species a region must possess to be designated as a global biodiversity hotspot?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: At least 1,500 endemic species of vascular plants (or > 0.5% of the global total)

Answer

At least 1,500 endemic species of vascular plants (or > 0.5% of the global total)
According to the criteria formalized by Norman Myers and adopted by Conservation International, a region must meet two quantitative conditions to be recognized as a biodiversity hotspot: (1) high endemism, specifically harboring at least 1,500 endemic vascular plant species (> 0.5% of global total), and (2) high degree of threat, having lost 70% or more of its primary original vegetation.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the quantitative criteria established by Norman Myers (1988/2000) for global biodiversity hotspots.
Two main criteria are identified: species endemism threshold and habitat loss threshold.
Hotspots prioritize conservation areas with extreme biological richness under severe threat.
2
Evaluate the baseline biological richness requirement.
A region must harbor at least 1,500 species of endemic vascular plants, representing more than 0.5% of the world's total plant species.
Vascular plants serve as the foundational indicator group for ecosystem diversity.
3
Evaluate the threat level requirement.
The region must have lost at least 70% of its original primary natural vegetation.
This confirms that the ecosystem is under high threat of destruction.

Key Concept

Hotspot Criteria and Endemism Thresholds
Estimated Time:1m 0s
Question 4075Question →

Arrange the following environmental acts and policies of India in chronological order of their enactment or official adoption, starting from the earliest to the latest:

Drag items to arrange them in the correct order

Show answer & explanation

Answer

The correct chronological sequence from earliest to latest is: Public Liability Insurance Act (1991), Energy Conservation Act (2001), National Environment Policy (2006), and Compensatory Afforestation Fund Act (2016).
The correct chronological arrangement reflects the historical progression of Indian environmental laws: the Public Liability Insurance Act was enacted in 1991 in the aftermath of the Bhopal Gas Leak tragedy, followed by the Energy Conservation Act in 2001, the comprehensive National Environment Policy in 2006, and the Compensatory Afforestation Fund Act in 2016.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the year of enactment or adoption for each legislation and policy
Public Liability Insurance Act: 1991; Energy Conservation Act: 2001; National Environment Policy: 2006; Compensatory Afforestation Fund Act: 2016.
Establishing the precise year for each milestone is required to construct an accurate timeline.
2
Arrange the years in ascending order
1991 → 2001 → 2006 → 2016.
Ascending order places the earliest legislation first and the most recent last.
3
Match the ordered years back to the corresponding items
Public Liability Insurance Act (1991) → Energy Conservation Act (2001) → National Environment Policy (2006) → Compensatory Afforestation Fund Act (2016).
This confirms the correct sequence of item placement.

Key Concept

Chronological evolution of key environmental legislations, statutory mechanisms, and policies in post-independence India.
Question 4076Question →

This traditional folk dance form originated among the Bhil tribe of Rajasthan and was later adopted by royal Rajput communities. It is characterized by women executing graceful twirling movements in flowing skirts ('ghaghra'). Which of the following folk dance forms is being described?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Ghoomar

Answer

Ghoomar
Ghoomar is the signature folk dance of Rajasthan, originally performed by women of the Bhil tribe to worship Goddess Saraswati and later integrated into royal Rajput festivities. The dance is recognized by its signature spinning motion while wearing wide-flared skirts.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the geographical region and tribal origin mentioned in the prompt.
The prompt specifies a folk dance originating from the Bhil tribe in Rajasthan.
Connecting tribal cultural elements to their respective home state narrows down the heritage art form.
2
Match the characteristic dance movements with regional dance traditions.
Twirling in flowing 'ghaghra' skirts is the defining visual characteristic of Ghoomar.
Ghoomar literally derives its name from 'ghoomna' (twirling/spinning).

Key Concept

Folk Dances and Cultural Heritage of Rajasthan
Question 4077Question →

Consider the following statements regarding the Pradhan Mantri Jeevan Jyoti Bima Yojana (PMJJBY):
1. It provides a renewable life insurance cover of ₹2 lakh for death due to any cause to individuals in the age group of 18 to 50 years having a bank account.
2. It is structured as a Centrally Sponsored Scheme where the annual premium cost is shared between the Union and State Governments in a 60:40 ratio.
3. The scheme is offered and administered through the Life Insurance Corporation of India (LIC) and other participating life insurers in tie-up with banks.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: 1 and 3 only

Answer

The statement combination '1 and 3 only' is correct. Pradhan Mantri Jeevan Jyoti Bima Yojana (PMJJBY) offers a ₹2 lakh life insurance cover for individuals aged 18 to 50 years with a savings bank account, administered by LIC and partner life insurers. Statement 2 is incorrect because PMJJBY is a subscriber-funded social security scheme with automatic premium deduction, not a Centrally Sponsored cost-shared scheme.
The correct response identifies statements 1 and 3 as true. Pradhan Mantri Jeevan Jyoti Bima Yojana (PMJJBY) is a flagship social security life insurance scheme offering a ₹2 lakh cover for death due to any reason to individuals aged 18–50 years holding a savings bank account. It is implemented through LIC and other life insurers in partnership with participating banks. Statement 2 is false because the premium is paid entirely by the policyholder via auto-debit rather than through a 60:40 Centre-State funding split.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Evaluate Statement 1 regarding target beneficiary age limit and insurance coverage.
PMJJBY is available to people in the age group 18 to 50 years who have a bank account and consent to auto-debit. It provides a risk coverage of ₹2 lakh in case of death due to any reason. Statement 1 is correct.
Verifying basic eligibility conditions and policy coverage payout.
2
Evaluate Statement 2 regarding funding architecture and central/state share.
PMJJBY is a voluntary social security scheme funded directly by the subscriber through auto-debit from their bank account. It is not a Centrally Sponsored Scheme with a 60:40 budgetary sharing ratio. Statement 2 is incorrect.
Distinguishing between subscriber-funded micro-insurance schemes and budgetary fiscal grant schemes.
3
Evaluate Statement 3 regarding nodal implementing agencies and financial institutions.
The scheme is offered through the Life Insurance Corporation (LIC) and other life insurance companies that tie up with participating banks to administer subscriber enrollment and claims. Statement 3 is correct.
Checking the administrative and operational delivery architecture.

Key Concept

Pradhan Mantri Jeevan Jyoti Bima Yojana (PMJJBY) Eligibility and Financial Architecture
Question 4078Question →

With reference to environmental governance and legislation in India, consider the following statements regarding the Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB):

1. The CPCB was established as a statutory organization under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986.
2. It provides technical assistance and guidance to the Central Government and coordinates the activities of State Pollution Control Boards.
3. It is entrusted with powers and functions under both the Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974 and the Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1981.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: 2 and 3 only

Answer

Statements 2 and 3 are correct. Statement 1 is incorrect because the Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB) was constituted under the Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974, not the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986.
The option selecting statements 2 and 3 only is correct. The Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB) is a statutory organization constituted in September 1974 under the Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974. Later, it was also entrusted with powers and functions under the Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1981. It serves as a field formation and provides technical services to the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change while coordinating activities across State Pollution Control Boards.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Evaluate Statement 1 regarding the parent legislation of the CPCB.
Statement 1 is incorrect. The Central Pollution Control Board was established in September 1974 under the Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974.
Although CPCB plays a key role under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986, its statutory creation stems from the Water Act of 1974.
2
Evaluate Statement 2 regarding technical assistance and coordination functions.
Statement 2 is correct.
CPCB advises the Central Government on pollution control matters and coordinates the activities of State Boards to resolve disputes and standardize technical procedures.
3
Evaluate Statement 3 regarding statutory coverage under multiple Acts.
Statement 3 is correct.
CPCB was later entrusted with functions and powers under the Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1981, alongside its original mandate under the Water Act, 1974.

Key Concept

Statutory origins and mandate of the Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB)
Question 4079Question →

Regarding the Atal Pension Yojana (APY), a core component of India's social security architecture, which of the following statements are correct?

Select all that apply

Show answer & explanation

Answer: The scheme is targeted at workers in the unorganized sector within the entry age group of 18 to 40 years.; Subscribers receive a guaranteed fixed minimum pension ranging from ₹1,000 to ₹5,000 per month upon attaining 60 years of age.

Answer

The correct statements are the one specifying the target entry age of 18 to 40 years for unorganized sector workers and the one stating the guaranteed fixed minimum monthly pension ranging from ₹1,000 to ₹5,000 upon reaching 60 years of age.
The statement regarding the age band of 18 to 40 years for unorganized sector workers is correct because APY mandates a minimum 20-year contribution window before turning 60. The statement regarding pension slabs is also correct because the scheme promises ₹1,000, ₹2,000, ₹3,000, ₹4,000, or ₹5,000 guaranteed per month.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Evaluate the eligibility criteria regarding age and targeted beneficiary group.
Unorganized sector workers aged between 18 and 40 years are eligible to join APY, making this statement accurate.
APY requires at least 20 years of continuous contributions prior to attaining the pension age of 60.
2
Identify the nodal administrative agency regulating the scheme.
The scheme operates under the administrative control of PFRDA, making the attribution to IRDAI incorrect.
PFRDA oversees pension schemes in India, while IRDAI handles insurance products.
3
Check the guaranteed benefit structure provided at age 60.
Subscribers get a guaranteed monthly pension option between ₹1,000 and ₹5,000, making this statement accurate.
The Central Government guarantees the minimum pension shortfall if accumulated investment returns are lower than expected.
4
Verify income-tax restriction amendments.
Taxpayers are restricted from joining APY as of October 1, 2022, making the claim of unrestricted taxpayer eligibility incorrect.
The scheme focuses government subsidies on non-taxpaying low-income informal workers.

Key Concept

Atal Pension Yojana (APY) Architecture and Eligibility
Question 4080Question →

Regarding the physical relief, major mountain ranges, and hydrography of Himachal Pradesh, which of the following statements are correct?

Select all that apply

Show answer & explanation

Answer: The Dhauladhar range forms part of the Lesser Himalayas and is primarily composed of granite and crystalline metamorphic rock formations.; The Sutlej River enters Himachal Pradesh through the Shipki La pass after originating near Lake Rakshastal in Tibet.; The Rohtang Pass connects the Kullu Valley with the Lahaul and Spiti Valleys across the Pir Panjal Range.

Answer

The statements describing the Dhauladhar range composition, the Sutlej River entering via Shipki La, and the Rohtang Pass traversing the Pir Panjal Range are correct. The statement misattributing the Spiti River to the Yamuna river basin is incorrect.
The statements describing the Dhauladhar range as part of the Lesser Himalayas with granitic composition, the Sutlej River entering at Shipki La from Tibet, and the Rohtang Pass connecting Kullu to Lahaul across the Pir Panjal Range are all geographically accurate facts regarding Himachal Pradesh physical geography.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the physiographic classification of the Dhauladhar Range.
Confirm that Dhauladhar represents the Lesser Himalayan elevation belt in Himachal Pradesh dominated by granite and metamorphic rock types.
Evaluates accuracy of regional mountain range geology.
2
Verify the trans-Himalayan course and entry point of the Sutlej River.
Confirm origin near Lake Rakshastal and entry into India at Shipki La pass in Kinnaur.
Evaluates knowledge of state hydrography and mountain passes.
3
Examine the drainage basin and confluence of the Spiti River.
Identify that Spiti River drains into the Sutlej River at Khab, making it part of the Indus basin, not the Yamuna basin.
Detects river tributary mismatch.
4
Check the geographic location and structural range of Rohtang Pass.
Confirm Rohtang Pass crosses the Pir Panjal Range to link Kullu Valley with Lahaul and Spiti.
Evaluates latitudinal/spatial features and pass connections.

Key Concept

State Physical Relief and Drainage Systems of Himachal Pradesh
Estimated Time:1m 30s
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